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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol

      Explanation:

      Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.

      Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

      Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.

      Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.

      Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female trainee solicitor has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on her work...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female trainee solicitor has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on her work for the past 2 months. She has been complaining that the work area is too hot. She appears nervous and has a fine tremor. Despite eating more, she has lost 4 kg in the last month. During a physical examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, pulse is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 per minute, and blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg. She has a wide, staring gaze and lid lag. What is the most likely laboratory finding in this woman?

      Your Answer: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thyroid Axis: Interpretation of Hormone Levels in Hyperthyroidism

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by increased production of free thyroxine (T4 and T3) leading to a decrease in thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) production at the pituitary gland. This results in a hypermetabolic state induced by excess thyroid hormone and overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system. Ocular changes such as a wide, staring gaze and lid lag are common. However, true thyroid ophthalmopathy associated with proptosis is seen only in Graves’ disease.

      Decreased plasma insulin indicates diabetes mellitus, while increased TSH in this setting indicates secondary hyperthyroidism, a rare condition caused by pathology at the level of the pituitary. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is not related to the patient’s symptoms, and increased calcitonin is not a feature of hyperthyroidism but may indicate medullary thyroid cancers. Understanding the interpretation of hormone levels in hyperthyroidism is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the name of the hip examination where the patient stands in...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the hip examination where the patient stands in front of you, lifts their good leg off the floor, and you note the tilt of their pelvis while placing your hands on their anterior superior iliac spines?

      Your Answer: Trendelenburg test

      Explanation:

      Clinical Tests for Hip and Knee Examination

      In the clinical examination of the hip, one of the tests used is the Trendelenburg’s test. This test involves having the patient stand on one leg while the abductors of the supporting leg, specifically the gluteus medius and minimus, pull on the pelvis. In a normal test, the pelvis tilts and the opposite side of the pelvis rises. However, a positive Trendelenburg’s test occurs when the opposite side of the pelvis falls. This can be caused by gluteal paralysis or weakness, pain in the hip causing gluteal inhibition, coxa vara, or congenital dislocation of the hip.

      Another test used in the hip examination is the Thomas test, which assesses hip extension. Moving on to the knee examination, there are several tests that can be performed. Lachmann’s, Macintosh’s, and McMurray’s’s tests are commonly used to assess the knee. These tests can help diagnose ligament injuries, meniscal tears, and other knee problems. By performing these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can better understand and diagnose issues related to the hip and knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old student falls from a 2nd-floor window. She is persistently hypotensive. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student falls from a 2nd-floor window. She is persistently hypotensive. A chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum with depression of the left main bronchus and deviation of the trachea to the right. What is the most probable injury?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Aortic rupture

      Explanation:

      The patient has suffered a deceleration injury and is experiencing ongoing low blood pressure due to a contained hematoma. This suggests that there may be a rupture in the aorta, although a widened mediastinum may not always be visible on a chest X-ray. To obtain a more accurate assessment of the injury, a CT angiogram is recommended. The fact that the patient has been experiencing persistent hypotension from an early stage is more indicative of a hematoma than a tension pneumothorax, which typically only causes low blood pressure as a final symptom before cardiac arrest.

      Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment

      Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old teacher presents to the emergency department with a complaint of shin...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old teacher presents to the emergency department with a complaint of shin pain that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. The pain is specifically located over the tibia and is relieved by rest. However, she is worried as she has a hiking trip planned for the weekend. She has not undergone any hospital investigations yet. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness over the tibia. She expresses her apologies for coming to the emergency department, stating that her GP could not offer an appointment for the next 2 weeks and she needs advice before the weekend.

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Undertake an x-ray of the legs

      Explanation:

      Tibial stress syndrome is the probable diagnosis, but it is important to rule out a stress fracture of the tibia before discharging the patient. An x-ray of the legs should be ordered as the initial investigation, even though symptoms may precede x-ray changes by a few weeks. The Ottawa ankle rules cannot be used to determine if an x-ray is necessary for a tibial stress fracture. While CT and MRI are more sensitive, an x-ray should be performed first, and further imaging may be required if there is no definitive answer. A plaster cast would not be appropriate at this stage, and an orthopaedic referral is not necessary. If the x-ray rules out a tibial stress fracture, an appropriate management plan would be to rest, elevate the leg, and repeatedly apply ice packs to the affected area.

      Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old female complains of intermittent pain from her lower back to her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female complains of intermittent pain from her lower back to her groin and has visible blood in her urine. She is experiencing discomfort and cannot find a comfortable position. Upon examination, there are no indications of peritonitis. Which diagnostic test is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer: CT KUB

      Explanation:

      Non-enhanced computed tomography scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old is brought in by his father who is worried about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old is brought in by his father who is worried about his son's right hip pain that has been ongoing for the past 7 weeks. The father reports that the pain has been getting worse and is now causing his son to wake up at night. Over the last week, he has noticed his son limping and having difficulty getting in and out of the car and bathtub.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Correct Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes disease is characterized by avascular necrosis of the femoral head, leading to progressive hip pain, stiffness, and limp. It typically affects children between the ages of 4-8 years and can take 2-3 years to heal. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis, which affects overweight or tall thin adolescents, and developmental dysplasia present differently. Transient synovitis of the hip, which resolves within 7-10 days, is not likely due to the absence of a preceding viral illness. Septic joint is also unlikely based on the given information.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents with a low-grade fever, myalgia and multiple itchy, red,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a low-grade fever, myalgia and multiple itchy, red, oedematous skin eruptions. The symptoms started 3 days previously. The skin lesions are rather symmetrical and oval-shaped, and are distributed over the palms, soles and limbs. Some of the lesions show central clearing and contain vesicles or bullae. The patient denies recent use of any medication prior to the appearance of the skin rash. He recalls a history of allergic rhinitis and urticaria in his sister.
      What is the most likely underlying mechanism in the pathogenesis of this patient’s illness?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, with a possible fifth type. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by pre-formed IgE bound to mast cells, leading to mast cell degranulation and immediate reactions such as anaphylaxis and atopic allergies. Type II hypersensitivity involves antibodies directed towards antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell injury and reactions such as transfusion reactions and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Type III hypersensitivity involves the formation of immune complexes, leading to reactions such as post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis and SLE. Type IV hypersensitivity is cell-mediated, involving T lymphocytes and causing granulomatous conditions or direct cytotoxicity, such as contact dermatitis and the Mantoux test. There is also a possible fifth type, caused by stimulatory autoantibodies in autoimmune conditions like Graves’ disease. It is important to distinguish between these types of hypersensitivity reactions based on their clinical presentation and histological features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also felt a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
      On examination, his visual acuities were 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left was red. The cornea was tested with fluorescein and it showed an uptake in the centre of the cornea, which looked like a dendrite. You examined his face and noticed some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
      What is the first-line treatment for this patient’s eye condition?

      Your Answer: Topical antiviral ointment such as acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for this condition is topical antiviral ointment, such as acyclovir 3% ointment, which should be applied for 10-14 days. Topical artificial tears and topical antibiotic drops or ointment are not indicated for this condition. In fact, the use of topical steroid drops, such as prednisolone, may worsen the ulcer and should be avoided until the corneal ulcer is healed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to manage herpes simplex keratitis effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain and dysuria that has been bothering her for the past two days. The pain is constant and severe, and it radiates from her renal angle to her groin. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.1ºC, her heart rate is 101 bpm, her blood pressure is 139/91 mmHg, and she has a tender renal angle with a palpable mass on the right side of her abdomen. What is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate her abdominal mass?

      Your Answer: CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the renal tract

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms is a ureteric stone causing obstruction in the right kidney, resulting in hydronephrosis. A physical examination may reveal a palpable mass. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound of the renal tract is the best initial investigation as it can detect any obstruction in the renal tract. It is important to avoid exposing the patient to unnecessary radiation, especially if they are under 20 years old or women of childbearing age. The first-line treatment for hydronephrosis is a nephrostomy, which is performed under ultrasound guidance. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast is recommended to identify the cause of the obstruction. Contrast agents are not useful in this situation as they make stones invisible on the scan. An intravenous urogram is also not helpful as it does not provide 3-dimensional images of the kidneys. A urine dip may show blood, which could suggest stone pathology, but it cannot determine the cause of the palpable mass.

      Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.

      To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.

      The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.

      Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman is on day one postpartum, following a normal vaginal delivery....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is on day one postpartum, following a normal vaginal delivery. She has called the midwife, as she is struggling to establish breastfeeding and correct positioning of the baby to the breast. She reports pain when the baby is breastfeeding.
      Which of the following is a feature of a poor latch?

      Your Answer: Clicking noises are heard

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of a Good Latch for Successful Breastfeeding

      Latching on the breast is crucial for successful breastfeeding, but many women struggle with it. A poor latch can lead to pain and frustration, causing some women to give up on breastfeeding altogether. However, there are clear signs of a good latch that can help mothers and babies achieve successful breastfeeding.

