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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of muscle weakness, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of muscle weakness, fatigue, and increased urination. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 90/74 mmHg. Further investigations reveal abnormal levels of serum sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, chloride, bicarbonate, and magnesium, as well as elevated levels of urine sodium, potassium, and calcium. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiazide diuretic abuse

      Correct Answer: Bartter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient has hypochloraemic alkalosis with high urinary sodium and potassium loss. Laxative abuse and thiazide diuretic abuse are ruled out. Liddle’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, and Bartter’s syndrome are considered as possible causes. Bartter’s syndrome is a rare, autosomal recessive disorder with three types of mutations. Type I and II present in infancy with severe symptoms, while type III has a more varied clinical picture. Management involves long term potassium supplementation and avoiding dehydration. The long term prognosis is uncertain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      57.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension, tenderness in the right upper quadrant,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension, tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and pallor that has been going on for three days. Her blood count reveals a hemoglobin level of 71 g/L (normal range: 115-165), a white blood cell count of 2.5 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), and a platelet count of 80 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400). Imaging studies confirm Budd-Chiari syndrome with complete thrombosis of the hepatic vein, and flow cytometry confirms paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. What is the most appropriate treatment at this stage?

      Your Answer: Aggressive thrombolysis, low molecular weight heparin and long-term warfarinisation

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a stem cell disorder that results in a deficiency of GPI-anchored proteins, leading to intravascular haemolysis, cytopenias, and thrombosis. The condition requires aggressive management, with venous thrombosis being the primary concern. The first option for treatment should be focused on managing the thrombosis.

      While red cell concentrate support, danazol, and stem cell transplantation are all treatment options, they have no role in the acute management of PNH. Eculizimab, a monoclonal antibody, has been shown to decrease blood product support requirements and improve quality of life in PNH patients. However, it requires meningococcal vaccination before commencement and is not useful in the acute phase of the condition.

      In summary, PNH is a stem cell disorder that requires prompt management to address the risk of thrombosis. While there are various treatment options available, the focus should be on managing the acute symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      144.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout presents with a decline in health over the past three months. He reports feeling lethargic with reduced energy and has gone from using walking sticks to a frame. He experiences occasional vomiting and night sweats, and his wife is concerned about his weight loss.

      During the examination, the patient presents with clubbing and a red macular rash on his hands. He complains of itching in his fingers, and his spleen is palpable three centimeters below the costal margin. A pansystolic murmur is heard, and there are crepitations in both lungs. The patient begins to shake vigorously but remains conscious and feels clammy. He is tender across his gluteal muscles.

      Lab results show microcytosis, schistocytes, and cell fragments in the blood film. His Hb is 109 g/l, Na+ is 130 mmol/l, platelets are 276 * 109/l, and K+ is 3.7 mmol/l. His WBC count is 10.4 * 109/l, with neuts at 9.8 * 109/l and lymphs at 0.4 * 109/l. His eosin count is 0.1 * 109/l, and his CRP is 42 mg/l. His ESR is 32 mm/hr.

      An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with a rate of 102/min, and a chest x-ray reveals a globular heart and bilateral interstitial shadowing.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of strep endocarditis is gradual and may include the development of a new murmur. Distinguishing this condition from other possibilities can be challenging. For instance, congestive cardiac failure typically involves a history of heart attacks and physical signs such as elevated jugular venous pressure or swelling in the ankles, which are not evident in this case. Lymphoma, on the other hand, often presents with palpable lymph nodes in the neck, armpits, or groin, or radiological evidence of enlarged lymph nodes in the chest. Although there is evidence of an enlarged spleen in this case, there is no indication of lymphadenopathy.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      170.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lump on the right...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lump on the right side of his neck that has been present for 4 weeks. The lump measures approximately 7 mm and is located on the right side of the thyroid gland in the anterior triangle. The patient reports that the lump does not move when he sticks out his tongue, but it does move on swallowing. He denies any weight loss or night sweats.

      Laboratory tests are ordered and reveal:

      - Hemoglobin: 12.9 g/l
      - Platelets: 210 * 109/l
      - White blood cells: 6.0 * 109/l
      - Sodium: 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.1 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 33 µmol/l

      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of thyroid

      Explanation:

      For the majority of neck lumps, high-resolution ultrasound scanning is the recommended initial imaging investigation. This is because most neck lesions are specific to a particular site, and once the location of the lesion has been identified, specific ultrasound characteristics can be utilized to determine the diagnosis.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, post-partum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      71.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presents for evaluation after being diagnosed with breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presents for evaluation after being diagnosed with breast cancer. During her annual screening mammogram, it was discovered that she has dense breasts with microcalcifications measuring 1.3 cm in the left breast, but no associated mass was found. A stereotactic biopsy revealed infiltrating ductal carcinoma that is grade 2 and negative for oestrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and HER-2. The patient's family history includes a maternal aunt who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 49. The patient is otherwise healthy and her physical examination is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Left lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection followed by breast irradiation

