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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient with a mass in the stomach is diagnosed with a GIST. What is the origin cell of GISTs?
The answer to this question lies in understanding the cellular makeup of GISTs.Your Answer: Chief cells
Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of Cajal
Explanation:Gastric GISTs and their Origins
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are commonly found in the stomach, with the interstitial cells of Cajal within Auerbach’s plexus believed to be their source. However, GISTs can also occur in other locations, with 60% found in the small bowel, 30% in the esophagus, and 10% in the rectum.
Initially, GISTs were misidentified as tumors originating from smooth muscle cells, such as leiomyosarcomas or leiomyomas. This is because there is no striated muscle within the stomach. However, further research has shown that GISTs are actually a distinct type of tumor that arises from the interstitial cells of Cajal, which are responsible for regulating the contractions of the gastrointestinal tract.
In summary, GISTs are a type of tumor that can occur in various locations within the gastrointestinal tract, with the stomach being the most common site. They originate from the interstitial cells of Cajal and were previously misidentified as smooth muscle tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old unemployed man presents to hospital with complaints of weight loss and weakness. He has difficulty climbing stairs and rising from his armchair at home. He lives alone and drinks 50 units of alcohol per week while smoking 20 cigarettes daily for 40 years. His blood pressure is 197/98 mmHg. Upon investigation, his Hb is 99 g/L, WBC is 9.8 ×109/L, platelets are 350 ×109/L, sodium is 145 mmol/L, potassium is 2.8 mmol/L, urea is 4.1 mmol/L, creatinine is 120 µmol/L, bicarbonate is 35 mmol/L, and glucose is 12.9 mmol/L. An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.26. Which investigation would be most useful in determining the cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Acetylcholine receptor antibodies
Correct Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:The patient has hypertension, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, high blood glucose, and weakness. Cushing’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis due to ectopic ACTH secretion by a small cell carcinoma of the lung. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by AChR autoantibodies. Muscle biopsy may be required for myopathy diagnosis. Renin and aldosterone levels may explain hypertension but not weakness. Guanidine hydrochloride was used for Lambert Eaton Syndrome but is no longer in use due to adverse effects. Osteomalacia can also cause proximal myopathy and vitamin D levels should be checked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, weakness, exertional dyspnea, xerophthalmia, and xerostomia. He has marked bilateral facial swelling and hepatomegaly, and a few fine scattered crepitations are heard upon chest auscultation. The following investigations were conducted: negative rheumatoid factor, negative antinuclear antibody, and negative extractable nuclear antigens (ENA). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome
Explanation:Infiltrative Lymphocytic Syndrome: A Rare Condition with Various Manifestations
Infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS) is a rare condition that can mimic Sjogren’s syndrome with symptoms such as parotid gland enlargement and dryness of the eyes and mouth. However, unlike Sjogren’s syndrome, patients with DILS often do not have positive autoantibodies. In addition to these glandular symptoms, patients with DILS may also experience weakness due to a peripheral motor neuropathy. Other possible manifestations of DILS include aseptic meningitis and cranial nerve palsies. The most serious complication of DILS is lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis.
Overall, DILS is a complex condition that can present with a variety of symptoms and complications. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this condition and consider it in the differential diagnosis of patients with glandular symptoms and other manifestations. Early recognition and treatment can help improve outcomes for patients with DILS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with complaints of feeling faint, light-headed, and nauseous about two hours after eating meals. Upon measuring her blood glucose levels during these episodes, she found them to be around 2 mmol/l. Consuming sugar-containing foods or beverages has helped alleviate her symptoms. She has a past medical history of morbid obesity, for which she underwent a Roux en Y reconstruction, resulting in a significant reduction in her BMI from 45 to 29 over a year. She was previously diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which was managed with metformin and gliclazide, but she has since been able to discontinue all medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Early dumping syndrome
Correct Answer: Late dumping syndrome
Explanation:Bariatric surgery, specifically Roux en Y reconstruction, can lead to hypoglycemia in some patients. This condition typically occurs one to three hours after consuming meals high in carbohydrates and may present months or even years after surgery. Treatment usually involves dietary modifications. Early dumping syndrome, which causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and nausea, is a more common complication of bariatric surgery. It is unlikely that the patient’s history includes gliclazide abuse due to the absence of any psychiatric symptoms. While insulinoma can also cause hypoglycemia, it typically presents in the morning and is associated with weight gain.
