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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She is currently in the second week of the packet and had unprotected sex the previous night. The patient is calling early in the morning, her usual pill-taking time, but has not taken today's pill yet due to uncertainty about what to do. What guidance should be provided to this patient regarding the missed pill?
Your Answer: Take two pills today and omit the pill-free interval at the end of this packet,
Correct Answer: Take two pills today, no further precautions needed
Explanation:If one COCP pill is missed, the individual should take the missed pill as soon as possible, but no further action is necessary. They should also take the next pill at the usual time, even if that means taking two pills in one day. Emergency contraception is not required in this situation, as only one pill was missed. However, if two or more pills are missed in week 3 of a packet, it is recommended to omit the pill-free interval and use barrier contraception for 7 days.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity
The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 64-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for follow-up after his blood pressure was found to be elevated during his routine check-up. He has a medical history of heart failure, asthma, and type 2 diabetes. His current medications include lisinopril, salbutamol inhaler, atorvastatin, and metformin. His home blood pressure readings over the past two weeks have averaged 156/92 mmHg. As a result, his doctor recommends adding another medication to his treatment plan to manage his hypertension. What is the most suitable medication for this patient's new diagnosis?
Your Answer: Felodipine
Explanation:For a patient with hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, and asthma, the most appropriate management option is a calcium channel blocker, such as felodipine. Dihydropyridines, like amlodipine, are preferred over non-dihydropyridines, like verapamil, as they are less likely to exacerbate heart failure. Verapamil should be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect, which can reduce cardiac output, slow the heart rate, and increase the risk of impaired AV conduction. Bisoprolol is not recommended for asthmatic patients, and beta-blockers are a fourth-line option for hypertension. Furosemide and spironolactone are third and fourth-line options, respectively, and should only be used after calcium channel blockers have been tried. Verapamil should not be used in patients with heart failure and other comorbidities.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis II
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations
There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.
Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.
Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.
Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.
Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of menstrual irregularity, ‘hot flashes’, nausea, palpitations and sweating, especially at night. The GP suspects that the patient may be experiencing premature menopause.
What is a known factor that can cause premature menopause?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Premature Menopause: Risk Factors and Associations
Premature menopause, also known as premature ovarian failure, is a condition where a woman’s ovaries stop functioning before the age of 40. While the exact cause is unknown, there are certain risk factors and associations that have been identified.
Addison’s Disease: Women with Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands, may have steroid cell autoantibodies that cross-react with the ovarian follicles. This can lead to premature ovarian failure and early menopause.
Multiparity: Having multiple pregnancies does not increase the risk of premature menopause.
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: While PCOS can cause menstrual irregularities, it is not associated with premature menopause.
Recurrent Miscarriage: Women who experience recurrent miscarriages are not at an increased risk for premature menopause.
Hyperthyroidism: Hyperthyroidism can cause menstrual disturbances, but once it is treated and the patient is euthyroid, their menstrual cycle returns to normal. It is not associated with premature menopause.
In conclusion, while the cause of premature menopause is still unknown, it is important to understand the risk factors and associations in order to identify and manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man, who had recently undergone treatment for an inflamed appendix, presented with fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile infection and started on oral vancomycin. However, after 3 days, his diarrhoea continues and his total white cell count (WCC) is 22.7 (4–11 × 109/l). He remembers having a similar illness 2 years ago, after gallbladder surgery which seemed to come back subsequently.
Which of the following treatment options may be tried in his case?Your Answer: Oral metronidazole
Correct Answer: Faecal transplant
Explanation:Faecal Transplant: A New Treatment Option for Severe and Recurrent C. difficile Infection
Severe and treatment-resistant C. difficile infection can be a challenging condition to manage. In cases where intravenous metronidazole is not an option, faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) has emerged as a promising treatment option. FMT involves transferring bacterial flora from a healthy donor to the patient’s gut, which can effectively cure the current infection and prevent recurrence.
A randomized study published in the New England Journal of Medicine reported a 94% cure rate of pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. difficile with FMT, compared to just 31% with vancomycin. While FMT is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in recurrent cases that are resistant to antibiotic therapy, it is still a relatively new treatment option that requires further validation.