      Correct Answer: Left lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by breast irradiation

      Explanation:

      Breast-Conserving Therapy with Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy for Focal Breast Disease

      Breast-conserving therapy with sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by radiation is the recommended treatment for patients with focal breast disease. This approach has been shown to have equivalent survival rates to mastectomy, while also resulting in improved cosmetic outcomes and less morbidity. Lumpectomy without radiation therapy has a high risk for local recurrence, making radiation an important component of treatment. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a safe and effective way to screen for metastases in the axillary lymph nodes in patients with small breast tumors. Mastectomy may be necessary if complete excision cannot be achieved or if radiation is contraindicated. Prophylactic mastectomy is only indicated for patients with BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations, and the patient’s family history does not suggest this is the case. Overall, breast-conserving therapy with sentinel lymph node biopsy and radiation is the preferred treatment for patients with focal breast disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      108.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman, who has a 9-month-old baby, presents with neck and throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who has a 9-month-old baby, presents with neck and throat pain over the area of her thyroid. She tells you that she had a flu-like illness a week or so before the pain began. Her partner, who also attends the appointment, tells you she has been nervous and agitated over the past week. On examination, there is a mild diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland and it is tender to palpation. Her BP is 141/82 mmHg, and her pulse is 85/min and regular at rest. She has a slight tremor.

      Investigations reveal the following:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 121 g/l (normal values: 115–155 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l (normal values: 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT) 170 × 109/l (normal values: 150–400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal values: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l (normal values: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) 100 μmol/l (normal values: 50–120 μmol/l)
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) <0.05 U/l
      Anti-TPO Negative
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 62 mm/hour (normal values: 1–20 mm/hour)
      fT4 24.3 pmol/l
      Radioiodine uptake on the isotope scan is decreased.

      Which of the following forms of thyroiditis is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is characterised by acute onset of thyroid tenderness after a short viral illness, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare, chronic inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland characterised by a dense fibrosis that replaces normal thyroid parenchyma. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland is gradually destroyed, while Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disease characterised by hyperthyroidism due to circulating autoantibodies. Postpartum thyroiditis is characterised by an initial period of thyrotoxicosis, followed by hypothyroidism, then recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old male presents with a 4 month history of diarrhoea. He denies...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presents with a 4 month history of diarrhoea. He denies mucous, melaena or hematochezia. On examination his abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      Investigation results are as follows:

      Hb 135 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l Bilirubin 24 µmol/l
      Platelets 360 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 105 u/l
      WBC 9.6 * 109/l Urea 5.4 mmol/l ALT 32 u/l
      Neuts 6.2 * 109/l Creatinine 66 µmol/l γGT 84 u/l
      Lymphs 3.2 * 109/l Albumin 38 g/l
      Eosino 0.1 * 109/l
      CRP <4 mg/l

      SeHCAT test 7 day retention value = 7% Normal > 15%

      Faecal calprotectin 45 ug/g (normal range 0-110)

      What would be the next step in the management?

      Your Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Bile salt malabsorption is typically identified by the presence of diarrhea. Cholestyramine, a bile salt sequestrant, is the recommended treatment for this condition.

      Understanding Bile-Acid Malabsorption

      Bile-acid malabsorption is a condition that can cause chronic diarrhea. It can be primary, which means that it is caused by excessive production of bile acid, or secondary, which is due to an underlying gastrointestinal disorder that reduces bile acid absorption. This condition can lead to steatorrhea and malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K.

      Secondary causes of bile-acid malabsorption are often seen in patients with ileal disease, such as Crohn’s disease. Other secondary causes include coeliac disease, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth, and cholecystectomy.

      To diagnose bile-acid malabsorption, the test of choice is SeHCAT, which is a nuclear medicine test that uses a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid. Scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention or loss of radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT.

