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Question 1
Correct
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Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes of Galactorrhoea: Understanding the Link to Hypothyroidism
Galactorrhoea, the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast, can be caused by a variety of factors. Physiological causes include postpartum changes, hormonal fluctuations during puberty or menopause, and elevated prolactin levels due to conditions such as prolactinoma. Other medical conditions, such as chronic renal failure, bronchogenic carcinoma, and sarcoidosis, can also lead to galactorrhoea.
One lesser-known cause of galactorrhoea is primary hypothyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of thyroid-releasing hormone and subsequent secretion of prolactin. The longer the hypothyroidism goes untreated, the more likely it is to cause hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea.
It’s important to note that breast cancer and schizophrenia are not causes of galactorrhoea. While breast cancer may present with unilateral breast discharge, it is typically not milky. Schizophrenia itself doesn’t cause hyperprolactinaemia, but antipsychotic drugs used to treat the condition can. Other medications, such as antidepressants and spironolactone, can also produce galactorrhoea.
In summary, galactorrhoea can have a variety of causes, including physiological changes, medical conditions, and certain medications. Primary hypothyroidism is one potential cause that should not be overlooked, as it can lead to hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Pyrexia
Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase
Explanation:Temporal arteritis doesn’t cause an increase in creatine kinase levels.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on her arms. She was convinced by her mother to attend the appointment as she was not interested in seeking medical attention. The patient is unable to provide a clear history of the lesions' progression. Her medical history includes mild asthma, depression, and generalised anxiety disorder.
Upon examination, the patient has well-defined, linear skin lesions on both arms. The lesions do not appear to be dry or scaly but seem to be excoriated. There are no apparent signs of infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern or emotional response, known as ‘la belle indifference’, strongly suggests dermatitis artefacta or factitious dermatitis. This rare condition involves self-inflicted skin damage, and patients often deny their involvement. Treatment requires a collaborative approach between dermatologists and psychiatrists, with a focus on building a positive relationship with the patient. Other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, lichen planus, and neurotic excoriations have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with the scenario described.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone effective pharmacological treatment for a major depressive episode using paroxetine, but experienced severe withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuing it. To avoid such symptoms, you decide to initiate fluoxetine therapy. What is the reason for fluoxetine having a lower incidence of withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine is an SNRI, which are less associated with withdrawal symptoms
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine has a longer half life than other SSRIs
Explanation:Compared to other commonly used SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life of 6-7 days, which results in fewer withdrawal symptoms. However, when switching from fluoxetine to other antidepressants, a longer transition period is necessary. It should be noted that fluoxetine’s potency as an enzyme inhibitor is not relevant in this context, and the other options are incorrect.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Smoking cannabis
Correct Answer: Diazepam dependence
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal and Hallucinations
The key points in the history are that the patient is experiencing visual hallucinations that resolve over 72 hours. Based on the given options, alcohol withdrawal is the most likely cause, especially since the patient also has paranoid psychosis. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically appear 6-12 hours after cessation and include insomnia, tremors, anxiety, and nausea, among others. Alcoholic hallucinosis can also occur, which includes visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens can also occur, with the latter having a mortality rate of approximately 35% without treatment. It’s important to note that benzodiazepines can cause a protracted withdrawal syndrome, while fluoxetine overdose, heroin withdrawal, and cannabis use have their own distinct symptoms and effects. Understanding the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and hallucinations can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Linda is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of poor concentration, hot flashes, and low mood for the past 9 months. Despite making lifestyle changes, Linda is still struggling to manage her symptoms. She has come to you seeking advice on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and is eager to start treatment soon.