Post Gastrectomy Syndromes: Effects and Variations
Post gastrectomy syndromes can differ depending on whether a total or partial gastrectomy is performed. The type of reconstruction also plays a role in the functional outcomes. Roux en Y reconstruction is generally the most effective. For distal gastrectomy, a gastrojejunostomy reconstruction with retrocolic plane tunneled jejunal limbs can improve gastric emptying.
Post gastrectomy syndromes can include small capacity leading to early satiety, dumping syndrome, bile gastritis, afferent loop syndrome, efferent loop syndrome, anaemia due to B12 deficiency, and metabolic bone disease. These syndromes can have varying degrees of impact on the patient’s quality of life and require careful management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.
During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.
Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures with no growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis with no blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blenorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.
The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents to the neurology outpatient department with a history of recurrent bouts of unsteadiness and vomiting over the last 10 years, with partial resolution. He has also had episodes of visual problems, which he describes as the sudden loss of vision in the right eye, with an almost complete recovery of vision over the course of the next few weeks. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and is hypertensive and is generally non-compliant with his treatment. He is also a smoker with a 50 pack year history.
His medication includes glimepiride 2mg daily and metformin 500mg TDS. He also takes telmisartan 40 mg daily.
On examination, he has nystagmus in the right eye with the fast component towards the right. His gait is ataxic and he has evidence of spasticity in both lower limbs with exaggerated reflexes and bilateral ankle clonus. Fundoscopic examination revealed a pale optic disc.
MRI brain shows diffuse lesions in multiple sites. The report queried demyelinating plaques vs multiple infarcts.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 67-year-old male?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI spinal cord
Explanation:There are several cases that share similar symptoms with MS, but they are not exclusive to MS. These cases include Lyme disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, neurosarcoidosis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, syphilis, primary central nervous system lymphoma, Sjögren’s syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome, meningeal carcinomatosis, and neuromyelitis optica.
Investigating Multiple Sclerosis
Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).
MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.
VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.
Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to the renal outpatient clinic with a gradual decline in renal function over the past 4 years. His creatinine level has risen to 482 µmol/l and his estimated glomerular filtration rate is at 7 ml/min. He has also noticed a decrease in urine output over the past 3 months. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a laparotomy for a duodenal ulcer 35 years ago. He also has an unrepaired incisional hernia. During the consultation, renal replacement therapies are discussed with the patient. He expresses a strong desire for the least restrictive option, but acknowledges that his health is the top priority. A recent ultrasound revealed bilateral atrophic kidneys with extensive bilateral iliac vessel calcification. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:Understanding Renal Replacement Therapy
Chronic kidney disease affects a significant portion of the population, with around 10% of those with CKD developing renal failure. For patients with renal failure, the options are either renal replacement therapy (RRT) or conservative management. RRT involves taking over the physiology of the kidneys, and there are several types available, including haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplant. The decision about which RRT option to choose should be made jointly by the patient and their healthcare team, taking into account various factors such as predicted quality of life, life expectancy, patient preference, and co-existing medical conditions.
Haemodialysis is the most common form of RRT, where the blood is filtered through a dialysis machine in the hospital. Peritoneal dialysis is another option where the filtration occurs within the patient’s abdomen. Renal transplantation involves receiving a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. Each option has its own set of complications, such as site infection, peritonitis, DVT/PE, and more.
Without adequate RRT, the symptoms of renal failure can be severe, including breathlessness, fatigue, insomnia, pruritus, poor appetite, swelling, weakness, weight gain/loss, abdominal cramps, nausea, muscle cramps, headaches, cognitive impairment, anxiety, depression, and sexual dysfunction. It is crucial for patients and their healthcare team to carefully consider the best RRT option for their individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with several months of muscle cramps and weakness all over his body. He also reports having an increased thirst and a strong desire for salty foods. He has no significant medical history.