      The management of bile-acid malabsorption involves the use of bile acid sequestrants, such as cholestyramine. These medications can help to bind bile acids in the intestine, reducing their concentration and improving symptoms. With proper management, individuals with bile-acid malabsorption can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with confusion on the ward. Upon examination, he has a heart rate of 100 beats per minute and stable blood pressure at 122/85 mmHg. He appears drowsy and confused, with ascites and general abdominal tenderness. Asterixis is also present. The diagnosis is hepatic encephalopathy caused by spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which of the following management steps is the least appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Correction of hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Dietary protein restriction

      Explanation:

      Management of Hepatic Encephalopathy

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. While protein restriction was once thought to be beneficial, there is little evidence to support this approach and it may actually worsen malnutrition in these patients. Correction of hypoglycemia is important, with 10% dextrose being a common treatment option, although more severe cases may require 20-50% dextrose. A full septic screen, including an ascitic tap if appropriate, should be performed before starting empirical antibiotic therapy, as signs of sepsis may be absent in critically ill patients. Antibiotics may also be used to reduce the concentration of ammoniagenic bacteria in the gut, with rifaximin being a commonly used option. Adequate plasma expansion and hydration are important in preventing renal failure, while bowel cleansing can help reduce ammonia-producing substrates from the gut. Finally, lactulose is a key treatment option, with patients typically being started on 30-50 ml qds orally or via nasogastric tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man who is HIV positive has been on anti-retroviral therapy for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is HIV positive has been on anti-retroviral therapy for the past 2 years and has been doing well. However, he has recently developed abdominal distension and discomfort in the right iliac fossa. Upon examination, a mass is palpable in the right lower quadrant. A biopsy reveals a B cell lymphoma with sheets of medium-sized lymphoid cells exhibiting high proliferative activity and a starry sky appearance. What is the most probable cytogenetic abnormality that will be detected?

      Your Answer: t(11;14)

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Burkitt’s Lymphoma

      Burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of high-grade B-cell neoplasm that can occur in two major forms. The endemic or African form typically affects the maxilla or mandible, while the sporadic form is commonly found in the abdomen, particularly in patients with HIV. The development of Burkitt’s lymphoma is strongly associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14), and the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in its development.

      Microscopy findings of Burkitt’s lymphoma show a starry sky appearance, characterized by lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumor cells. Management of this condition involves chemotherapy, which can produce a rapid response but may also cause tumor lysis syndrome. To reduce the risk of this occurring, rasburicase, a recombinant version of urate oxidase, is often given before chemotherapy. Complications of tumor lysis syndrome include hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and acute renal failure.

      In summary, Burkitt’s lymphoma is a serious condition that can occur in two major forms and is associated with c-myc gene translocation and the Epstein-Barr virus. Microscopy findings show a characteristic appearance, and management involves chemotherapy with the use of rasburicase to reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. According to...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. According to his mother, he has been experiencing loss of appetite and abdominal pain for the past two days, along with significant weight loss and fatigue over the past six months. The patient has no previous family history, but his older sister was recently diagnosed with pernicious anaemia.

      Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic and tachycardia with a central capillary refill time of six seconds. Abdominal examination reveals inconsistent tenderness without obvious signs of localised peritonism.

      Initial investigations show abnormal results for urea, creatinine, sodium, potassium, fingerpick blood glucose, fingerpick blood ketones, and venous blood gas. Portable chest x-ray and electrocardiogram show no significant abnormalities.

      What is the appropriate immediate management for this 20-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: 1000 mL 0.9 % saline

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      126.7
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  • Question 11 - A 66-year-old woman has had more than three blood pressure readings equal to...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old woman has had more than three blood pressure readings equal to or greater than 175/65 mmHg during the past month. She is obese, with a body mass index of 34 kg/m2.

      On further questioning, she admits to shortness of breath on minimal exercise, and occasionally she wakes in the night very short of breath and has to open the windows. She does not report suffering from any excessive sleepiness in the daytime, and is able to maintain her job as a busy personal assistant.

      What would be the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Antihypertensive Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with Grade II Hypertension and Heart Failure

      When selecting an antihypertensive medication for a patient with grade II hypertension and heart failure, it is important to consider their individual characteristics and potential complications. In this case, the patient’s obesity and shortness of breath suggest left ventricular dysfunction, making ramipril the best choice. Additionally, meta-analyses have shown that ACE inhibitors like ramipril are associated with the lowest incidence of diabetes.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE guidelines recommend clinic blood pressure and subsequent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, as well as screening for complications like left ventricular hypertrophy or previous cardiovascular events, proteinuria, renal function, and hypertensive retinal changes.

      While lifestyle modifications should be the first line of treatment, medication may also be necessary. Beta-blockers like atenolol are not recommended for initial treatment due to conflicting evidence on their benefit and increased risk of new-onset type II diabetes. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide may also not be the best option for a patient with signs of left ventricular impairment. Alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also not recommended due to worse outcomes observed in clinical trials.

      Overall, selecting the best antihypertensive medication for a patient with grade II hypertension and heart failure requires careful consideration of their individual characteristics and potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.3
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Wilson's disease. As you review her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Wilson's disease. As you review her blood test results, which of the following would you anticipate finding in a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer: Raised free serum copper

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s Disease and Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

      Wilson’s disease is a condition that is characterized by reduced levels of caeruloplasmin, as well as raised levels of urinary and free serum copper. This condition is caused by a genetic mutation that affects the body’s ability to properly metabolize copper, leading to a buildup of the mineral in various organs and tissues. If left untreated, Wilson’s disease can cause serious damage to the liver, brain, and other vital organs.

      On the other hand, primary biliary cirrhosis is a condition that is characterized by a positive anti-mitochondrial antibody. This condition is caused by an autoimmune response that targets the small bile ducts in the liver, leading to inflammation and scarring. Over time, this can cause the liver to become damaged and eventually fail.

      It is important to note that while Wilson’s disease and primary biliary cirrhosis share some similarities, they are two distinct conditions that require different treatment approaches. If you suspect that you may be suffering from either of these conditions, it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old woman presents with abdominal swelling and constipation, which has been progressively...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with abdominal swelling and constipation, which has been progressively worsening over the past three weeks. She was admitted to the gynaecology ward due to her inability to manage at home any longer. Prior to admission, her performance status was 0. An ultrasound of her abdomen revealed a large pelvic mass and gross ascites, which has since been drained. The cytology report shows adenocarcinoma cells with occasional psammoma bodies. A CT scan of her chest, abdomen and pelvis reveals an 8 cm mass arising from the left ovary with multiple deposits throughout the peritoneum suggestive of metastatic spread. What is the recommended first-line chemotherapy treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carboplatin and paclitaxel combination

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Locally Advanced Ovarian Cancer

      Patients with locally advanced stage 3 ovarian cancer require urgent treatment to prevent the re-accumulation of ascites. The most effective treatment option for these patients is a combination of carboplatin and paclitaxel chemotherapy. According to NICE guidelines, patients with good performance status should be offered this treatment as it offers an 8% increased response rate compared to single-agent carboplatin chemotherapy.

      It is important to note that Caelyx is not recommended as a first-line treatment for ovarian cancer. Instead, it is used as a second-line treatment for relapsed ovarian cancer. Therefore, patients with locally advanced stage 3 ovarian cancer should be treated with combination carboplatin and paclitaxel chemotherapy to achieve the best possible outcome. Proper treatment can help prevent the re-accumulation of ascites and improve the patient’s overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe nausea, vomiting,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. He recently attended a gathering where 15 out of 20 attendees have experienced similar symptoms. Upon examination, he seems dehydrated but his vital signs are stable. He has no medical history and his physical exam is unremarkable. The suspected diagnosis is norovirus. What test should be performed?

      Your Answer: Faecal or vomitus viral PCR

      Explanation:

      To confirm norovirus infection, the appropriate test is faecal or vomitus viral PCR. While ELISA tests can detect antibodies, they lack sensitivity and specificity and are rarely used in clinical settings. Norovirus does not produce a toxin, so there is no test for norovirus toxin. PCR testing of serum is likely to be negative since the virus is not typically present in the bloodstream. Norovirus is a viral cause of gastroenteritis that is often linked to large outbreaks during the winter.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of difficulty in swallowing. She...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of difficulty in swallowing. She had been well until 20 months ago when she noticed she could not hear as well in her left ear. Shortly after this, she noticed she could hear her heart beating loudly in her left ear. These problems had continued over the last year and a half but in the last 6 months she had also noticed problems in swallowing, particularly liquids. Her husband had commented that over the same time period her voice was much hoarser than it had been previously.

      On examination she had a hoarse voice, wasting of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius on the left and a decreased gag reflex. Rinne’s test showed AC > BC on the right and BC > AC on left (AC = air conduction, BC = bone conduction); Weber’s test lateralised to the left ear. The remainder of the neurological examination was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glomus jugulare tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Cranial Nerve Lesions: Glomus Jugulare Tumor

      Glomus jugulare tumor is the most likely cause of cranial nerve lesions involving IX, X, and XI, as well as conductive hearing loss and pulsatile tinnitus in the left ear. This slow-growing, vascular tumor is rare, with an annual incidence of approximately one in a million, but it is the most frequently found tumor of the middle ear. It is more common in women, and the age of onset is typically between 40 and 70 years of age.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as acoustic neuroma, multiple sclerosis, carcinomatous meningitis, and motor neuron disease, are less likely based on the absence of certain symptoms or the presence of lateralizing signs. Acoustic neuroma, for example, can involve the cochlear nerve, vestibular nerve, trigeminal nerve, and facial nerve, but it typically presents with tinnitus and hearing loss, which are absent in this case. Multiple sclerosis often presents with optic neuritis, which is also absent here, and motor neuron disease typically presents with a mix of upper and lower motor neuron signs without any sensory deficit. Carcinomatous meningitis is also less likely due to the prolonged course of symptoms and lateralizing signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You assess a 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who is currently on...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who is currently on metformin 2 g per day, gliclazide 160 mg per day, and ramipril for renoprotection. The patient's recent HbA1c was 68.31 mmol/mol (8.4%) and blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Upon reviewing the patient's eye photograph, you observe dot-and-blot haemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and micro-aneurysms that are not in close proximity to the macula. What is the most effective treatment option to decrease the likelihood of further deterioration of the patient's diabetic retinopathy in the long term, given these findings?

      Your Answer: Increasing gliclazide to 320 mg/day

      Correct Answer: Gradual transition to insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      Optimizing Treatment for a Patient with Type 2 Diabetes and Hypertension

      Introduction:
      This patient has type 2 diabetes and hypertension. While his blood pressure is relatively well controlled, his blood glucose levels need improvement to reduce the progression of retinopathy.

      Gradual Transition to Insulin Therapy:
      To achieve the target HbA1c of 53.0 mmol/mol (7.0%), a gradual transition to insulin therapy may be necessary.

      Addition of Valsartan to Blood Pressure regimen:
      Adding an ARB to an ACE inhibitor may not significantly improve blood pressure control and may increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Therefore, it should be avoided.

      Addition of Amlodipine to Blood Pressure regimen:
      The next step in further intensification of blood pressure control is adding a calcium antagonist such as amlodipine. However, only diltiazem has been shown to significantly impact proteinuria among the calcium antagonist class.

      Laser Therapy:
      While laser therapy can reduce the progression of retinopathy, there are currently no high-risk features identified on retinal photography.

      Increasing Gliclazide Dose:
      The dose-response curve for gliclazide above 160 mg is fairly flat, so increasing the sulfonylurea dose to 320 mg/day may not provide significant value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old American man is seen in the HIV Clinic. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old American man is seen in the HIV Clinic. He has a CD4 count of 120 × 106/L and was started on prophylactic co-trimoxazole 2 weeks ago. Unfortunately, this resulted in a severe rash and deranged liver function tests and was discontinued.
      He has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency and is a type 2 diabetic. His only current medication is metformin 500 mg bd.
      What is the most appropriate prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)?

      Your Answer: Oral clindamycin

      Correct Answer: Pentamidine nebuliser

      Explanation:

      Patients with a CD4 count below 200 × 106/l should be offered prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP). The first-line treatment is oral co-trimoxazole, but if this cannot be tolerated, second-line treatment is oral dapsone, which is inappropriate for patients with G6PD deficiency. Third-line prophylaxis is with nebulised pentamidine. Oral pentamidine is only effective in nebulised form or delivered intravenously. Co-trimoxazole cannot be administered by nebuliser and may cause haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. Dapsone, primaquine, methylthioninium chloride, nitrofurantoin, quinolones, and sulfonamides have a definite risk of causing haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. Clindamycin can be used in the treatment of PCP but not for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of progressive...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of progressive shoulder pain. She reports difficulty getting dressed in the morning due to the pain. She also feels weak and fatigued and has lost around 2 kg in weight. There is no significant medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.8 °C, heart rate of 90 bpm, and blood pressure of 127/77 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, and breath sounds are vesicular bilaterally. Abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable organomegaly. Bilateral proximal muscle stiffness is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Proximal Muscle Pain and Stiffness in an Elderly Patient

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is an inflammatory condition that typically affects women over 60 years old. It presents with proximal muscle pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. PMR should not be confused with polymyositis, which causes proximal muscle weakness rather than pain or stiffness. Treatment for PMR involves long-term steroid therapy.

      Hyperthyroidism and other endocrine diseases can also cause proximal myopathy, but this patient’s symptoms suggest an inflammatory cause rather than myopathy. Adhesive capsulitis, or frozen shoulder, typically affects only one shoulder, while bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness should raise suspicion of an alternative diagnosis. Fibromyalgia, a chronic pain syndrome that predominantly affects women, is not an inflammatory disease and does not present with morning stiffness.

      Polymyositis, an inflammatory muscle disease, can cause proximal muscle ache, but morning stiffness is not a feature. If visual symptoms are present, giant cell arteritis should also be considered, as it has similarities with PMR. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of proximal muscle pain and stiffness in an elderly patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      70.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic, referred by her yoga instructor. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic, referred by her yoga instructor. She is typically in good health and is currently in the midst of a 4-week yoga teacher training program. She has noticed dark urine for the past few days and is concerned that she may have a serious condition. She describes the urine as the color of iced tea. She denies having a fever and has no other complaints or discomfort aside from the dark urine.

      The patient appears to be in good physical condition and is not in any obvious distress. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.0 °C, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, and a pulse of 70 bpm. Her extremities are non-tender and non-edematous, and the rest of her physical exam is unremarkable.

      The following laboratory results are obtained:
      - Creatinine (Cr): 180 µmol/l (normal range: 50 - 120 µmol/l)
      - Urea: 12.0 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l)
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (normal range: 135 - 175 g/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0 – 11.0 × 109/l)

      What would be the most appropriate initial test to perform for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: Urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Urinalysis is the most appropriate initial test for investigating the cause of haematuria, as it is a simple and effective way to confirm that the discolored urine is due to blood. Haematuria can have various causes, including stones, haematological disorders, infection, tumours, trauma, and certain treatments. In this case, the patient’s vigorous exercise routine puts him at risk of rhabdomyolysis, which can be detected by haemoglobin on a urine dipstick test but not by red blood cells on microscopy. Other potential causes of haematuria, such as renal stones or urological malignancy, are unlikely in a young, healthy man without pain. A KUB X-ray can be useful for identifying calcium-containing renal stones, but it is not necessary in this case. A CT scan of the abdomen is not recommended as it would expose the patient to unnecessary radiation and is unlikely to reveal any relevant information. The ESR may be elevated in infectious or inflammatory causes of rhabdomyolysis, but it is not specific to this condition. A renal ultrasound is not helpful in detecting rhabdomyolysis and is mainly used to assess kidney size and exclude hydronephrosis as a cause of acute kidney impairment. Overall, maintaining adequate hydration is the main treatment for haematuria in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      153.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old female presents with a cosmetic concern of a lump in her...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old female presents with a cosmetic concern of a lump in her neck. She reports no other symptoms and her past medical history includes hypertension and constipation. On examination, her neck lump is hard, non-tender and measures 2cm by 1 cm, moving with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. Her blood pressure is elevated at 213/130 mmHg. After an outpatient ultrasound and fine needle aspiration, she is admitted for further investigation due to persistent hypertension. She develops a mild headache which resolves on its own. A positive urinary metanephrine collection is obtained. What investigation is likely to produce the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genetic testing for RET mutation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.

      The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      44.5
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypertension during her first pregnancy. At...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypertension during her first pregnancy. At 32 weeks gestation, her blood pressure was recorded as 155/108 mmHg. Two weeks later, her readings were 159/109 mmHg and 150/100 mmHg. Despite this, her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and she has not shown any signs of proteinuria. She has no other medical history and is not taking any regular medication except for folic acid. As her doctor, what medication would you recommend starting at 34 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Management of Gestational Hypertension with Moderate Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a condition that can occur during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure. The severity of gestational hypertension is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the blood pressure readings. Moderate hypertension, which is defined as a blood pressure reading of 150/100-159/109 mmHg, is managed first line with oral labetalol, methyldopa, or nifedipine. The goal of treatment is to keep the blood pressure below 150/80-100 mmHg.

      To monitor the condition, blood pressure should be measured at least twice a week. Additionally, proteinuria should be tested at each visit using an automated reagent-strip reading device or urinary protein:creatinine ratio. Kidney function, electrolytes, FBC, transaminases, and bilirubin should also be tested to ensure that the condition is not causing any other complications. By closely monitoring and managing gestational hypertension with moderate hypertension, the risk of complications can be reduced for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.9
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old obese HGV driver, who takes BD Novomix 30 insulin, visits your...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old obese HGV driver, who takes BD Novomix 30 insulin, visits your outpatient clinic seeking clarification on driving regulations he overheard while dining with colleagues. He is extremely anxious and tearful, fearing that his diabetes may cost him his livelihood.

      The patient was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes 9 years ago and became insulin dependent 2 years ago. He reports good compliance with insulin every day. However, 18 months ago, he experienced dizziness after exercising and taking the same units of insulin. A spot blood glucose check revealed a reading of 2.8 mmol/l, which improved immediately after drinking Lucozade that he carried with him. He has no other medical history and no visual field or peripheral nerve impairments.

      What advice would you give him regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Can continue driving, review in 1 year

      Explanation:

      The patient is cleared to operate type 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles, but is advised to reconsider their profession as they are not permitted to drive type 2 vehicles like lorries and HGVs.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old HIV-positive man presents with a two-week history of deteriorating headache, facial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old HIV-positive man presents with a two-week history of deteriorating headache, facial weakness, and visual hallucinations. He also reports experiencing eye pain for the first time. An MRI scan of his head shows multiple ring-shaped lesions that enhance with contrast. He is under regular follow-up at the HIV clinic, and his most recent CD4 count was 150 cells/mm³. What is the immediate treatment that should be initiated?

      Your Answer: Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasmosis: A Protozoan Infection

      Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, or broken skin. The disease is commonly found in cats, but other animals like rats can also carry it. The infection is usually asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients may experience fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, toxoplasmosis can cause meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. Serology is the preferred diagnostic test, and treatment is only necessary for severe infections or immunosuppressed patients.

      In immunosuppressed patients, toxoplasmosis can cause cerebral toxoplasmosis, which accounts for half of cerebral lesions in HIV patients. Symptoms include headache, confusion, and drowsiness, and CT scans may show single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect. Treatment involves pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine for at least six weeks. Immunocompromised patients may also develop chorioretinitis due to toxoplasmosis.

      Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the infection is transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta. It can cause neurological damage, cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, ophthalmic damage, retinopathy, and cataracts in the unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      37.5
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  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis presents for her annual check-up. She reports being able to walk 100 meters before experiencing shortness of breath and occasionally experiences chest pain after eating rich meals. She is a non-smoker and takes aspirin, ramipril, and a statin while engaging in regular daily walks. During examination, a loud S1 heart sound and mid-diastolic murmur are heard, and her face has a red flush in the cheeks. No JVP is visible, and there is no edema.

      Lab results show a hemoglobin level of 104 g/l, platelets at 450 * 109/l, and a CRP of 14 mg/l. The ECG shows sinus rhythm and left ventricular hypertrophy, while the chest X-ray reveals an enlarged cardiac shadow with loss of the aorto-pulmonary window. The most recent ECHO shows a mitral valve cross-sectional area of 0.8cm2 and an LV ejection fraction of 60%, compared to 1.1cm2 and 62% respectively from one year ago.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to cardiothoracic surgery

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention is necessary for a patient with mitral stenosis and a valve cross sectional area of less than 1cm2. Therefore, this woman should be referred for immediate surgery. Furosemide is not recommended as there are no signs of overload. Continuing ECHO surveillance would not alter her condition. The patient’s chest pains do not appear to be cardiac-related, and it may be beneficial to try omeprazole.

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy for mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      71.3
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with drowsiness. She had been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with drowsiness. She had been experiencing headaches, nausea, and fevers over the past day. About a week ago, she had a period of feeling unwell with fever, headache, and myalgia, but it resolved on its own. She recently returned from a camping trip in Poland with friends. Her medical history includes only asthma, which she manages with salbutamol as needed.

      Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 14 with neck stiffness but no focal neurology. Her lungs are clear, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is no rash.

      After a lumbar puncture, mildly elevated white blood cells are found. An HIV test comes back negative. The patient is started on ceftriaxone, dexamethasone, and aciclovir.

      Although the CSF culture and PCR are negative, a sample sent to the infectious disease laboratory comes back positive for flavivirus antibodies. What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supportive management

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and travel history do not fit the typical presentation of viral encephalitis, suggesting an alternative cause. While IV pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine and folinic acid are used to treat cerebral toxoplasmosis, this is unlikely given the patient’s medical history and HIV-negative status. IV quinine dihydrochloride is used for severe or complicated falciparum malaria, but this is not a likely diagnosis based on the patient’s lack of exposure to malaria-risk areas and absence of jaundice.

      Tick-borne Encephalitis: A Viral Infection Transmitted by Ticks

      Tick-borne encephalitis is a viral infection caused by the Flavivirus and transmitted by ticks that are hosted by native wildlife. The virus is transmitted to the host through the bite of an infected tick. The infection manifests as a biphasic illness, with the first phase characterized by constitutional upset, including headaches, myalgia, and fevers. This is followed by an asymptomatic period before the disease progresses to phase two, which is characterized by symptoms of central nervous system involvement, such as meningitis or encephalitis. The incubation period can be up to a month, and long-term neurological sequelae may persist for months to years following infection.

      There are three species of flavivirus implicated in tick-borne encephalitis: European, Far Eastern, and Siberian. The Far Eastern species typically causes the most severe illness, often progressing rapidly to central nervous system involvement with no asymptomatic period. Diagnosis is made on the basis of clinical suspicion, with confirmation via cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis demonstrating specific IgM or IgG antibodies. Treatment is supportive, with the addition of doxycycline or a cephalosporin advised if Lyme disease is considered a differential diagnosis until confirmation via CSF sampling can be obtained.

      A vaccination is available and recommended for those travelling to endemic areas and planning to engage in high-risk outdoor activities, such as hiking in rural forested areas and/or grasslands. Precautions to avoid tick bites are recommended to all travellers to endemic areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      86.5
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old male patient presents with acute severe ulcerative colitis. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male patient presents with acute severe ulcerative colitis. He has been experiencing frequent episodes of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pains. Despite being on a reducing dose of steroids at home, he failed to respond. After 5 days of treatment with intravenous hydrocortisone, he developed tachycardia, hypotension, and worsening abdominal pain.

      Investigations:
      - Hb: 136 g/L
      - WBC: 10 * 10^9/L
      - Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
      - Serum albumin: 31 g/L
      - Serum CRP: 68 mg/L

      What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

      Your Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      When a patient with ulcerative colitis presents with severe systemic symptoms such as acute tachycardia and possible abdominal pain (which may be masked by steroids), it is crucial to quickly rule out any complications. In such cases, a CT abdomen is the preferred first-line investigation as it is the most effective way to identify perforation. While other tests such as CMV serum PCR, faecal calprotectin, and stool for Clostridium difficile may be useful in subsequent evaluations, they are not as urgent as a CT scan in ruling out a surgical emergency. Indications for surgery in the acute setting include failure of medical management, perforation, toxic megacolon, severe haemorrhage, and malignancy.

      Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      120.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 63-year-old woman presents with persistent hypertension and obesity, along with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman presents with persistent hypertension and obesity, along with complaints of excessive pigmentation and headaches. In the 1970s, she underwent investigation for obesity, mild diabetes mellitus, and hypertension, which led to a bilateral adrenalectomy - the treatment of choice at the time. Since then, she has been on hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone treatment. On examination, she displays hyperpigmentation and striae, with a blood pressure reading of 175/100 mmHg. Visual fields appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Nelson's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s Syndrome

      Nelson’s syndrome is a condition that affects around 30% of patients who have undergone adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. This condition is believed to be caused by the progression of a pre-existing pituitary adenoma after the removal of hypercortisolism, which restrains the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). As a result, plasma ACTH levels become significantly elevated. To determine the extent of the tumor, pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used.

      In summary, Nelson’s syndrome is a condition that occurs in some patients who have undergone adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. It is caused by the progression of a pre-existing pituitary adenoma due to the removal of hypercortisolism. Elevated levels of ACTH are observed, and pituitary MRI is used to determine the extent of the tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism at 28 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism at 28 weeks of gestation. She reports feeling anxious, experiencing palpitations, heat intolerance, and difficulty maintaining her weight during pregnancy. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg, with a regular pulse of 100/min. No goitre is observed during neck examination.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 122 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 88 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) <0.05 μU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Anti-thyroid antibodies +ve

      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Pregnancy: Risks and Treatment Options

      Thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy poses risks for both the mother and the fetus. While untreated maternal thyrotoxicosis can lead to complications, thionamides used to manage the condition may cross the placenta and cause fetal goitre and hypothyroidism. To avoid this, patients are usually given a dose that maintains their T4 levels within the upper limit of the normal range. Carbimazole is a common treatment option, but it has been associated with rare reports of fetal abnormalities. Therefore, propylthioracil is often used in the first trimester, with a switch to carbimazole later on.

      Propylthiouracil is not recommended in late pregnancy due to reports of maternal hepatotoxicity. Radioiodine is contraindicated in pregnancy as it accumulates in both the fetal and maternal thyroid gland. Propranolol can alleviate symptoms of thyrotoxicosis but does not significantly reduce the risk of miscarriage. Prednisolone has no significant impact on the progression of autoimmune thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy and is not used for this purpose. Overall, the management of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits of each treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 49-year-old male presented with general fatigue and nausea. He denies having fever,...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male presented with general fatigue and nausea. He denies having fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or any pains. He appeared dehydrated, but otherwise, observations and physical examination were within normal limits.

      Blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Urea 18 mmol/l
      Creatinine 162 µmol/l
      Lithium 1.6 mmol/l (0.4-1.0 mmol/l)

      Looking back at past results from 3 weeks ago, his renal function was in the normal range.

      He has a history of bipolar disorder, diet-controlled diabetes, and hypertension. He has been compliant with his lithium tablets and undergoing regular checks for the levels.

      The patient revealed that his General Practitioner had recently started him on a new tablet 2 weeks ago.

      What is the most likely precipitant for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides can cause lithium toxicity, while medications that impair renal function or induce hyponatremia can lead to acute renal impairment and lithium toxicity. These medications include ACE inhibitors, diuretics (especially thiazides like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide), and NSAIDs. The target concentrations of lithium are 0.6-1.0 mmol/L for acute episodes of mania, hypomania, or depression (0.4-0.8 mmol/L for the elderly) and 0.4-0.8 mmol/L for prophylaxis of bipolar affective disorder. The toxic range usually starts at levels above 1.5 mmol/L, but it may begin at levels above 1.0 mmol/L, and levels above 2 mmol/L require urgent treatment.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      51.5
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a sudden painless loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, the following is observed:

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medical Ophthalmology
      21.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (3/4) 75%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (6/8) 75%
Oncology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/4) 75%
Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Medical Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Passmed