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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old female presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and inability...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and inability to urinate for the past 3 days. She has been taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician for a urinary tract infection. She has been able to eat, drink, and have a bowel movement today. Her medical history includes irritable bowel syndrome and depression, which is managed with sertraline. She had her last menstrual period a week ago, and she does not experience heavy menstrual bleeding. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lower urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Acute urinary retention can be caused by a lower urinary tract infection, as seen in this patient. Urethritis and urethral edema resulting from the infection can lead to the retention. While sertraline may cause abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea, acute urinary retention is not a typical side effect of the medication.

      Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.

      The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.

      Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.

      To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - You are summoned to attend to a 22-year-old male patient in the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to attend to a 22-year-old male patient in the Emergency Department. He had lacerated his arm, and a junior physician had been trying to stitch the wound. During the administration of lidocaine, she had neglected to aspirate the syringe to confirm that she was not in a blood vessel. The patient initially reported experiencing tongue numbness and a metallic taste in his mouth, and he is now experiencing seizures throughout his body.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil

      Correct Answer: 20% lipid emulsion

      Explanation:

      Local anaesthetic toxicity can be treated with IV lipid emulsion. If a patient has received intravenous lidocaine and experiences symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, dysphoria, or seizures, it is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepine overdose, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose.

      Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.

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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He denies any fever, weight loss or recent travel. Past medical history included hypertension and appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 3 years ago.

      On examination, there is a firm mass over the abdominal wall. The overlying skin is dusky with signs of ischaemia and necrosis.

      Given the signs of ischaemia, you perform a venous blood gas (VBG).

      pH 7.22 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 3.1kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 5.1kPa (4.0-5.3)
      HCO3- 15 mmol/L (22-26)

      Routine work-up to investigate the underlying cause reveals:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 13 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 50 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 39 u/L (3 - 40)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Richter's hernia

      Explanation:

      Richter’s hernia can cause strangulation without any signs of obstruction. This is because the bowel lumen remains open while the bowel wall is compromised. A VBG test may reveal metabolic acidosis, indicated by a low pH, low bicarbonate, and low pCO2 due to partial respiratory compensation. This type of acidosis can occur due to lactate build-up. Unlike Richter’s hernia, small bowel obstruction is less likely to cause a firm, red mass on the abdominal wall. Conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis and pancreatitis may cause abdominal pain and metabolic acidosis, but they do not explain the presence of a firm mass on the abdominal wall or the skin’s dusky appearance. Ascending cholangitis typically presents with Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, but this is not the case here. In some cases, it may also cause confusion and hypotension, which is known as Reynold’s pentad.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are currently on a daily dose of prednisolone 10 mg to manage their condition. They do not take any other regular medications. Are there any necessary adjustments to their medication regimen prior to the surgery?

      Your Answer: No change needed

      Correct Answer: Supplement with hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Prior to surgery, patients taking prednisolone require additional steroid supplementation with hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis. This is especially important for those taking the equivalent of 10 mg or more of prednisolone daily, as their adrenals may be suppressed and unable to produce enough cortisol to meet the body’s increased requirements during surgery. Without supplementation, the risk of Addisonian crisis is higher, and stopping prednisolone peri-operatively can further increase this risk. Hydrocortisone is preferred for supplementation as it is shorter acting than dexamethasone and prednisolone.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old man is in a physical altercation outside the hospital and loses...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is in a physical altercation outside the hospital and loses consciousness after being struck in the head, hitting the ground with his head first. A junior doctor is alerted and needs to take action to protect his airway. Despite some minor bruising and scratches, there are no visible injuries or bleeding.

      What should the junior doctor do next to ensure the patient's airway is safeguarded?

      Your Answer: Jaw thrust manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient’s airway, if there is concern about a cervical spine injury, the preferred manoeuvre is the jaw thrust. This is particularly important in cases where the patient has fallen and hit their head, as there may be a risk of cervical spine injury. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with airway assessment and optimisation being the first step. In this scenario, as it is taking place outside of a hospital, basic airway management manoeuvres should be used initially, with the jaw thrust being the most appropriate option for suspected cervical spine injury. This is because it minimises movement of the cervical spine, reducing the risk of complications such as nerve impingement and tetraplegia. The use of an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask is not the most appropriate initial option, as they take time to prepare and may not be suitable for the patient’s condition. The head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre should also be avoided in cases where cervical spinal injury is suspected, as it involves moving the cervical spine.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - This 70-year-old man is in atrial fibrillation, which was confirmed on a 24-hour...