During the examination, the boy appears to be in good health. His vital signs are as follows:
Respiratory rate of 18/min
Blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg
Heart rate of 78/min
Blood tests are performed, and the results are as follows:
Na+ 129 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Magnesium 0.54 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
A urine dipstick test shows no glucose or protein present. A urine sample is sent to the lab for further analysis:
Urine calcium/creatinine ratio 0.05 (<0.14)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gitelman syndrome
Explanation:The patient in this scenario is likely suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome, a rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the thiazide-sensitive sodium-chloride symporter in the distal convoluted tubule. This condition presents with symptoms similar to those caused by excessive thiazide diuretics, including hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hyponatraemia, but patients are normotensive and display hypocalciuria. Treatment involves salt replacement.
Bartter syndrome is a similar condition caused by a mutation in the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in the loop of Henle, which mimics loop diuretic abuse. This condition also presents with hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and normotension, but crucially presents with hypercalciuria instead of hypocalciuria.
Dent disease is a rare X-linked recessive condition that affects the proximal tubules, causing tubular proteinuria, hypercalciuria, and glycosuria. It is one of the causes of Fanconi syndrome, which presents with polyuria, polydipsia, proteinuria, glycosuria, hypokalaemia, and hypophosphataemia. However, the patient in this scenario is more likely suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome.
Understanding Gitelman’s Syndrome
Gitelman’s syndrome is a condition that arises from a defect in the thiazide-sensitive Na+ Cl- cotransporter located in the distal convoluted tubule. This defect leads to a range of symptoms that include normotension, hypokalaemia, hypocalciuria, hypomagnesaemia, and metabolic alkalosis.
In simpler terms, Gitelman’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys’ ability to reabsorb certain minerals, leading to imbalances in the body. These imbalances can cause weakness, muscle cramps, and irregular heartbeats. However, unlike other kidney disorders, Gitelman’s syndrome does not cause high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is admitted to hospice with metastatic bowel cancer and a prognosis of days to short weeks. What factors would prompt a palliative care physician to consider offering him a blood transfusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disabling shortness of breath on minimal exertion
Explanation:Blood Transfusion in Palliative Medicine
In palliative medicine, the decision to offer blood transfusion is based on individual patient needs rather than strict guidelines. The main reason for giving blood in the hospice setting is for symptom control, which can range from fatigue and anorexia to shortness of breath and angina. Patients with chronic anemia and low hemoglobin levels may not receive transfusions if they are relatively asymptomatic. The presence of postural hypotension may or may not be an indication for transfusion, depending on the patient’s symptoms. In cases of major bleeding, blood transfusion may not be appropriate, and the focus should be on staying with the patient and providing comfort measures. Despite a short prognosis, blood transfusion can play an important role in symptom control and should not be discounted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and leg each lasting ten minutes, both within the space of 2 days. He did not attend the emergency department after the first episode. His only significant past medical history is hypertension, for which he takes lisinopril 10 mg OD. He has experienced one similar episode to this one year ago but did not seek medical attention. His son is present who informs you that the patient has lost a significant amount of weight in the last year. On further questioning, he reports some haemoptysis lately. His blood pressure in the department was 160/90 mmHg initially.
His bloods reveal:
Hb 12.0 g/dl
Platelets 155 * 109/l
WBC 12.8 * 109/l
Na+ 135 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 98 µmol/l
CRP 12 mg/l
ECG: Sinus tachycardia, rate 100/min
What is the most appropriate management for this gentleman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for CT head + aspirin
Explanation:This question assesses the candidate’s understanding of TIA risk stratification. The individual meets the criteria for crescendo TIAs, having experienced two TIAs within a week. This necessitates prompt evaluation and imaging. Admission is recommended for any patient with a score of more than 4 on the ABCD2 scale or crescendo TIA.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is admitted with a STEMI and is recovering from his percutaneous coronary intervention. He suddenly experiences severe chest pain on the ward, which worsens with breathing. He denies cough or fever, and his vital signs are stable. On examination, he has tenderness over the chest wall, but his heart sounds are normal, and his chest is clear. Laboratory results show elevated CRP levels, but his electrolytes and renal function are within normal limits. His ECG shows sinus rhythm with T wave inversion in V1-V3, and his chest x-ray is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:If a person experiences pleuritic chest pain within 48 hours of having a heart attack, it is likely due to pericarditis. Hospital-acquired pneumonia usually takes longer to develop, while a coronary artery dissection is a possible complication of PCI but would typically show ischemic changes on an ECG.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden right ankle pain after hearing a popping sound. Upon examination, he is unable to plantar flex his right ankle. He reports no recent strenuous activity but mentions receiving treatment for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely responsible for his current condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Tendinopathy can be caused by ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic, has been known to cause tendon inflammation and even rupture, although this is a rare side effect. It is important to inquire about recent use of antibiotics if there is a suspicion of tendon rupture.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss and weakness. He has a hoarse voice and no significant medical history. Upon examination, he has pedal edema up to the tibial tuberosity, an enlarged tongue, and a liver edge palpable up to three finger breadths below the right costal margin. The following laboratory results were obtained: sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l, potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l, urea 7.2 mmol/l, creatinine (Cr) 80 µmol/l, haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l, white cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l, and 3+++ protein on urine dipstick. What is the most appropriate test to determine the correct diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous fat biopsy
Explanation:Investigations for Amyloidosis: Subcutaneous Fat Biopsy and Other Tests
Amyloidosis is a condition characterized by the deposition of fibrous protein in various tissues and organs. It can be primary or associated with other chronic diseases. Diagnosis is made by typical findings and demonstration of amyloid fibrils by Congo red staining under polarized light. To reach a final diagnosis, abdominal subcutaneous fat pad aspirate or rectal submucosal biopsy are often performed.