Linda has a medical history of controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes, both of which are relatively well managed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m² and there is no family history of VTE.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing Linda's symptoms?Your Answer: Commence oral HRT
Correct Answer: Commence transdermal HRT
Explanation:Transdermal HRT is a safer option than oral HRT for women at risk of VTE, according to NICE guidelines. Sharon’s BMI puts her at risk of VTE, so prescribing oral HRT would not be appropriate. Recommending lifestyle changes would not be effective as Sharon has already tried this. Seeking specialist advice is unnecessary as starting transdermal HRT in primary care is safe and reasonable. While antidepressants can be considered for menopausal symptoms, it is not necessary in this case as HRT is a viable option for Sharon.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male surfer from Australia presents with recurrent ear infections. He has recently moved to the US and is generally healthy. The patient complains of difficulty in removing water from his ears after a shower and left ear discomfort. Upon examination, there appears to be an object protruding into the canal in the left ear, obstructing a clear view of the tympanic membrane. The right tympanic membrane appears normal, and there is no inflammation in either canal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wax
Correct Answer: Exostosis (Surfer's ear)
Explanation:The bony protrusion observed in the left ear canal is known as an exostosis or a bone prominence. Although spending a lot of time in water may increase the risk of otitis externa, the patient doesn’t exhibit the typical signs of inflamed canals or debris. Cholesteatoma, which is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and an abnormality in the attic, is also ruled out as it is not evident on examination. Wax or foreign body are not considered as they were not found during the examination.
Surfer’s Ear: A Condition Caused by Repeated Exposure to Cold Water
Surfer’s ear, also known as exostosis, is a condition that occurs as a result of repeated exposure to cold water. This condition is commonly seen in surfers, divers, and kayakers, and is more prevalent in countries such as New Zealand and the USA. However, cases have also been reported in some areas of the United Kingdom, such as Cornwall. Patients with surfer’s ear may experience recurrent ear infections, reduced hearing, and water plugging.
Surfer’s ear is a progressive condition, and it is essential to take preventative measures to avoid repeated exposure. Wearing hoods, ear plugs, or swim caps can help to protect the ears from cold water. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the bony growths that have developed in the ear canal. By taking the necessary precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of developing surfer’s ear and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in the community.
Which of the following factors would make community detoxification difficult in this case?
Your Answer: Concurrent abuse of alcohol
Correct Answer: A previous community detoxification attempt failed
Explanation:Community Detoxification: Considerations and Options
Community detoxification is often the preferred option for patients seeking to reduce or eliminate their use of illicit drugs. However, there are certain factors that may make inpatient detoxification more appropriate, such as previous failed attempts at community detoxification, significant social problems, complex drug use, or physical comorbidities. Concurrent abuse of alcohol is a common issue, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent a patient from entering an opioid-reduction program. While complete detoxification should be the ultimate goal, any reduction in drug or alcohol use is a positive step. Homelessness can present challenges, but it is not a barrier to community detoxification, as pharmacies can work with detoxification teams to provide prescriptions. When it comes to medication-assisted detoxification, both methadone and buprenorphine are effective options. Ultimately, the choice between community and inpatient detoxification, as well as the specific treatment approach, should be based on the individual patient’s needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis
Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.
In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.
If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.
In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had her last menstrual period 10 months ago and has no significant medical history. Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen (oral)
Explanation:Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.
What condition is likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.
Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.
Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.
Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.
Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.
In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small cell lung cancer and ischemic heart disease. His cancer was detected five months ago and he recently finished a round of chemotherapy. In terms of his heart health, he experienced a heart attack two years ago and underwent primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has not had any angina since then.
Over the past week, he has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, particularly at night, and has an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but he does have distended neck veins and periorbital edema. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction
Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.
The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Child with congenital heart disease
Explanation:Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Contraindicated
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
- Contraindication: The MMR vaccine contains gelatin as a stabilizer. Individuals with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin should not receive the MMR vaccine due to the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to MMR Vaccination:
- Contraindication: If a person has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the MMR vaccine, it is contraindicated to administer the vaccine again. An alternative plan should be discussed with an allergist or immunologist.
- Pregnant Woman:
- Contraindication: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the developing fetus. Women are advised to wait at least one month after receiving the MMR vaccine before becoming pregnant.
- Severely Immunosuppressed Individual:
- Contraindication: Individuals who are severely immunosuppressed (e.g., due to chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, or advanced HIV/AIDS) should not receive the MMR vaccine. The live attenuated viruses in the vaccine could potentially cause disease in these individuals.
Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Safe
- Child with Congenital Heart Disease:
- Safe to Administer: Children with congenital heart disease can safely receive the MMR vaccine. Congenital heart disease itself is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine, and these children should be protected from measles, mumps, and rubella, which could potentially be more severe if contracted.
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.
The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.
Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible
Explanation:Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)
Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.
Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.
Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.
Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.
Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number needed to treat is 25
Explanation:Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice
Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).