Other treatment options, such as IV clindamycin and intravenous ciprofloxacin, are not suitable for this condition. Oral metronidazole is a second-line treatment for mild or moderate cases, but it is unlikely to be effective in severe cases that are resistant to oral vancomycin. Total colectomy may be necessary in cases of colonic perforation or toxic megacolon with systemic symptoms, but it is not a good choice for this patient.
In conclusion, FMT is a promising new treatment option for severe and recurrent C. difficile infection that is resistant to antibiotic therapy. Further research is needed to fully understand its effectiveness and potential risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He also reports that he has noticed galactorrhoea and is experiencing headaches, usually upon waking in the morning. He has no significant past medical history. His blood test results are as follows:
Investigation(s) Result Normal range
Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 130–180 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 3.5–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/l 0.27-4.2 mU/l
Prolactin 5234 mU/l 86-324 mU/l
Which of the following further investigations should be requested?Your Answer: CT pituitary
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pituitary
Explanation:For a patient with symptoms and blood tests indicating prolactinaemia, further tests are needed to measure other pituitary hormones. An MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to diagnose a macroprolactinoma, which is likely due to significantly elevated prolactin levels and early-morning headaches. A CT of the adrenal glands is useful in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, which presents with symptoms such as headaches, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea and vomiting, anxiety, and tremors. A 24-hour urinary 5HIAA test is used to diagnose a serotonin-secreting carcinoid tumor, which presents with symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and tachycardia. A chest X-ray is not useful in diagnosing a prolactinoma, which is an adenoma of the pituitary gland. For imaging of prolactinomas, MRI is the preferred method as it is more sensitive in detecting small tumors (microprolactinomas).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A medication is administered via intramuscular injection. What is the term used to describe the process by which it enters the individual's circulatory system?
Your Answer: Absorption
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics: How Drugs are Processed by the Body
Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how drugs are processed by the body. It encompasses four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of the drug from the gut lumen and entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, which can affect its ability to interact with its target. Metabolism involves the deactivation of the drug molecule through reactions in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of the drug from the body.
The absorption of a drug is crucial for it to have any effect on the body. The method of absorption depends on the chemical structure of the drug and can occur in the stomach or intestines for orally delivered drugs. Intravenous or intramuscular injections result in prompt and straightforward absorption. Some drugs require specialized mechanisms for uptake, such as lipophilic medications that may be taken up in micelles with fat-soluble vitamins. Active transport mechanisms can also be used for molecules that resemble hormones or molecules made by the body.
pharmacokinetics is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure that drugs are administered correctly and effectively. By knowing how drugs are processed by the body, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about dosages, routes of administration, and potential drug interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in his back that radiates to his right groin. The pain started three days ago, has been progressively worsening, and is exacerbated by walking. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. He also reports feeling feverish and experiencing chills for the past 24 hours.
The patient has no significant medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, drinks 30 units of alcohol per week, and injects heroin daily. Upon examination, his heart rate is 96/minute, respiratory rate is 14/minute, blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 98%. His temperature is 38.4 ºC.
During examination of the spine and right hip, he experiences pain on movement of the hip joint, particularly flexion, but is not tender on palpation of the spine or hip joint. There is no evidence of swelling or erythema of the spine or hips, and no difference in temperature. Abdominal examination reveals a soft and non-tender abdomen, without organomegaly and present bowel sounds. The kidneys are non-ballotable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Iliopsoas abscess
Explanation:When a patient presents with fever and back or flank pain, it is important to consider the possibility of an iliopsoas abscess. This condition is indicated by pain in the hip joint area, along with a fever and pain during movement. Iliopsoas abscess occurs when there is a collection of pus within the iliopsoas muscle, which extends from the T12 – L5 vertebrae to the femur’s lesser trochanter. Intravenous drug use is a risk factor for developing this condition.
Vertebral osteomyelitis, on the other hand, usually presents with tenderness, swelling, and weakness of the surrounding muscles over the infected vertebrae. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head may cause groin pain, but given the patient’s fever and IVDU status, an iliopsoas abscess is more likely. Kidney stones can cause constant pain from the loin to the groin, while appendicitis usually presents with pain in the umbilical region or right iliac fossa. The patient’s normal abdominal exam also makes appendicitis less likely.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a 4-month history of myalgia and widespread bony tenderness. She reports increased fatigue and weakness when lifting heavy objects. Her medical history includes coeliac disease.
During the examination, tenderness is noted over the shoulder girdle and arms, but there is no associated joint stiffness. The patient has a waddling gait.
Blood tests are ordered and reveal the following results:
- Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1 - 2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8 - 1.4)
- ALP: 176 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with bone pain, muscle tenderness, and a waddling gait due to proximal myopathy is osteomalacia. This condition is caused by a demineralization of bone, often due to a deficiency in vitamin D. Laboratory tests may reveal hypocalcemia, low vitamin D levels, normal or elevated phosphate levels, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Myositis, myotonic dystrophy, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not present with the same symptoms or laboratory findings.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film thrombocytopenia
Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl comes to her GP with concerns about her development. She is the shortest girl in her class and has not yet started menstruating. During the examination, the GP observes that she has low-set ears and cubitus valgus. Based on this presentation, what chest sign is the GP most likely to elicit?
Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The presence of an ejection systolic murmur in this patient suggests that they may have Turner syndrome, which is known to cause complications such as bicuspid aortic valve. This can lead to aortic stenosis and result in the murmur. It is important to note that Turner’s syndrome does not typically affect lung development, and a mid-diastolic murmur would not be expected as a result of this condition.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes in for a psychiatric check-up for his depression and reports frequently losing his train of thought, attributing it to the government stealing his ideas. What is the symptom he is displaying?
Your Answer: Loss of ideation
Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
She underwent sterilisation two years ago.
What would be the most suitable treatment for her?Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menorrhagia
Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be a distressing condition for women. Current guidelines recommend the use of Mirena (IUS) as the first line of treatment, even for women who do not require contraception. Patient preference is important in the decision-making process, but IUS is still the preferred option.
If IUS is not suitable or preferred, there are several other treatment options available. Tranexamic acid, a medication that prevents the breakdown of blood clots, is a second-line option. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and combined oral contraceptive pills can also be used to prevent the proliferation of the endometrium.
If these options are not effective, oral or injected progestogens can be used to prevent endometrial proliferation. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, such as Goserelin, are also available as a last resort.
It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and choose the treatment that is best for them. With the variety of options available, there is likely a treatment that can effectively manage menorrhagia and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for worsening memory problems and getting lost on his way home from the shops. What is associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Hb 85 g/l, MCV 112 fl
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan = dilation of the sulci and ventricles
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Their Relevance in Alzheimer’s Disease
Computed tomography (CT) brain scan can be used to exclude vascular disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and space-occupying lesions in patients with cognitive decline. In pure Alzheimer’s disease, changes consistent with cerebral atrophy, such as dilated sulci and ventricles, are observed.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels of 0.5-1.0 g/l are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate bacterial or viral meningitis.
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 100 mm/hour is not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may be significant in multiple myeloma or vasculitis.
Hemoglobin levels of 85 g/l and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fl suggest macrocytic anemia, which requires further investigation and is most likely due to B12 or folate deficiency.
CSF white cells of 100-150 neutrophils/mm3 are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate meningitis.
Understanding the Relevance of Diagnostic Tests in Alzheimer’s Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman, who has recently started radiotherapy treatment for breast cancer, presents with redness and peeling of the skin over the left breast.
On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.4 °C. Her pulse is 80 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/78 mmHg. Examination of the left breast reveals a sharply demarcated 7 cm × 5 cm area of faint erythema and mild patchy desquamation of the skin of the right upper quadrant.
The right breast appears normal, and the patient has no other skin changes affecting the rest of the body.
Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct?Your Answer: Topical therapy and supportive measures to address skin changes
Explanation:Managing Skin Changes from Radiation Therapy: Supportive Measures and Topical Therapy
Radiation therapy is a common treatment for cancers located close to the skin, such as those of the head, neck, and breast. However, it can cause acute radiation dermatitis, which is one of the most common side-effects of radiotherapy. This can range from mild erythema and peeling to painful weeping bullae and ulceration. While symptoms typically resolve within a month of completing treatment, patients may develop chronic skin changes.
To manage skin changes from radiation therapy, supportive measures are necessary to minimize side effects. This includes encouraging the use of emollients, avoiding sun exposure, and applying cosmetics to the affected area. Topical steroids may also be used, although evidence for their effectiveness is limited. It’s important to note that radiation dermatitis is not an absolute indication for discontinuing radiation therapy, but the radiation dose and distribution should be checked for accuracy.
Patients should be aware that chronic skin changes may develop or persist after radiotherapy, such as fibrosis, telangiectasia, or atrophy of the overlying skin. It’s crucial to understand that radiation therapy is associated with numerous side-effects, with radiation dermatitis being one of the most common. While skin changes may be temporary, supportive measures and topical therapy can help manage symptoms and minimize long-term effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:
Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.
Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.
Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.
Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.
Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.
Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred to the joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. She is currently 25 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her family has no history of pregnancy-related problems, but her father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. On examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and otherwise normal. What diagnostic test would confirm her condition?
Your Answer: Random plasma glucose >= 7.8 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L
Explanation:Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed if the patient has a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L or higher, or a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L or higher. This diagnosis is typically made during an oral glucose tolerance test around 24 weeks into the pregnancy for women with risk factors, such as a high BMI or a first-degree relative with diabetes mellitus. In this patient’s case, she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus during her first pregnancy due to her risk factors. Therefore, the correct answer is a fasting plasma glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L. It is important to note that a 2-hour glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L is not diagnostic of gestational diabetes mellitus, and random plasma glucose tests are not used for diagnosis. Glucose targets for women with gestational diabetes mellitus include a 2-hour glucose level of 6.4 mmol/L after mealtime and a 1-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L after mealtime.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?Your Answer: Raised creatine kinase
Correct Answer: Plasma viscosity
Explanation:Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis
Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:
Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.
Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents with gradual onset abdominal pain that has been getting progressively worse for 4 days. She reports feeling nauseated and has vomited twice today. Her temperature is 38.4ºC, blood pressure is 116/82 mmHg, and heart rate is 104 beats per minute. The uterus is palpable just above the umbilicus and a fetal heartbeat is heard via hand-held Doppler. On speculum examination, the cervix is closed and there is no blood. She has a history of menorrhagia due to uterine fibroids. This is her first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, uterine fibroids can grow due to their sensitivity to oestrogen. If their growth exceeds their blood supply, they may undergo red or ‘carneous’ degeneration, which can cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. Treatment typically involves rest and pain relief, and the condition should resolve within a week. It is unlikely that this is a multiple pregnancy, as it would have been detected by now, and a closed cervical os suggests that a miscarriage is not imminent.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old teacher presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. She has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. She does not smoke but drinks up to 20 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends. Observations are as follows:
Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm and regular.
On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Urea 8.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 190 µmol/l
(bloods carried out one year
previously showed a creatinine
of 80) 50–120 µmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?Your Answer: Small kidneys
Correct Answer: Oliguria
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
Renal failure can be acute or chronic, and it is important to differentiate between the two. Acute renal failure may present with symptoms such as acute lethargy, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may present with symptoms such as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, and reduced appetite. A history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension is also a risk factor for chronic kidney disease.
Oliguria is a clinical hallmark of renal failure and can be one of the early signs of acute renal injury. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, while peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Nocturia or nocturnal polyuria is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease, while in acute injury, urine output tends to be reduced rather than increased. Small kidneys are seen in chronic renal failure, while the kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.
Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 23
Correct
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An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
Full blood counts showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Felty syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes
Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.
Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with G4P3 at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labour ward following a spontaneous rupture of membranes. She delivers a healthy baby vaginally but experiences excessive bleeding and hypotension. Despite attempts to control the bleeding, the senior doctor decides to perform a hysterectomy. Upon examination, the pathologist observes that the chorionic villi have deeply invaded the myometrium but not the perimetrium.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Placenta percreta
Correct Answer: Placenta increta
Explanation:The correct answer is placenta increta, where the chorionic villi invade the myometrium but not the perimetrium. The patient’s age and history of multiple pregnancies increase the risk of this abnormal placentation, which can be diagnosed through pathological studies. Placenta accreta, percreta, and previa are incorrect answers, as they involve different levels of placental attachment and can cause different symptoms.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: High-dose atorvastatin and ezetimibe
Correct Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired sense of smell. He has a height on the 90th centile and weight on the 95th centile. There is no pubertal development in his external genitalia and his testicular volumes are 3 mL bilaterally. Upon investigation, his plasma luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone levels are both 1.0 U/L (1-10), while his serum testosterone level is 2.0 pmol/L (9-33). His free T4 level is 20 pmol/L (10-22) and his plasma thyroid stimulating hormone level is 3.2 mU/L (0.4-5). A CT brain scan shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient has Kallmann’s syndrome, characterized by hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia. Klinefelter’s and Noonan’s also cause hypogonadism, while Prader-Willi is associated with hypogonadism and hyperphagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance after falling in her nursing home room. She is experiencing severe pain and is unable to bear weight on her leg, which appears shortened and externally rotated. An X-ray reveals a displaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture, and the orthopaedic team is contacted. The patient has a history of heart failure, mild Alzheimer's disease, and kidney stones. What is the most suitable form of pain relief for this patient?
Your Answer: Intravenous propofol
Correct Answer: Iliofascial nerve block
Explanation:An iliofascial nerve block is a widely used and effective method of pain relief for patients with a fracture of the neck of the femur. By injecting local anaesthetic into the potential space between the fascia iliaca and the iliacus and psoas major muscles, the femoral, obturator, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves can be affected, reducing the need for opioid analgesics like morphine. This is particularly beneficial for elderly patients who are more susceptible to the side effects of opioids. As most patients with neck of femur fractures are elderly, iliofascial nerve blocks are now the recommended first-line method of pain relief in many UK hospitals.
While rectal diclofenac is an effective form of pain relief for kidney stones, it is not the preferred method for a fractured neck of femur. Oral paracetamol is unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief for this type of injury. Intravenous propofol is an anaesthetic agent and not appropriate for initial pain relief in the emergency department. Spinal anaesthesia is commonly used during surgery for neck of femur fractures, but it is less suitable than an iliofascial nerve block in the emergency department.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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A 63-year-old man is admitted to hospital with two days of loin pain, fever, nausea and rigors. He reports having had a recent urinary tract infection, with associated dysuria and haematuria. He has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes.
Upon examination, he has right-sided flank pain with some tenderness. Observations show mild hypotension and a raised temperature. Blood tests support an infective picture. The medical team decides to start the patient on an antibiotic.
The following day, the patient experiences a seizure, witnessed by the nursing staff. The doctors suspect that the antibiotic may have triggered the seizure.
Which antibiotic was prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is the only medication known to lower the seizure threshold in epileptic patients, which is important to consider in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis where ciprofloxacin is commonly used. cephalexin and co-amoxiclav are alternative antibiotics that do not affect the seizure threshold, while flucloxacillin is not typically used in the treatment of pyelonephritis.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman gives birth to a healthy baby at 38 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. Following a physiological third stage of labor, the patient experiences suspected uterine atony and loses 800 ml of blood. She has a medical history of asthma.
An ABCDE approach is taken, and IV access is established. The obstetric consultant attempts uterine compression, but the bleeding persists. The patient's heart rate is 92 bpm, and her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: IV carboprost
Correct Answer: IV oxytocin
Explanation:Medical treatments available for managing postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.
The correct option for this patient is IV oxytocin. The patient is experiencing primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH), which is characterized by the loss of more than 500 ml of blood within 24 hours of delivering the baby. Uterine atony, which occurs when the uterus fails to contract after the placenta is delivered, is the most common cause of PPH. The initial steps in managing this condition involve an ABCDE approach, establishing IV access, and resuscitation. Mechanical palpation of the uterine fundus (rubbing the uterus) is also done to stimulate contractions, but it has not been successful in this case. The next step is pharmacological management, which involves administering IV oxytocin.
IM carboprost is not the correct option. Although it is another medical management option, it should be avoided in patients with asthma, which this patient has.
IV carboprost is also not the correct option. Carboprost is given intramuscularly, not intravenously. Additionally, it should be avoided in patients with asthma.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD, and there are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and use barrier contraception for 5 days
Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required
Explanation:No additional contraception is needed when switching from an IUD to COCP if it is removed on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days, but if started from day 6 onwards, barrier contraception is required for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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