    Incorrect

    • This 70-year-old man is in atrial fibrillation, which was confirmed on a 24-hour tape during a pre-operative assessment clinic. He reports no prior heart issues but has experienced temporary loss of vision in his right eye over the past two months. He has type II diabetes and COPD but takes no other medications. His blood pressure is normal, and an echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction greater than 65%. What is his CHA2DS2-VASC score?

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Stroke Risk Assessment in Atrial Fibrillation Patients

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a tool used by clinicians to assess the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. It takes into account various risk factors, including congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, previous stroke or TIA, vascular disease, age, and sex.

      Based on the score, clinicians can determine whether anti-coagulation is necessary to prevent stroke. Men with a score greater than 0 and women with a score greater than 1 should be considered for anticoagulation, while anyone with a score greater than 2 is recommended for anticoagulation.

      For example, a 70-year-old man with type II diabetes and visual symptoms suggestive of a TIA would score 4 on the CHA2DS2-VASc scale and should be anticoagulated after assessing his bleeding risk.

      It’s important to note that a score of 6 indicates a high risk of stroke and warrants anti-coagulation if there are no contraindications. Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc score can help clinicians make informed decisions about stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation patients.

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  • Question 7 - Which of the subsequent anaesthetic agents possesses the most potent analgesic effect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the subsequent anaesthetic agents possesses the most potent analgesic effect?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine possesses a significant analgesic impact, making it suitable for inducing anesthesia during emergency procedures conducted outside of hospital settings, such as emergency amputations.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and day case surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

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  • Question 8 - Your senior consultant has asked the scrub nurse to hand him the same...

    Incorrect

    • Your senior consultant has asked the scrub nurse to hand him the same suture. You recall from your surgical term that polyglactin sutures are absorbable and have various uses. Which surgical procedure is your senior consultant performing that necessitates the use of these sutures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumcision

      Explanation:

      Surgical Sutures: Types and Uses in Different Procedures

      Surgical sutures are essential tools in various medical procedures. Surgeons need to consider three properties of sutures, including absorbable or non-absorbable, natural or synthetic, and monofilament or multifilament.

      For circumcisions, Vicryl Rapide is an ideal rapidly dissolving absorbable suture that breaks down within two weeks, eliminating the need for removal. On the other hand, bowel anastomosis requires longer-acting absorbable sutures like PDS or Vicryl.

      Non-absorbable Prolene (polypropylene) is necessary for arterial anastomosis and suturing hernia mesh in place. The abdominal wall closure requires strong and long-acting sutures like PDS.

      In summary, the type of suture used in a surgical procedure depends on the specific needs of the patient and the surgeon’s preference. Understanding the different types of sutures and their uses is crucial in ensuring successful surgical outcomes.

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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of rectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of rectal bleeding and pain. Her physician decides to perform a proctoscopy. The results show an erythematous ulcerated plaque near the pectinate line, and biopsy results suggest squamous cell carcinoma. What is the most significant risk factor for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HPV infection

      Explanation:

      The strongest risk factor for anal cancer is HPV infection, specifically the HPV16 or HPV18 subtypes that cause SCCs of the anus. While HIV infection, immunosuppressant drugs, and a past medical history of cervical cancer are also risk factors, HPV infection is the most significant.

      Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors

      Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).

      There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.

      To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).

      In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents with a three-month history of typical dyspepsia symptoms, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a three-month history of typical dyspepsia symptoms, including epigastric pain and a 2-stone weight loss. Despite treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, he has not experienced any relief. He now reports difficulty eating solids and frequent post-meal vomiting. On examination, a palpable mass is found in the epigastrium. His full blood count shows a haemoglobin level of 85 g/L (130-180). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom. However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor.

      The patient’s symptoms should not be ignored, and prompt referral for endoscopy is necessary to rule out malignancy. Early detection and treatment of foregut malignancy can significantly improve patient outcomes. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the alarm symptoms and refer patients for further evaluation promptly. Healthcare providers should avoid prescribing PPIs as a first-line treatment for patients with alarm symptoms and instead prioritize timely referral for endoscopy.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (4/7) 57%
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