To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 54 year old man is admitted as an inpatient for treatment of a duodenal ulcer. Upon waking this morning, he experiences severe inflammation in his first metatarsophalangeal joint. The joint is swollen and tender, and a sample of the fluid is sent for microscopy. The patient has a history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Due to the presence of a duodenal ulcer, diclofenac and indomethacin are not recommended for the patient. Instead, colchicine is a viable option. While allopurinol is effective in preventing future attacks, it should not be administered during the acute phase.
It is important to investigate the patient for conditions such as hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, which may be linked to gout.
Encouraging weight loss and advising the patient to avoid alcohol can be beneficial in managing gout.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and mood swings for the past six months. She is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and has no contraindications. Her mother has a history of unprovoked DVT, but she has never experienced it. Which HRT preparation would be most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal combined sequential preparation
Explanation:The recommended hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for this patient is a transdermal, combined sequential preparation. This is because she has erratic periods, indicating an intact uterus that requires protection of the endometrium with both oestrogen and progesterone. Therefore, an oestrogen-only HRT is not suitable.
Using a Mirena coil, which releases levonorgestrel into the uterus, is unlikely to alleviate the emotional lability and hot flashes associated with menopause. Additionally, using it alone without an oestrogen component is not an option for this patient. As she is still having periods at the age of 49, a sequential preparation is more appropriate than a continuous one, which is typically used after menopause.
Given the patient’s family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a transdermal preparation may be preferable as it significantly reduces the risk of venous thromboembolism associated with HRT.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral paraesthesia in the radial aspects of both hands, over the thumbs and first fingers, as well as paraesthesia in the lateral aspects of both forearms and lower limb spasticity. His HBA1c level is 46 mmol/mol and nerve conduction studies and EMG show evidence of denervation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy
Explanation:The patient’s muscle twitches are likely fibrillations, indicating dysfunction in the lower motor neurons. The neurophysiology report confirms denervation. The patient’s symptoms are mainly in the C6 dermatome distribution on both sides, which is not likely to be caused by median nerve compression at the elbow, given the patient’s age. The patient is probably suffering from degenerative cervical myelopathy, which can take more than two years to diagnose. Symptoms of this condition include pain and stiffness in the neck and limbs, loss of function, and sphincter disturbance. Neurological examination can reveal lower motor neuron signs at the level of the lesion and upper motor neuron signs below. The other answer options are unlikely for various reasons.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal
Explanation:New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.
Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period
Explanation:Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women
The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.
Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised lesion on her scalp. The lesion has been getting gradually bigger over the past two weeks. On examination you find a raised, pustular, spongy mass on the crown of her head. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kerion
Explanation:Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.
Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.
Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.
In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psittacosis
Explanation:Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure
Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.
Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old comes in for an asthma check-up. She shows her inhaler technique and performs the following steps when using her salbutamol:
First, she removes the cap and shakes the puffer. Then, she breathes out gently before placing the mouthpiece in her mouth and pressing the canister as she inhales deeply. She holds her breath for 20 seconds before repeating the process for the next dose.
Is there anything wrong with her technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She must wait at least 30 seconds before administering her next dose
Explanation:The patient has good inhaler technique but needs to wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. Holding the breath for at least 10 seconds after administering the medication is recommended, but holding it for longer is not necessary. Advising the patient to hold their breath for at least 30 seconds after administering the dose is incorrect.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression
Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has a painful erythematous vesicular rash over the right side of his face. It extends over his right eye and forehead and over his scalp on that side. The left side is unaffected. It started approximately 24 hours ago. He is feeling unwell and has a slight temperature and his eye is painful and red.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rash at the tip of the nose is a strong predictor of eye involvement
Explanation:Understanding Ophthalmic Shingles: Eye Involvement and Treatment
Ophthalmic shingles, a type of herpes zoster, can have serious implications for eye health. If a rash appears at the tip of the nose, it is likely that the nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve is involved, which supplies the globe and can lead to eye involvement in at least 75% of cases. However, eye involvement is not a feature in nearly all cases, occurring in about half of cases when the ophthalmic branch is affected. Periorbital edema and keratitis are also common features.
Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the severity and duration of pain, complications, and viral shedding. Systemic antiviral treatment should be started within 72 hours of rash onset and continued for 7-10 days. Urgent ophthalmological referral may be necessary to prevent serious eye damage. Understanding the signs and symptoms of ophthalmic shingles can help ensure timely and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses
Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.
On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.
In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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