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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old male presents 7 months after being diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents 7 months after being diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. During the examination, the patient exhibits rigidity, a Parkinsonian gait, bradykinesia, and a resting tremor on one side of the body. Additionally, the patient displays hypomimia. Currently, the patient is taking levodopa and benserazide, and the neurologist has prescribed pramipexole to keep the levodopa dose low. What is a potential side effect of pramipexole that the patient should be warned about?

      Your Answer: Blurred vision

      Correct Answer: Compulsive gambling

      Explanation:

      Dopamine agonists, which are commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, carry a risk of causing impulse control or obsessive disorders, such as excessive gambling or hypersexuality. Patients should be informed of this potential side-effect before starting the medication, as it can have devastating financial consequences for both the patient and their family. Blurred vision is a side-effect of antimuscarinic medications, while peripheral neuropathy is a possible side-effect of several medications, including some antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs, amiodarone, and phenytoin. Weight gain is a common side-effect of certain medications, such as steroids.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense shooting pain on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense shooting pain on one side of his face that is aggravated by chewing. Which of the following accurately identifies the location where the maxillary (V2) and mandibular nerves (V3) exit the skull?

      Your Answer: V2 - foramen rotundum, V3 - superior orbital fissure

      Correct Answer: V2 - foramen rotundum, V3 - foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal nerve branches exit the skull with Standing Room Only:
      V1 – Superior orbital fissure
      V2 – Foramen rotundum
      V3 – Foramen ovale

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and her serum PTH...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and her serum PTH levels are elevated. She undergoes a parathyroidectomy performed by an endocrine surgeon. How long does it typically take for serum PTH levels to decrease after successful removal of the functioning adenoma?

      Your Answer: 6 hours

      Correct Answer: 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset facial weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset facial weakness and concerns of a stroke. However, upon further questioning, the patient denies any risk factors for cardiovascular disease. During the examination, the patient displays unilateral weakness on the right side of their face and reports experiencing pain in their right ear. Further investigation reveals a widespread vesicular rash on the patient's right ear.

      What is the causative organism responsible for this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      Ramsey-Hunt syndrome (VII nerve palsy) is caused by the varicella zoster virus.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old male with Parkinson's disease is experiencing non-motor symptoms. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male with Parkinson's disease is experiencing non-motor symptoms. Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Excessive sweating

      Correct Answer: REM sleep disturbance

      Explanation:

      Dr. James Parkinson first identified Parkinson’s disease as a condition characterized by tremors and reduced muscle strength in inactive body parts, often accompanied by a tendency to lean forward and switch from walking to running. Early symptoms of Parkinson’s typically include issues with smell, sleep, and bowel movements. In addition to motor problems, non-motor symptoms may include depression, memory loss, pain, anxiety, sleep disturbances, and balance issues.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old woman visits an ophthalmology clinic complaining of reduced sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman visits an ophthalmology clinic complaining of reduced sensation in her left eye for the past 2 months. She first noticed it while putting on contact lenses. Her medical history includes multiple facial fractures due to a traumatic equestrian event that occurred 2 months ago.

      During the examination, the corneal reflex is absent in her left eye, while her right eye shows bilateral tearing and blinking. There is no facial asymmetry, and the strength of the facial muscles is normal on both sides.

      Which structure is most likely to have been affected by the trauma?

      Your Answer: Incisive canal

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure, which is the correct answer. This nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the corneal reflex, while the efferent limb is controlled by the facial nerve. Since the patient has no facial asymmetry and normal power, it suggests that the lesion affects the afferent limb controlled by the ophthalmic nerve.

      The other options are incorrect. The foramen rotundum transmits the mandibular nerve, the internal acoustic meatus transmits the facial nerve, the infraorbital foramen transmits the nasopalatine nerve, and the optic canal transmits the optic nerve. None of these nerves play a role in the corneal reflex.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries about the feeling in her legs. She is experiencing decreased light-touch sensation and proprioception in both legs. Her blood work reveals a deficiency in vitamin B12.

      What signs are most probable for you to observe in Samantha?

