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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke her up from sleep this morning and blurred vision. She reports experiencing similar headaches with nausea and vomiting for the past two years, which have not responded to over-the-counter medications. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication.
During the examination, her vital signs are stable, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:If a young, obese female complains of headaches, blurred vision, and nausea/vomiting, it is likely that she is suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This condition may cause symptoms to improve during the day when the patient is upright, but worsen when they bend down.
While acute angle glaucoma can also cause headaches and blurred vision, it typically presents with unilateral eye pain and abnormal pupillary reflexes on neurological examination.
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is less likely as a cause of the patient’s symptoms, as it typically presents with headache as the primary symptom, along with focal or generalized neurological features such as seizures. Risk factors for clot formation should be considered in the patient’s history.
Although migraines are a common cause of recurrent headaches, the patient’s high BMI and generalized nature of the headache, along with the positional element, suggest idiopathic intracranial hypertension as the most likely cause.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: Palpitations
Correct Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms
Explanation:The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Dengue fever
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests
Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.
Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.
It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and depression that has been ongoing for a month. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 126/82 mmHg while lying down and 94/60 mmHg while standing up. Blood tests reveal mild hyponatremia and mild hyperkalemia. The GP orders a short synacthen test, which yields the following results: (expected 30 minute level >580 nmol/l)
Baseline cortisol 300 nmol/l
30 minute cortisol 350 nmol/L
Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:This individual’s diagnosis of Addison’s disease is confirmed by a failed short synacthen test, which measures the adrenal glands’ response to synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) analogue.
Autoimmune disease is the leading cause of Addison’s disease in developed countries, while tuberculosis (TB) is the most prevalent cause globally. However, given the patient’s Welsh heritage and lack of TB risk factors, TB is less probable in this scenario. Metastatic disease, amyloidosis, and Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome are all less frequent causes of Addison’s disease.
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes in for his yearly vaccinations.
Which pathogen is he most likely to receive immunisation against on an annual basis?Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Correct Answer: influenza virus
Explanation:Vaccinations for Elderly Patients: A Review of influenza, Varicella Zoster, Legionella Pneumophila, Streptococcus Pneumoniae, and Neisseria Meningitidis
As individuals age, their immune systems weaken, making them more susceptible to certain diseases. Vaccinations are an important tool in preventing these diseases, particularly in the elderly population. influenza vaccination is recommended annually for all individuals over the age of 65, with those with underlying chronic diseases at highest risk. While the vaccine’s efficacy is reduced in the elderly population, it still significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates. Varicella zoster virus vaccination is recommended for patients aged between 70 to 79 to prevent shingles. There is currently no vaccine available for Legionella pneumophila. Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccination is recommended for individuals over 65 years of age, with one dose providing lifelong immunity. Neisseria meningitidis vaccination is not routinely recommended for the over-65s but is given to infants, children, and adults with certain medical conditions. Overall, vaccinations are an important preventative measure for elderly patients to reduce the risk of disease and improve health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.
What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?Your Answer: Three readings should be obtained where two of them are within 20% of each other
Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded
Explanation:Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers
To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.
It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic for her initial check-up. According to her electronic records, she is identified as a former smoker. In accordance with current NICE recommendations, what is the best approach to evaluate her smoking status?
Your Answer: Use a carbon monoxide detector, explaining that all women are checked regardless of their declared smoking status
Explanation:Could you please tell me if you or anyone in your household smokes? If yes, how many cigarettes do they smoke per day? Additionally, may I examine your fingers for any signs of tar-staining?
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She reports feeling inadequate in social situations and worries about her career. Additionally, she experiences insomnia, difficulty concentrating, tenseness, and irritability. There are no other medical concerns, substance abuse, hallucinations, delusions, or psychomotor retardation. She appears well-groomed, doesn't express frustration, and denies suicidal ideation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety that is difficult to control, along with restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Unlike adjustment disorder, the anxiety doesn’t appear to be related to a specific stressor or exclusively to social situations, and there is no evidence of specific obsessions or compulsions. Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder are better accounted for than major depressive disorder. There is no mention of low mood or loss of enjoyment in this scenario.
Adjustment disorder, also known as exogenous, reactive, or situational depression, occurs when an individual is unable to adjust to a particular stress or major life event. People with this disorder typically have symptoms similar to those of depressed individuals, such as general loss of interest, feelings of hopelessness, and crying. Anxiety is a common feature of adjustment disorder. Unlike major depression, the disorder usually resolves once the individual is able to adapt to the situation.
Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.
In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.
If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)
What test should be done before starting azithromycin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECG
Explanation:An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately managed with regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID. During your discussion of treatment options, he mentions experiencing constipation with previous use of opioid analgesics. As a result, you decide to initiate a brief course of oral anti-inflammatory therapy on an as-needed basis. What is the most suitable initial NSAID to recommend for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS
Explanation:NSAIDs and COX-2 Inhibitors: Balancing Thrombotic and GI Risks
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they carry different risks. COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of thrombotic events, while all NSAIDs are associated with potential serious gastrointestinal (GI) problems. However, there is variation in risk among different NSAIDs.
Diclofenac at high doses and high dose ibuprofen are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen have not been shown to increase the risk of myocardial infarction. In terms of GI toxicity, azapropazone has the highest risk, ibuprofen the lowest, and naproxen and diclofenac are intermediate. Selective COX-2 inhibitors provide the lowest risk of serious GI toxicity.
When choosing a pain reliever, the specific indication and patient factors should be considered. Etoricoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, should only be used if a specific indication to avoid a traditional NSAID is present. Ketorolac is licensed for short-term management of postoperative pain. The doses of diclofenac given in the options increase the risk of thrombotic events. The naproxen and ibuprofen doses given provide the lowest thrombotic risk, but ibuprofen has a better GI safety profile and is the cheapest option. Gastroprotection, such as proton-pump inhibitors, should also be considered based on patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRSA is often sensitive to trimethoprim
Explanation:Understanding MRSA: Causes, Transmission, and Treatment
MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a type of bacteria that can be acquired in both hospital and community settings. While it is carried by many people without causing harm, it can also cause serious infections. MRSA can be spread through direct contact or airborne infection. When treatment is necessary, a combination of doxycycline, fusidic acid, or trimethoprim with rifampicin is typically effective. However, it is important to note that fusidic acid and rifampicin should not be used alone due to the risk of resistance developing. Understanding the causes, transmission, and treatment of MRSA is crucial in preventing its spread and managing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns
Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:
Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.
Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.
Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.
Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.
In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing bloody, serous discharge from her left nostril for the past three weeks and reports that her nose feels constantly congested. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day and a medical history of COPD. On examination, her blood pressure is 132/72 mmHg, pulse is regular at 85 beats per minute, and she is unable to breathe through her left nostril. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (normal range 115-160), white blood cell count of 7.0 ×109/L (normal range 4.5-10), and platelet count of 199 ×109/L (normal range 150-450). Her sodium level is 138 mmol/L (normal range 135-145), potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L (normal range 3.5-5.5), and creatinine level is 105 µmol/L (normal range 70-110). An electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ENT referral within 2 weeks
Explanation:Suspected Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
The suspicion is that the patient may have an underlying nasopharyngeal carcinoma, likely related to smoking, which is causing a blocked left nostril and bloody, serous discharge. It is important not to delay referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist by performing investigations through the GP outpatient radiology service. Imaging of the sinuses may be appropriate to determine the extent of any tumor, but this would be done as part of the pre-surgery workup rather than as outpatient GP investigations. A trial of intranasal steroids is not appropriate as a diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is unlikely, and this would waste valuable time in addressing any underlying tumor. Nasopharyngeal cancers are more common in people from southern China, including Hong Kong, Singapore, Vietnam, Malaysia, and the Philippines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests
Explanation:Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria
Explanation:Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma
Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.
In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.
The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents for his first assessment. He is found to have changes in his eyes on fundoscopy.
Which of the following options most needs urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New vessels on the disc
Explanation:Interpreting Diabetic Retinopathy Findings: What Requires Urgent Referral?