      One indicator of a poor latch is clicking noises, which can be painful for the mother and indicate that the baby is chewing on the nipple. In contrast, a good latch is associated with visible and audible swallowing, a rhythmic suck, and relaxed arms and hands of the infant. The baby’s chin should touch the breast, with the nose free, and the lips should be rolled out, not turned in. The mouth should be open wide, and the tongue positioned below the nipple, with the latter touching the palate of the baby’s mouth.

      Another sign of a good latch is that less areola should be visible below the chin than above the nipple. This indicates that the baby is taking in not only the nipple but also the areola, which is essential for effective milk expression and feeding. By understanding these signs of a good latch, mothers can ensure successful breastfeeding and a positive experience for both themselves and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.

      She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

      What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: 50% glucose, intravenously

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome is having difficulty getting pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome is having difficulty getting pregnant. She and her partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years without any luck. During examination, she displays hirsutism and has a BMI of 25 kg/m².

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: In vitro fertilisation

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. While there is ongoing debate about the use of metformin, current evidence does not support it as a first-line option. In vitro fertilisation is also not typically used as a first-line treatment for PCOS-related infertility.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental...

    Correct

    • As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:

      Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: +++
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative
      Ketones: +

      What could be the possible explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.

      It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth when speaking. Her mother gave the history of child’s irritation due to ear pain along with intermittent fever for the last 5 days. Her teacher reports that her speech is developmentally delayed. There is no past medical history or family history of illness. Audiogram shows conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is otitis media with effusion (OME), which is prevalent in younger children due to their shorter and more horizontal Eustachian tube, making it easier for bacteria to enter and harder for drainage. However, vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and otosclerosis are more likely to be diagnosed in middle-aged patients rather than young children. Foreign object insertion and perforated tympanic membrane are also possible causes of hearing loss, but not as common as OME in children. It is essential to identify the cause of hearing loss in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old man is in a physical altercation outside the hospital and loses...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is in a physical altercation outside the hospital and loses consciousness after being struck in the head, hitting the ground with his head first. A junior doctor is alerted and needs to take action to protect his airway. Despite some minor bruising and scratches, there are no visible injuries or bleeding.

      What should the junior doctor do next to ensure the patient's airway is safeguarded?

      Your Answer: Head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Jaw thrust manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient’s airway, if there is concern about a cervical spine injury, the preferred manoeuvre is the jaw thrust. This is particularly important in cases where the patient has fallen and hit their head, as there may be a risk of cervical spine injury. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with airway assessment and optimisation being the first step. In this scenario, as it is taking place outside of a hospital, basic airway management manoeuvres should be used initially, with the jaw thrust being the most appropriate option for suspected cervical spine injury. This is because it minimises movement of the cervical spine, reducing the risk of complications such as nerve impingement and tetraplegia. The use of an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask is not the most appropriate initial option, as they take time to prepare and may not be suitable for the patient’s condition. The head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre should also be avoided in cases where cervical spinal injury is suspected, as it involves moving the cervical spine.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Organise a bone scan to look for any other injury to the bone

      Correct Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management

      Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.

      The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.

      It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.

      In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old patient is brought into the emergency department by her friends at...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old patient is brought into the emergency department by her friends at 2 am, following a night out. Her friends are worried as she is sweating excessively and is extremely disoriented. They also mention she has become jerky and rigid over the last 30 minutes. Upon further questioning, they reveal that the patient has used recreational drugs.

      During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 38.4ºC and she remains disorientated. Her medical history includes depression and hypothyroidism, for which she takes fluoxetine and levothyroxine. Based on the symptoms, what is the likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: MDMA

      Explanation:

      The combination of SSRIs and MDMA can lead to a higher risk of serotonin syndrome. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing serotonin syndrome due to their prescription of fluoxetine and symptoms of hyperthermia, confusion, muscle rigidity, and myoclonus. MDMA is an illegal substance that is known to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome, making it the correct answer. Cannabis, cocaine, heroin, and paracetamol are all incorrect as they do not increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. Other drugs that do increase the risk include St. Johns Wort, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tramadol, SSRIs, and amphetamines.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      110.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
      Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?

      Your Answer: Aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles

      Explanation:

      Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall

      The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.

      Skin and Superficial Fascia
      The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.

      Anterior Rectus Sheath
      The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.

      Rectus Muscle
      The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.

      Posterior Rectus Sheath
      The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.

      Transversalis Fascia
      The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.

      Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
      The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.