      Your Answer: Reduced temperature sensation bilaterally

      Correct Answer: Positive Babinski sign

      Explanation:

      The presence of a positive Babinski sign may indicate subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, which is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. This condition primarily affects the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, which are responsible for fine-touch, proprioception, and vibration sensation. In addition to the Babinski sign, patients may also experience spastic paresis. However, hypotonia is not typically observed, as this is a characteristic of lower motor neuron lesions. It is also important to note that temperature sensation is not affected by subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, as this function is mediated by the spinothalamic tract.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old male on the geriatric ward has been awakened by a headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male on the geriatric ward has been awakened by a headache. Later in the morning, he began to vomit. He has a history of prostate cancer, a stroke 3 years ago, and high blood pressure. During the examination, papilloedema was observed on fundoscopy.

      What is the strongest association with this ophthalmic finding?

      Your Answer: Non-metastatic lung cancer

      Correct Answer: Bilateral optic disc swelling

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema is almost always present in both eyes.

      Understanding Papilloedema

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.

      It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of feeling unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of feeling unwell. She reports having a headache and a stiff, painful neck. She is sensitive to light, feels nauseated, and has vomited twice. She experiences alternating sensations of hot and cold and is sweating. During the examination, her temperature is elevated, and Kernig's sign is positive. You decide to perform a lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In which ventricle is the choroid plexus, the structure responsible for producing the majority of CSF?

      Your Answer: Both lateral ventricles and the third ventricle

      Correct Answer: All four of the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is a branching structure resembling sea coral, consisting of specialized ependymal cells that produce and release cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is present in all four ventricles of the brain, with the largest portion located in the lateral ventricles. The choroid plexus is also involved in removing waste products from the CSF.

      The patient described in the previous question displays symptoms and signs indicative of meningitis, including a positive Kernig’s sign. This test involves flexing the thigh and hip to 90 degrees, followed by extending the knee to elicit pain. Analysis of the CSF obtained through lumbar puncture can help identify the cause of meningitis and guide appropriate treatment.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a car accident. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a car accident. During your initial assessment, you perform a pupil examination by shining a light in each eye. What two nerves are being tested during this examination?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve and trochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve and oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The pupillary light reflex involves the optic nerve and oculomotor nerve. The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina when a light is shone in the pupil. The oculomotor nerve then transmits efferent information to the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing it to constrict.

      The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve, responsible for visual information transmission.

      The third cranial nerve is the oculomotor nerve, which provides motor innervation to four extra-orbital muscles and parasympathetic fibers to the constrictor pupillae and ciliaris.

      The fourth cranial nerve is the trochlear nerve, which supplies the superior oblique extra-orbital muscle.

      The ophthalmic nerve is the first division of the trigeminal nerve, the fifth cranial nerve, and carries sensation from the orbit, upper eyelid, and forehead.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is accountable for the production and discharge of calcitonin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is accountable for the production and discharge of calcitonin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland releases calcitonin, which has an opposing effect to PTH.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance that started 2 hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia.

      During the examination, there is no facial asymmetry, and the patient appears comfortable. The visual field test shows homonymous hemianopia on the right side, and automated perimetry indicates macular sparing. The patient is unable to name familiar objects, such as a pen or a spoon.

      Which artery is most likely to have been occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the posterior cerebral artery. When a lesion occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, it can result in contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. This is because the visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. The macula is usually spared because the posterior pole of the occipital cortex, which processes visual signals from the macula, receives collateral flow from the middle cerebral artery.

      On the other hand, lesions in the anterior cerebral artery, which supplies the frontal cortex, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, altered sensorium, and aphasia. Meanwhile, occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, which supplies the lateral pons, can lead to sudden onset vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria.

      Lastly, the central retinal artery is not the correct answer as occlusion of this artery typically results in amaurosis fugax, which is a painless transient ‘descending curtain’ visual field defect, rather than homonymous hemianopia.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 79-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following a fall at home. Upon examination, it is evident that her left leg is externally rotated and shorter than her right, causing her significant discomfort. An x-ray confirms a fracture of the neck of the femur, and the orthopaedic team accepts her for surgical intervention.

      After the procedure, the patient is assessed and found to have reduced sensation in the distal region of her left leg. While power is preserved proximally, there is a loss of dorsiflexion. Additionally, the plantar and ankle jerk reflexes are absent, while the knee jerk reflex is present. What condition do these findings suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The loss of ankle and plantar reflex, but intact knee jerk, suggests a sciatic nerve lesion, which could be a rare complication of a neck of femur fracture. An associated acetabular fracture is unlikely to cause such symptoms. Compartment syndrome is also less likely in this context, as it presents with different symptoms. While a common peroneal nerve injury may cause some of the symptoms, it is not the most likely cause in this case. Femoral nerve injury is possible but does not match the clinical features observed.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.

      Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old individual visits a maxillofacial clinic complaining of facial pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual visits a maxillofacial clinic complaining of facial pain that has persisted for 3 months after sustaining a basal skull fracture in a car accident. According to neuroimaging reports, where is the lesion most likely located, indicating damage to the maxillary nerve as it traverses the sphenoid bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The correct location for the passage of the maxillary nerve is the foramen rotundum. In the case of a basal skull fracture involving the sphenoid bone, the lesion is most likely located in the foramen rotundum. The foramen ovale is not the correct location as it is where the mandibular nerve passes through. The foramen spinosum is also not the correct location as it transmits the middle meningeal artery and vein, not the maxillary nerve. The hypoglossal canal is also not the correct location as it transmits the twelfth cranial nerve, not the maxillary nerve.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a severe headache that started today. He reports that the pain is situated at the back of his head and worsens when he coughs and bends forward. He has vomited twice and is experiencing some blurred vision. An MRI scan is ordered, which reveals a downward herniation of the cerebellar tonsils.

      What brain structure has the cerebellar tonsils herniated into, based on the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      Arnold-Chiari malformation refers to the cerebellar tonsils herniating downwards through the foramen magnum. This condition has four types, with type one being the most prevalent.

      The fourth ventricle is situated in front of the cerebellum and serves as a pathway for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the cerebral aqueduct.

      The thalamus is a central structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex. It comprises various nuclei that transmit sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex.

      The cerebral aqueduct is positioned between the third and fourth ventricle and facilitates the flow of CSF.

      The hypothalamus is a subdivision of the diencephalon that primarily regulates homeostasis.

      Understanding Arnold-Chiari Malformation

      Arnold-Chiari malformation is a condition where the cerebellar tonsils are pushed downwards through the foramen magnum. This can occur either due to a congenital defect or as a result of trauma. The condition can lead to non-communicating hydrocephalus, which is caused by the obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid outflow. Patients with Arnold-Chiari malformation may experience headaches and syringomyelia, which is a condition where fluid-filled cysts form in the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old female was admitted to the Emergency Department after a motorcycle accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female was admitted to the Emergency Department after a motorcycle accident. She reported experiencing intense pain in her left shoulder and a loss of strength in elbow flexion. The physician in the Emergency Department suspects that damage to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus may be responsible for the weakness.

      What are the end branches of this cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve and the lateral root of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The two end branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus are the lateral root of the median nerve and the musculocutaneous nerve. If the musculocutaneous nerve is damaged, it can result in weakened elbow flexion. The posterior cord has two end branches, the axillary nerve and radial nerve. The lateral pectoral nerve is a branch of the lateral cord but not an end branch. The medial cord has two end branches, the medial root of the median nerve and the ulnar nerve.

      Brachial Plexus Cords and their Origins

      The brachial plexus cords are categorized based on their position in relation to the axillary artery. These cords pass over the first rib near the lung’s dome and under the clavicle, just behind the subclavian artery. The lateral cord is formed by the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks and gives rise to the lateral pectoral nerve, which originates from C5, C6, and C7. The medial cord is formed by the anterior division of the lower trunk and gives rise to the medial pectoral nerve, the medial brachial cutaneous nerve, and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which originate from C8, T1, and C8, T1, respectively. The posterior cord is formed by the posterior divisions of the three trunks (C5-T1) and gives rise to the upper and lower subscapular nerves, the thoracodorsal nerve to the latissimus dorsi (also known as the middle subscapular nerve), and the axillary and radial nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with migraine seeks medical attention for her worsening symptoms. Her physician recommends identifying triggers to prevent future attacks. What is a known trigger associated with migraines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chocolate

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a primary headache syndrome that often includes a prodrome, aura, migraine attack, and postdrome. The prodrome phase can involve changes in mood, fatigue, and hunger that occur hours to days before the migraine attack. The aura phase typically involves visual disturbances, such as wiggly lines in the visual field, and occurs 1-1.5 hours before the migraine attack. The migraine attack itself can last anywhere from 4-72 hours. The postdrome phase may include symptoms such as soreness, fatigue, mood changes, and gastrointestinal issues.