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. As part of routine eye exams, healthcare professionals may identify various findings in the retina that indicate the presence and severity of diabetic retinopathy. However, not all findings require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some examples:
– New vessels on the disc: These are a sign of proliferative retinopathy and require urgent referral as they can cause bleeding and threaten vision.
– Dot-and-blot haemorrhages: These are a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral unless they are within one-disc diameter of the fovea. Annual monitoring is recommended.
– Cataract: While cataracts are more common in people with diabetes, routine referral is sufficient if vision is significantly affected.
– Hard exudates > one-disc diameter from the fovea: These are also a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral.
– Two soft exudates in the temporal field: These cotton-wool spots are not a reason for referral, but referral for review within four weeks is indicated if other signs of pre-proliferative disease are present.Understanding which findings require urgent referral can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for people with diabetic retinopathy and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis and Other Joint Pathologies
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, reactive arthritis presents with uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that doesn’t involve the DIP. Gout, another joint pathology, doesn’t typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) arthritis. Lastly, it is important to note that bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24 hour urine collection.
Which of the following urine albumin concentrations indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3.5 g/day
Explanation:Understanding Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria
Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not just an early indicator of renal involvement but also identifies an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, with an approximate twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients.
To measure the total albumin excretion, the albumin: creatinine ratio is used as a useful surrogate. The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. Microalbuminuria is indicated when the albumin:creatinine ratio is ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women). Proteinuria is indicated by a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol.
In summary, understanding microalbuminuria and proteinuria is crucial in identifying early renal involvement and increased cardiovascular risk. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful tool in measuring total albumin excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.
What is the most probable reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge
Explanation:Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women
This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.
In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.
It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.
What is the best course of action to take following his death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area. He is stabilized and admitted to the hospital as he is not known to be epileptic. He has had several consultations over the past few weeks with joint pains, fatigue, weight loss, a facial rash, and dry eyes. He has been referred to hematology as he has a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. He is not currently taking any medication.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms include weight loss, joint pain and swelling, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. SLE can also cause hematological abnormalities such as lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia, which can result in macrocytosis. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric problems can also occur. A malar/butterfly rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a typical feature of SLE, as is dry mouth, which may be due to Sjögren syndrome, a condition commonly associated with SLE.
Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with proximal symmetrical myositis and skin rashes, including a heliotrope rash on the eyelids, Gottron’s papules on the hands, and nail changes. However, the seizure and hematological abnormalities described in this case are not typical of dermatomyositis.
Diabetes mellitus may cause weight loss, dry mouth, and lethargy, but joint pain and hematological abnormalities are not typical. Hypoglycemia may cause seizures in patients on diabetes treatment, but this patient is not taking any medication.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and multiple tender points on examination. It may also cause lethargy and psychological problems, but seizures are not associated with this condition, and investigations are usually normal.
Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dryness of the eyes and mouth. While it may explain the dry mouth, it doesn’t account for all the other symptoms listed. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs independently, but secondary Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A frail 70-year-old woman has had some routine bloods checked after she complained of feeling tired all the time. The only finding of possible concern is a serum vitamin B12 level of 180 pmol/l (Normal range: 160-900 pmol/l). Her haemoglobin level is 131 g/l (Normal range: 115-155 g/l). She has no neurological symptoms and the clinical examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the vitamin B12 test in 8 weeks
Explanation:Managing Low Vitamin B12 Levels: Recommendations and Considerations
When a patient presents with a vitamin B12 level at the lower end of the normal range, it is important to determine whether they are deficient or not. This can be complicated by the fact that people within the normal range can still experience symptoms of deficiency. In this case, the patient may have latent pernicious anaemia, dietary deficiency or food malabsorption, or be taking medications that affect gastric acid production.
To determine the cause of the low B12 levels, the serum vitamin B12 test should be repeated after 4-8 weeks. If levels remain unchanged or have fallen further, blood should be taken for intrinsic factor antibodies and a short trial of empirical therapy (oral cyanocobalamin 50 micrograms daily for four weeks) should be given. If the antibody test is positive, lifelong therapy with hydroxocobalamin is recommended. If it is negative, a further vitamin B12 check is recommended after 3-4 months. If this is well within the reference range, food malabsorption as the cause is a strong possibility and long-term low dose cobalamin therapy should be considered.