Liver spleen scan is not specific for amyloidosis as lymphoproliferative diseases may also cause hepatosplenomegaly. Quantification of protein through 24-hour urinary protein test would not give the definitive diagnosis as proteinuria may be found in other glomerular diseases. Similarly, urine protein electrophoresis and urine protein immunophoresis would be abnormal in myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of worsening speech slurring. He is feeling extremely embarrassed and is often mistaken for being drunk by his college friends. He is also experiencing excessive drooling and has noticed increasing weakness in lifting his right arm over the past 8 weeks. He has no significant medical history, does not smoke, and only drinks alcohol socially.
During the examination, he demonstrates weakness in raising his eyebrows, puffing his cheeks, and pursing his lips. He also displays significant scapula winging bilaterally with mild wasting of his right deltoid muscle. The musculature of his left arm is normal. The power of his right shoulder abduction and adduction is 3/5, with 5/5 in all other movements. Reflexes are all present with a normal sensory examination.
His blood tests reveal:
- Hb 142 g/l
- Platelets 390 * 109/l
- WBC 6.0 * 109/l
- Na+ 140 mmol/l
- K+ 4.5 mmol/l
- Urea 4.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 60 µmol/l
- CRP 3 mg/l
- Creatine kinase 155 IU/l (50-335)
- TSH 2.5 mu/l
- HIV negative
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Explanation:Determining the cause of a myopathy that presents in late adolescence and progresses can be challenging. However, in this case, the absence of elevated CK and CRP levels, as well as the lack of systemic symptoms, make a diagnosis of polymyositis unlikely. Myotonic dystrophy type 1 is also improbable due to the absence of myotonia and the absence of other associated symptoms such as cardiac and respiratory involvement. MERRF can also be ruled out as it typically presents with myoclonus, peripheral neuropathy, and ataxia. The muscles affected in this case are the facial and upper limb girdle muscles, which is consistent with facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. It is important to note that this type of muscular dystrophy can initially present asymmetrically before progressing to bilateral involvement.
Understanding Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHMD) is a type of muscular dystrophy that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the condition. FSHMD is characterized by the progressive weakness and wasting of muscles, particularly those in the face, scapula, and upper arms.
The first signs of FSHMD usually appear during adolescence or early adulthood, typically around the age of 20. The facial muscles are often the first to be affected, leading to difficulty with tasks such as closing the eyes, smiling, and blowing. As the condition progresses, weakness in the shoulder and upper arm muscles becomes more pronounced, and the borders of the shoulder blades may become abnormally prominent, giving the appearance of winging.
In addition to upper body weakness, FSHMD can also affect the lower limbs, causing weakness in the hip girdle and foot drop. While there is currently no cure for FSHMD, there are treatments available to help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Physical therapy, assistive devices, and medications may all be recommended to help individuals with FSHMD maintain their mobility and independence for as long as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough and fever for the past 2 weeks. He initially thought it was just a cold, but his symptoms have been getting worse. He is worried because he supports his elderly parents financially, who recently returned from a trip to China. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has lost his appetite and experiences night sweats that soak his bed sheets. Based on his medical history and physical examination, the doctor suspects tuberculosis and urgently refers him to a Chest Clinic for confirmation. Tests confirm the diagnosis, and the patient is started on standard treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis. However, when he returns to the doctor several weeks later, he reports a decline in his vision since his diagnosis.