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a general feeling of discomfort. Migraine attacks can last up to 72 hours, and patients often seek relief in a dark and quiet room.

      There are several triggers that can cause a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. Women are three times more likely to experience migraines than men, and the prevalence in women is around 18%.

      To diagnose migraine, doctors use a set of criteria established by the International Headache Society. These criteria include at least five attacks that last between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, patients must also experience nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light and sound. The diagnosis is ruled out if the headache is caused by another disorder or if it occurs for the first time in close temporal relation to another disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports noticing changes in his speech over the past six months. Specifically, she describes it as loud and jerky with pauses between syllables. However, he is still able to comprehend everything he hears. During your examination, you observe the same speech pattern but find no weakness or sensory changes in his limbs. Based on these findings, which area of the brain is most likely affected by a lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Scanning dysarthria can be caused by cerebellar disease, which can result in jerky, loud speech with pauses between words and syllables. Other symptoms may include dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus, and an intention tremor.

      Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia can be caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which can lead to nonsensical sentences with word substitution and neologisms. It can also cause comprehension impairment, which is not present in this patient.

      Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra, which can result in monotonous speech. Other symptoms may include bradykinesia, rigidity, and a resting tremor, which are not observed in this patient.

      A middle cerebral artery stroke can cause aphasia, contralateral hemiparesis, and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower. However, this patient does not exhibit altered sensation on examination.

      A lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s area, can cause poor speech repetition, but this is not evident in this patient.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She reports that his speech has been progressively harder to comprehend for the last six months. During the examination, you observe that his eyes twitch repeatedly, particularly when he gazes upwards. Based on these findings, where in his brain is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Upbeat nystagmus can be caused by a lesion in the cerebellar vermis, which can result in uncontrolled repetitive eye movements that worsen when looking upwards. Other symptoms of cerebellar lesions may include slurred speech. Downbeat nystagmus, on the other hand, can be caused by a lesion in the foramen magnum, which is often seen in Arnold Chiari malformation. Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by bradykinesia, tremors, and rigidity, can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. Lesions in the temporal lobe can result in superior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is characterized by loss of vision in the same upper quadrant of each eye, as well as changes in speech such as word substitutions and neologisms. Finally, lesions in the hypothalamus can lead to Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause ataxia, nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confabulation, and amnesia.

      Understanding Nystagmus and its Causes

      Nystagmus is a condition characterized by involuntary eye movements that can occur in different directions. Upbeat nystagmus, for instance, is associated with lesions in the cerebellar vermis, while downbeat nystagmus is linked to foramen magnum lesions and Arnold-Chiari malformation.

      Upbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move upwards and then jerk downwards, while downbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move downwards and then jerk upwards. These movements can affect vision and balance, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, vertigo, and difficulty reading or focusing on objects.

      It is important to note that not all forms of nystagmus are pathological. Horizontal optokinetic nystagmus, for example, is a normal physiological response to visual stimuli. This type of nystagmus occurs when the eyes track a moving object, such as a passing car or a scrolling text on a screen.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - A 43-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of headaches, nausea, and vomiting that...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of headaches, nausea, and vomiting that have been worsening when lying down or leaning forwards for the past 3 months. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon undergoing an MRI, multiple suspicious lesions are found along his spinal cord. A biopsy confirms the presence of ependymal cells that have undergone malignant transformation. What is the typical role of these cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production

      Explanation:

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man is struck with a hammer on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is struck with a hammer on the right side of his head. He passes away upon arrival at the emergency department. What is the most probable finding during the post mortem examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The given scenario involves a short delay before death, which is not likely to result in a supratentorial herniation. The other options are also less severe.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 22 - A teenage boy is struck on the side of his head by a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is struck on the side of his head by a baseball bat. Upon CT head scan, an extradural haematoma is detected. What is the most probable foramen that the affected artery entered the skull through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Explanation:

      The artery that is most likely responsible for the extradural haematoma is the middle meningeal artery, which enters the skull through the foramen spinosum. This artery is vulnerable to injury in the pterional region of the skull, where the bone is thin and can be easily fractured. The accessory meningeal artery enters through the foramen ovale, while the carotid artery enters through the carotid canal and the recurrent meningeal artery enters through the superior orbital fissure. The foramen rotundum does not have an artery entering through it.

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old male is referred to the memory clinic due to a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male is referred to the memory clinic due to a gradual decline in his memory. Over the past five months, he has been struggling to recall the names of his loved ones and has been found disoriented and confused on multiple occasions. After an evaluation, the patient is prescribed medication to slow down the advancement of the illness.