It is important to provide patients with strict instructions to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms of neuropathy develop. Additionally, failure of the B12 level to rise after oral treatment is an indication for lifelong treatment as for pernicious anaemia. Further investigations (plasma methylmalonic acid or holotranscobalamin) may help confirm biochemical deficiency.
In summary, managing low vitamin B12 levels requires careful consideration of the possible causes and appropriate testing and treatment. Repeat testing, testing for intrinsic factor antibodies, and a trial of oral cyanocobalamin are all important steps in determining the best course of action for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but she has also noticed that her head has a tendency to nod, especially when she is under stress or embarrassed. The hand tremor is worse when she is carrying things such as a cup and saucer. She has noticed that the symptoms are improved when she drinks alcohol. Her mother had a similar tremor. Examination reveals a 4-6-Hz tremor, most marked when her arms are outstretched, and nodding movements of the head. She has difficulty in neatly copying a spiral diagram. Other neurological examination is normal. Thyroid function is normal.
Select the single most appropriate first-line therapy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: A Comprehensive Guide
Essential tremor is a common neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking of the hands, head, and voice. While there is no cure for essential tremor, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.
Before starting any treatment, it is important to rule out any underlying peripheral or central nervous system disease and exclude possible causes of physiological tremor such as hyperthyroidism, drug-related tremor, or alcohol withdrawal.
The most appropriate first-line therapy for essential tremor is β blockade. If this is not tolerated, primidone is an alternative. Other medications that have shown effectiveness include alprazolam, atenolol, topiramate, and clonazepam. However, gabapentin has only been found to be effective when used as monotherapy and not as adjunct therapy.
For head tremors, botulinum toxin A can be used. In rare cases, surgery may be considered, such as deep brain stimulation or thalamotomy.
It is important to note that mild tremors may not require any treatment or only intermittent treatment for difficult social situations.
In conclusion, essential tremor can be managed with various treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as required, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler and breathing out before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. However, he immediately repeats this process for the second dose without taking a break.
How could he improve his technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form
Explanation:The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-month history of shortness of breath on exertion. Recently, he has also started waking at night with shortness of breath, which is relieved by sitting up in bed. On examination, crepitations are heard on auscultation of both lung bases and mild ankle oedema. There is no significant past medical history.
What is the most appropriate next step according to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations and Treatment for Suspected Heart Failure
Suspected cases of heart failure require appropriate investigations and treatment. The recommended first-line investigation is B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) testing, which is released into the blood when the myocardium is stressed. If the BNP level is abnormal, the patient should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is indicated for patients suffering from heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but this diagnosis should be confirmed before starting treatment. Referral for echocardiography should be guided by the BNP level, and spirometry is not the most appropriate investigation for patients with classical symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. If treatment is necessary, a loop diuretic such as furosemide is usually started.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain, or loin pain. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared up since it was like red wine 48 hours ago and now looks normal. On examination, he appears to be in good health with no fever. His pulse rate is 76 bpm regular, and his blood pressure is 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are normal to palpation. A urine sample is taken, which appears macroscopically normal, but dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request an urgent CT urogram to rule out a renal calculi
Explanation:Referral for Suspected Bladder Cancer
According to NICE guidelines, individuals with certain symptoms should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within 2 weeks. For bladder cancer, this includes individuals aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. It also includes individuals aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.
However, before referral, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection present. If there is, appropriate treatment can be given and referral for further investigation into the haematuria may not be necessary. In cases where there are symptoms suggestive of a urinary infection and macroscopic haematuria, investigations should be undertaken to diagnose and treat the infection before considering referral. If infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman seeks guidance on contraception options. She has a new partner but is certain she doesn't want to have any more children. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the heaviness of her periods and has experienced some intermenstrual bleeding. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Referral to gynaecology is necessary to rule out endometrial cancer due to the patient’s past experience of intermenstrual bleeding.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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