What is the most likely cause of this side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:Medications for Pulmonary Tuberculosis Treatment and Their Associated Side Effects
Pulmonary tuberculosis is typically treated with a combination of medications. The initial phase of treatment lasts for two months and includes rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and includes isoniazid and rifampicin only. Other combination preparations may be used depending on availability. It is crucial to stress the importance of compliance with treatment and to assess liver and renal function before starting therapy.
Ethambutol, one of the medications used in the initial phase, requires special attention to ocular toxicity. Visual acuity, color vision, and visual fields should be tested before and during treatment, preferably by an ophthalmologist.
Pyrazinamide is associated with gastrointestinal upset and hepatotoxicity, while rifampicin can cause orange discoloration of secretions such as tears and urine, gastrointestinal symptoms, and alteration of hepatic function. Isoniazid, another medication used in the initial phase, can cause peripheral neuropathy in high doses, gastrointestinal upset, agranulocytosis, and hemolytic anemia. Finally, streptomycin, which may be used in some cases, is associated with vestibular and renal toxicity.
In summary, while these medications are effective in treating pulmonary tuberculosis, they can also cause side effects that need to be monitored closely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent slurring of her speech that worsens as she continues to talk. She has double vision that worsens while reading and subsequently improves with rest, as well as intermittent weakness of the limbs.
During examination, visible ptosis is observed - she explains this also improves with rest. Proximal muscle weakness is evident, with no wasting.
In addition to the suspected neurological diagnosis, she has a fever and a concurrent infection is suspected. The source is being investigated.
Given the likely underlying neurological diagnosis, which antibiotic should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Patients with myasthenia gravis should avoid aminoglycoside antibiotics due to the risk of fatal myasthenic crisis and respiratory failure. The patient’s history and examination findings suggest myasthenia gravis, and therefore, certain drugs may exacerbate the condition and increase the risk of myasthenic crisis. Antibiotics such as macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines should also be avoided. However, co-amoxiclav and other penicillin-based antibiotics are generally considered safe to use. Meropenem, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is also safe to use in myasthenia gravis. Nitrofurantoin, commonly used for urinary tract infections, is also considered safe for patients with myasthenia gravis.
Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a history of sickle cell trait presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent burning sensation while urinating. She works as a fitness instructor and takes ibuprofen regularly for muscle spasms due to exercise. On examination, she has mild periorbital puffiness and a palpable liver. Lab results show low hemoglobin, high creatinine, and proteinuria. Renal biopsy reveals uniform granular capillary wall deposits of IgG and C3 complement. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood pressure control with ACE inhibitors and immunosuppression with chlorambucil/oral prednisolone
Explanation:The patient has been diagnosed with membranous glomerulonephritis, which may have been caused by her sickle cell trait or the use of NSAIDs. Unlike other glomerulopathies, high doses of steroids and azathioprine are not effective in treating this condition. The primary approach to managing membranous glomerulonephritis involves controlling blood pressure with ACE inhibitors and using immunosuppressive drugs such as cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, ciclosporin, or mycophenolate mofetil in combination with prednisolone. Additionally, rituximab has been found to be beneficial in the short term.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man of Pakistani origin presents to the Emergency department with abdominal pain and distension. He denies any alcohol consumption.
His family reports that he has become progressively weaker and frail over the last six months.
On examination, he is jaundiced with numerous spider naevi and has mild asterixis. Firm, enlarged lymph nodes can be palpated in both cervical chains and the left axilla. His abdomen is grossly distended and shifting dullness is present, no organomegaly can be palpated. There is pitting edema to the knee.
His blood tests reveal:
- Haemoglobin 70 g/L (13.0-18.0)
- White cell count 15.2 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets 98 ×109/L (150-400)
- Bilirubin 160 µmol/L (1-22)
- ALP 110 IU/L (45-105)
- ALT 32 IU/L (5-35)
- AST 18 IU/L (1-31)
- Albumin 16 g/L (37-49)
- C reactive protein 120 mg/L (<10)
- INR 1.6 (<1.4)
An ascitic tap is performed and 60 ml of clear yellow fluid are easily aspirated from the abdominal cavity. Analysis of the fluid demonstrates that the fluid white cell count is 1,500 cells/mm3 (30% neutrophils), red cell count 1,700/mm3 and albumin is 6 g/L, and both the Gram stain and Ziehl-Neelsen stain are negative.
What is the most likely diagnostic test for the cause of ascitic fluid findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic peritoneal biopsy and culture
Explanation:Diagnosis of Tubercular Peritonitis in a Patient with Chronic Liver Disease
This patient exhibits signs of chronic liver disease on examination and blood tests. The ascitic fluid analysis reveals a low serum ascites albumin gradient (SAAG), indicating an exudate, but with a significantly elevated white cell count, predominantly lymphocytic, suggesting tubercular infection of the ascitic fluid. The patient’s history puts her at risk of tuberculosis, and the extensive lymphadenopathy further supports this diagnosis. The most reliable method to confirm the diagnosis is visually directed peritoneal biopsy with histology and culture for TB. Alternatively, fine needle aspiration or excision biopsy of a palpable lymph node may be performed.
Liver biopsy is not necessary to determine the underlying cause of chronic liver disease, which is likely viral hepatitis, diagnosed using serological markers. However, if chronic viral hepatitis is confirmed, liver biopsy may be indicated to assess the degree of inflammation and fibrosis. Ascitic fluid culture may yield tuberculosis, but directed peritoneal biopsy and culture are more sensitive. Tuberculin skin testing is not useful in diagnosing active TB infection.
Triple phase CT of the liver is effective in detecting hepatocellular carcinoma but is not suitable for diagnosing peritoneal TB. The SAAG is a useful tool in characterizing ascites fluid, with a value greater than 11 g/L indicating cirrhosis, alcoholic hepatitis, cardiac ascites, and other conditions, while a value less than 11 g/L suggests other causes such as tuberculous peritonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old, left-handed man presents with complaints of pain in his left wrist for the past 4 months. He has also noticed some mild discomfort in his right wrist. He works as a carpenter and has been struggling to perform his job. On examination, there is a localised swelling and tenderness over the dorsal aspect of the left wrist and mild tenderness over the radial aspect of the right wrist. Blood tests including haematology and biochemistry are within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:Hand and wrist conditions can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. One such condition is De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, which is inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus tendon at the wrist joint. It is commonly caused by repetitive thumb movements and can be diagnosed through inspection and Finkelstein’s test. Treatment options include splinting, steroid injections, and surgery.
Wrist synovitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the entire wrist joint and causes diffuse swelling. Intersection syndrome is a painful condition that affects the thumb side of the forearm and is caused by repetitive resisted extension. A ganglion is a palpable lump, while trigger thumb is characterised by catching, snapping, or locking of the involved finger flexor tendon.
Understanding these conditions and their causes can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of dysphagia and odynophagia. He has a medical history of HIV but is non-compliant with his anti-retroviral treatment.
Observations:
Heart rate: 88 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 120/72 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 18/minute
Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air
Temperature: 37ºC
During the examination, white patches are observed on the gums, tongue, and extending beyond the pharynx. Other than that, the examination is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluconazole
Explanation:The recommended treatment for candidiasis in immunocompromised patients with oesophageal symptoms such as dysphagia and odynophagia is high dose fluconazole. This is because the patient’s non-compliance with HIV treatment puts them at risk of developing AIDS, and oesophageal candidiasis is an AIDS-defining illness. Amphotericin is not recommended due to its significant toxicity and is only used for life-threatening, disseminated fungal infections. Lansoprazole is not suitable as the symptoms are not likely caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux, and nystatin is insufficient for treating candidiasis in immunocompromised patients.
Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients
Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old HIV-positive American woman presents with fever, cough, and fatigue following her recent holiday. Despite receiving oral co-amoxiclav, her symptoms persist and a normal chest radiograph is obtained. Upon undergoing a bronchoscopy, Histoplasma capsulatum is identified in her bronchial washings. What is the most effective treatment to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphotericin
Explanation:Histoplasmosis is a respiratory condition caused by the rare fungus Histoplasma capsulatum, which is more likely to affect immunocompromised patients in the United States. The recommended pharmacological treatments for this condition are amphotericin or itraconazole. While caspofungin is an antifungal drug, it is better suited for treating Aspergillus infections, and fluconazole is more appropriate for Candida infections. Ivermectin, on the other hand, is an anti-parasitic drug that is better suited for treating other infections like Strongyloides and Norwegian scabies.