      What is the primary enzyme inhibited by the initial medication for the suspected condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Patients with Alzheimer’s dementia, which is the most prevalent type, experience a decrease in cholinergic neurons. To address this, acetylcholine inhibitors (AChEI) are prescribed to increase the amount of AChEI in the synaptic cleft, resulting in amplified effects at the postsynaptic receptor. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are examples of AChEI inhibitors.

      Donepezil is the primary recommendation for treating Alzheimer’s disease, while memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is the secondary recommendation.

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 24 - Sarah is a 63-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual visual changes for...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 63-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual visual changes for the past 2 years. Recently, she has noticed a decline in her peripheral vision and has been running into objects.

      During the examination, her eyes do not appear red. Ophthalmoscopy reveals bilateral cupping with a cup to disc ratio of 0.8. Tonometry shows a pressure of 26mmHg in her left eye and 28mmHg in her right eye.

      After trying brinzolamide, latanoprost, and brimonidine, which were not well tolerated due to side effects, what is the mechanism of action of the best alternative medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease aqueous humour production

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is an effective treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma as it reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye. This condition is caused by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to poor drainage within the trabecular meshwork, resulting in gradual vision loss. The first-line treatments for primary open-angle glaucoma include beta blockers, prostaglandin analogues, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and alpha-2-agonists. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, prostaglandin analogues, or alpha-2-agonists, beta blockers like timolol are the remaining option. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce aqueous humor production, prostaglandin analogues increase uveoscleral outflow, and alpha-2-agonists have a dual action of reducing humor production and increasing outflow. It is important to note that increasing aqueous humor production and reducing uveoscleral outflow are not effective treatments for glaucoma.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of sensation on the left side of his body to his caregivers.

      During his cranial nerve examination, no abnormalities were found. However, upon neurological examination of his upper and lower limbs, there is a significant sensory loss to light touch, vibration, and pain on the right side. Additionally, he is unable to detect changes in temperature and his joint position sense is impaired on the right side. A CT head scan reveals an infarction in the region of the lateral thalamus on the left side.

      Which specific lateral thalamic nucleus has been affected by this stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventral posterior

      Explanation:

      Injury to the lateral section of the ventral posterior nucleus located in the thalamus can impact the perception of bodily sensations such as touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 26 - At what stage does the sciatic nerve typically divide into the tibial and...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage does the sciatic nerve typically divide into the tibial and common peroneal nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the superior aspect of the popliteal fossa

      Explanation:

      The path of the sciatic nerve begins at the posterior surface of the obturator internus and quadratus femoris, where it descends vertically towards the hamstring compartment of the thigh. As it reaches this area, it is crossed by the long head of biceps femoris. Moving towards the buttock, the nerve is covered by the gluteus maximus. Finally, it splits into its tibial and common peroneal components at the upper part of the popliteal fossa.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he has noticed at the corner of his jaw. Apart from this, he reports feeling well. During the examination, there is no visible swelling, but on palpation, you detect a hard, immovable mass located about 2 cm above the angle of the mandible. Based on your assessment, you suspect that the patient may have a parotid gland tumor. If this is the case, the tumor may cause additional symptoms if it affects the cranial nerve that passes through the parotid gland. Which cranial nerve has a path that runs through the substance of the parotid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland contains the facial nerve, which divides into five branches: the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches. The mandibular nerve, a division of the trigeminal nerve, carries both sensory and motor fibers, providing sensation to the lower lip, lower teeth and gums, chin, and jaw, and motor innervation to muscles involved in chewing and other functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve, the ninth cranial nerve, has various functions, including carrying taste and sensation from the back of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle, as well as supplying the parotid gland with parasympathetic fibers. The maxillary nerve, another division of the trigeminal nerve, carries only sensory fibers, providing sensation to the lower eyelid and cheeks, upper teeth and gums, palate, nasal cavity, and certain paranasal sinuses. The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and most of the extrinsic muscles, except for the palatoglossus. A parotid tumor, which is usually benign, can cause symptoms such as a mass, tenderness of the gland, facial nerve palsy, or lymphatic infiltration.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 28 - As a 6th year medical student observing a neurosurgeon, I am witnessing the...