      Conclusion
      Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man with lung cancer was admitted to the Emergency department due...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with lung cancer was admitted to the Emergency department due to respiratory distress. Upon examination, his ECG revealed electrical alternans. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Constrictive pericarditis

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Pericardial Tamponade: Commonly Caused by Malignant Diseases

      Pericardial tamponade is a condition where the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, becomes filled with fluid or blood, putting pressure on the heart and preventing it from functioning properly. Malignant diseases are the most common cause of pericardial tamponade, often resulting from malignant infiltration associated with a large effusion. However, tamponade can also occur as a result of any type of pericarditis.

      When pericardial tamponade occurs, the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and low blood pressure. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging tests such as echocardiography or CT scans.

      On an electrocardiogram (ECG), sinus tachycardia, low volume, and electrical alternans – variability of the complexes – are often observed. Treatment for pericardial tamponade typically involves draining the fluid or blood from the pericardium, either through a needle or a surgical procedure. In severe cases, emergency surgery may be necessary to prevent further damage to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man has developed diplopia.
    Which indication would imply a third nerve...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has developed diplopia.
      Which indication would imply a third nerve palsy?

      Your Answer: Pupil unreactive to light

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Nerve Palsies

      Nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. In a third nerve palsy, for example, the patient may experience ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, along with a dilated and unreactive pupil. The eyeball may also be displaced downwards and outwards, resulting in a divergent squint. This can be a distressing condition for the patient, as it can affect their ability to see clearly and may cause discomfort or pain.

      Another type of nerve palsy that can cause noticeable symptoms is the VIIth nerve palsy. This can result in increased lacrimation, or tearing, which can be a sign of irritation or inflammation in the eye. Patients with Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may experience enophthalmos, or sunken-in appearance of the eye, along with miosis, or constriction of the pupil. These symptoms can be caused by damage to the sympathetic nerves that control the muscles of the eye and surrounding tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
    Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
    ALP...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
      Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
      ALP 84 U/L
      ALT 23 U/L
      Albumin 41 g/L
      Dipstick urinalysis normal
      He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold, including a runny nose and dry cough. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain situations such as intercurrent illness, exercise, or fasting. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. The exact mode of inheritance for Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      6282.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical screening. She is curious about the testing procedure and knows that the sample will be screened for high-risk strains of HPV. The student inquires with the practice nurse about the next steps if the smear test comes back positive in the lab.
      What follow-up test will be conducted if the smear test shows high-risk HPV (hrHPV) positivity?

      Your Answer: Cytology testing

      Explanation:

      Cytological examination of a cervical smear sample is only conducted if it tests positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV). If the sample is negative for hrHPV, there is no need for cytology testing.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the most frequent complication associated with a clavicle fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent complication associated with a clavicle fracture?

      Your Answer: Dislocated shoulder

      Correct Answer: Malunion

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risk Factors in Clavicle Fractures

      Clavicle fractures are common injuries that can result in various complications. The most frequent complication is malunion, which can cause angulation, shortening, and poor appearance. Although non-anatomic union is typical of most displaced middle-third clavicle fractures, many experts suggest that such malunion does not significantly affect function.

      Nonunion is another complication that occurs when there is a failure to show clinical or radiographic progression of healing after four to six months. Several risk factors have been identified, including the extent of initial trauma, fracture combinations, fracture displacement, inadequate immobilisation, distal-third fractures, primary open reduction, and refracture.

      It is essential to identify these risk factors to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment. Adequate immobilisation and careful monitoring of the healing process are crucial in preventing nonunion and malunion. In cases where complications do occur, prompt intervention can help minimise the impact on function and appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after collapsing at home. She has a medical history of COPD, recurrent urinary tract infections, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Recently, she visited her general practitioner for a chest infection and was prescribed antibiotics and medications for symptom control. Additionally, she started taking medications for newly diagnosed hypertension. During her examination, there were no notable findings. However, her twelve lead ECG revealed a significantly prolonged QTc interval of 560ms. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this ECG abnormality?

      Your Answer: Lercanidipine

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides have the potential to cause prolongation of the QT interval, which may have been a contributing factor to the marked QT interval prolongation observed in this patient following recent use of clarithromycin. Cyclizine, doxycycline, and lercanidipine are not known to affect the QT interval.

      Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.

      Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is prescribed tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia. What are the potential side-effects he may encounter?

      Your Answer: Erectile dysfunction + reduced libido

      Correct Answer: Dizziness + postural hypotension

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison

      Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.

      In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.

      Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked...

    Incorrect

    • As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
      With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Sickle cells occur as a result of the production of an abnormal alpha (α) chain in haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease

      Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.

      Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.

      Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
      Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?

      Your Answer: Oxygen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Medial collateral ligament sprain

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      52.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (2/7) 29%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed