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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, laboratory test results reveal the following:
- Serum glucose: 4.5 mmol/L
- Haemoglobin A1c: 4.2% (22 mmol/mol)
- Total cholesterol: 5.8 mmol/L
- LDL cholesterol: 4.2 mmol/L
- HDL cholesterol: 0.6 mmol/L
Based on these results, what is the most likely mechanism for injury to the vascular endothelium in this patient?Your Answer: Activation of complement
Correct Answer: Collection of lipid in foam cells
Explanation:Atherosclerosis and Related Conditions
Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lipids in arterial walls, leading to the formation of atheromas. This process is often associated with hypercholesterolemia, where there is an increase in LDL cholesterol that can become oxidized and taken up by arterial wall LDL receptors. The oxidized LDL is then collected in macrophages, forming foam cells, which are precursors to atheromas. This process is exacerbated by hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, which can lead to the degradation of LDL to oxidized LDL and its uptake into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages.
Diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia is also associated with the accumulation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake. This accumulation can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis. However, neutrophilic inflammation, which is often the result of infection, is not related to atherosclerosis and is unusual in arteries. Additionally, atherosclerosis is not a neoplastic process, although mutations can result in neoplastic transformation.
Overall, the process of atherogenesis is slow and does not involve significant inflammation or activation of complement. the underlying mechanisms of atherosclerosis and related conditions can help in the development of effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Anticoagulation therapy with heparin and plan for elective cardioversion
Correct Answer: IV flecainide
Explanation:Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:
Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Initial investigation
The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.
Medical cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.
Anticoagulation therapy
If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.
Trial of b-blocker
Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.
Intravenous adenosine
This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.
In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated on the medical ward due to increasing episodes of dyspnoea, mainly on exertion. She has been experiencing fatigue more frequently over the past few months. Upon examination, she exhibits slight wheezing and bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Her medical history includes type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, recurrent UTIs, and hypothyroidism. Her current medications consist of insulin, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, and amlodipine. She has never smoked, drinks two units of alcohol per week, and does not use recreational drugs. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 152 g/l, a white cell count of 4.7 × 109/l, a sodium level of 142 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.6 mmol/l, a urea level of 5.4 mmol/l, and a creatinine level of 69 µmol/l. Additionally, her N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) level is 350 pg/ml, which is higher than the normal value of < 100 pg/ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Left ventricular failure
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Cor Pulmonale vs. Other Conditions
Cor pulmonale, or right ventricular failure due to pulmonary heart disease, is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as wheeze, increasing fatigue, and pitting edema. The patient’s history of taking drugs known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, such as methotrexate and nitrofurantoin, supports this diagnosis. Aortic stenosis, asthma, COPD, and left ventricular failure are all possible differential diagnoses, but each has distinguishing factors that make them less likely. Aortic stenosis would not typically present with peripheral edema, while asthma and COPD do not fit with the patient’s lack of risk factors and absence of certain symptoms. Left ventricular failure is also less likely due to the absence of signs such as decreased breath sounds and S3 gallop on heart auscultation. Overall, cor pulmonale is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with borderline hypertension during a routine check-up with his doctor. He is hesitant to take any medications. What dietary recommendations should be given to help lower his blood pressure?
Your Answer: Aim for dietary sodium at 7 g daily
Correct Answer: Consume a diet rich in fruits and vegetables
Explanation:Tips for a Hypertension-Friendly Diet
Maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing hypertension. Here are some tips to help you make the right food choices:
1. Load up on fruits and vegetables: Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can reduce blood pressure by 2-8 mmHg in hypertensive patients. It can also aid in weight loss, which further lowers the risk of hypertension.
2. Limit cholesterol intake: A reduction in cholesterol is essential for patients with ischaemic heart disease, and eating foods that are low in fat and cholesterol can reduce blood pressure.
3. Moderate alcohol consumption: Men should have no more than two alcoholic drinks daily to lower their risk of hypertension.
4. Eat oily fish twice a week: Eating more fish can help lower blood pressure, but having oily fish twice weekly is advised for patients with ischaemic heart disease, not hypertension alone.
5. Watch your sodium intake: Restricting dietary sodium is recommended and can lower blood pressure. A low sodium diet contains less than 2 g of sodium daily. Aim for a maximum of 7 g of dietary sodium daily.
By following these tips, you can maintain a hypertension-friendly diet and reduce your risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?
Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves
Correct Answer: S-T segment depression
Explanation:Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?
Your Answer: Troponin T
Correct Answer: CK-MB
Explanation:Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI
When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary Care Ward. He has suffered from an acute myocardial infarction two days earlier. On examination, he is profoundly unwell with a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. He has crackles throughout his lung fields, with markedly decreased oxygen saturations; he has no audible cardiac murmurs. He is intubated and ventilated, and catheterised.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Troponin T 5.8 ng/ml <0.1 ng/ml
Urine output 30 ml in the past 3 h
ECG – consistent with a myocardial infarction 48 h earlier
Chest X-ray – gross pulmonary oedema
Which of the following fits best with the clinical picture?Your Answer: Nesiritide reduces mortality and improves renal function in this situation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cardiogenic Shock Following Acute Myocardial Infarction
Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. One potential treatment option is the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump, which can provide ventricular support without compromising blood pressure. High-dose dopamine may also be used to preserve renal function, but intermediate and high doses can have negative effects on renal blood flow. The chance of death in this situation is high, but with appropriate treatment, it can be reduced to less than 10%. Nesiritide, a synthetic natriuretic peptide, is not recommended as it can worsen renal function and increase mortality. Nitrate therapy should also be avoided as it can further reduce renal perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary to improve outcomes for patients with cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.
Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.
Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.
Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.
Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.
Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).
These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, is relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm with a decrease in amplitude during inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, preferably under echocardiographic guidance. A fluid challenge with sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. Ibuprofen is not effective in severe cases of pericardial effusion. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing myocardial infarction, which is a differential diagnosis to rule out. LMWH is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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