    Incorrect

    • As a 6th year medical student observing a neurosurgeon, I am witnessing the removal of a cerebellar astrocytoma in a 9-year-old girl. If the cancer were to spread to the occipital lobes, which structure would it have to breach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The tentorium cerebelli, a fold of the dura mater, acts as a barrier between the cerebellum and brainstem and the occipital lobes. Therefore, for the boy’s cancer to reach the occipital lobes, it would need to breach this fold.

      The filum terminale is a strand of the pia mater that extends from the conus medullaris.

      The sellar diaphragm is a small dural fold that covers the pituitary gland.

      The falx cerebelli is a small dural fold that partially separates the cerebral hemispheres.

      The falx cerebri is a dural fold that separates the cerebral hemispheres.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife who complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife who complains that her husband engages in public masturbation and manipulates his genitals. He frequently licks objects and attempts to put them in his mouth. The wife also reports a recent significant increase in his appetite followed by purging. She is distressed that her husband seems emotionally unaffected. These symptoms began after he suffered a severe head injury 6 months ago and was found to have bilateral medial temporal lobe damage on imaging. On examination, the patient is unable to recognize familiar objects placed in front of him. Which part of the brain is most likely to have a lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome can be caused by lesions in the amygdala, which is a part of the limbic system located in the medial portion of the temporal lobes on both sides of the brain. This condition may present with symptoms such as hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, bulimia, placid response to emotions, and visual agnosia/psychic blindness. The lesions that cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome can be a result of various factors such as infection, trauma, stroke, or organic brain disease.

      The cerebellum is an incorrect answer because cerebellar lesions primarily affect gait and cause truncal ataxia, along with other symptoms such as intention tremors and nystagmus.

      Frontal lobe lesions can lead to Broca’s aphasia, which affects the fluency of speech, but comprehension of language remains intact.

      The occipital lobe is also an incorrect answer because lesions in this area are commonly associated with homonymous hemianopia, a condition where only one side of the visual field remains visible. While visual agnosia can occur with an occipital lobe lesion, it does not account for the other symptoms seen in Kluver-Bucy syndrome such as hypersexuality and hyperorality.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A father brings his 14-year-old son into the Emergency Department, who he witnessed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 14-year-old son into the Emergency Department, who he witnessed having a 'fit' 30 minutes ago. This occurred as his son was getting up from his chair. The father noticed some shaking of his son's arms, lasting approximately 10 minutes.

      His son has been very stressed with school projects over the past week, staying up late and often missing meals. His son's past medical and developmental history is non-significant.

      On examination, the son is alert and responsive.

      What are the associated factors with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short postictal period

      Explanation:

      The recovery from syncopal episodes is rapid and the postictal period is short. In contrast, seizures have a much longer postictal period. The stem suggests that the syncope may be due to exam stress and poor nutrition habits. One way to differentiate between seizures and syncope is by the length of the postictal period, with syncope having a quick recovery. Lip smacking is not associated with syncope, but rather with focal seizures of the temporal lobe. The 10-minute postictal period described in the stem is not consistent with a seizure.

      Epilepsy is a neurological condition that causes recurrent seizures. In the UK, around 500,000 people have epilepsy, and two-thirds of them can control their seizures with antiepileptic medication. While epilepsy usually occurs in isolation, certain conditions like cerebral palsy, tuberous sclerosis, and mitochondrial diseases have an association with epilepsy. It’s important to note that seizures can also occur due to other reasons like infection, trauma, or metabolic disturbance.

      Seizures can be classified into focal seizures, which start in a specific area of the brain, and generalised seizures, which involve networks on both sides of the brain. Patients who have had generalised seizures may experience biting their tongue or incontinence of urine. Following a seizure, patients typically have a postictal phase where they feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes.

      Patients who have had their first seizure generally undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging (usually a MRI). Most neurologists start antiepileptics following a second epileptic seizure. Antiepileptics are one of the few drugs where it is recommended that we prescribe by brand, rather than generically, due to the risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lowered seizure threshold.

      Patients who drive, take other medications, wish to get pregnant, or take contraception need to consider the possible interactions of the antiepileptic medication. Some commonly used antiepileptics include sodium valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and phenytoin. In case of a seizure that doesn’t terminate after 5-10 minutes, medication like benzodiazepines may be administered to terminate the seizure. If a patient continues to fit despite such measures, they are said to have status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency requiring hospital treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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