Understanding Histoplasmosis
Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.
To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical unit with an acute abdomen and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis. During induction of anaesthesia, she had some stiffness of the jaw muscles. However, she later relaxed and surgery was commenced.
Within a few minutes, however, the stiffness of jaw had increased significantly and her limbs also became stiff. The surgical procedure had to be abandoned. Her body temperature rose to 42 °C. Her pulse was 120/min and thread, and blood pressure fell to 80/50 mmHg. Arterial blood gases revealed pCO2 of 8.0 kPa, pH 7.1 and HCO3– 28 mmol/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:Malignant hyperthermia is a serious condition that can occur during general anesthesia in susceptible individuals. Instead of muscle relaxation, the patient experiences increasing muscle rigidity when exposed to certain anesthetics. This can cause a rise in body temperature, respiratory and heart rate, and creatinine phosphokinase levels. In severe cases, it can lead to circulatory collapse and death. A family history of similar reactions during anesthesia or certain musculoskeletal features may indicate susceptibility. Treatment involves switching to alternative agents, administering intravenous dantrolene, and correcting acidosis. Acute dystonic reactions, serotonin syndrome, tonic status epilepticus, and tardive dyskinesia are unrelated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with Addison’s disease presents for follow-up at the endocrinology clinic. The patient was diagnosed with Addison’s disease six months ago and has been prescribed 20mg of hydrocortisone in divided doses and 50micrograms of fludrocortisone. The patient reports occasional fatigue but is otherwise feeling well. The patient has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100 micrograms of levothyroxine, with recent TSH levels indicating good thyroid function.
What tests can be conducted to evaluate the adequacy of glucocorticoid replacement therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cortisol day curve
Explanation:To determine the appropriate dosing of glucocorticoid steroids in patients with Addison’s disease, a cortisol curve can be utilized. This curve involves taking serial measurements throughout the day to monitor the replacement of cortisol in patients with adrenal insufficiency, including those with panhypopituitarism. Morning serum cortisol is typically the first line of testing for Addison’s disease, with confirmation through Synacthen testing. Additionally, Cushing’s syndrome can be confirmed through dexamethasone suppression testing.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing Medic Alert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.
During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the Medical Admission Unit with a 12-hour history of weakness. Two days prior to admission, she experienced double vision and increased unsteadiness while walking. On examination, a mass is found in her abdomen and she has reduced muscle tone and power, absent reflexes, and an ataxia. Initial investigations reveal normal blood counts, electrolytes, and liver function tests, but an elevated CRP. A CT brain scan is normal. What is the most useful investigation to reach a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti GQ1b antibodies
Explanation:Anti GM1 antibodies are not exclusive to Miller Fisher syndrome and can be found in other axonal neuropathies. Similarly, anti Jo1 antibodies are associated with polymyositis and anticholinesterase antibodies are linked to myasthenia gravis.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He has a medical history of orthotopic bladder reconstruction due to bladder cancer. After 48 hours in the High Dependency Unit, he experiences confusion and refuses to consume oral fluids. His vital signs, including pulse rate, blood pressure, and urine output, are normal. The following serum biochemistry results are obtained:
- Na+ 147 mmol/L
- K+ 3.1 mmol/L
- Chloride 134 mmol/L
- Urea 14.3 mmol/L
- Creatinine 82 µmol/L
- Glucose 14 mmol/L
The patient is breathing air, and blood gas analysis reveals:
- pH 7.26
- PaCO2 2.57 kPa
- PaO2 9.92 kPa
- HCO3 16.3 mmol/L
- Base excess −14.6 mmol/L
- Lactate 1.6 mmol/L
What is the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous infusion of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate and potassium replacement
Explanation:Metabolic Acidosis in Patients with Neobladders
Patients who undergo neobladder formation following radical cystectomy or cystoprostatectomy may experience hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is a documented complication. This condition is usually mild and improves over time, but severe and persistent metabolic acidosis may occur when patients undergo further surgery for other reasons. Medical staff treating patients with neobladders should be aware of this complication and treat it with intravenous fluids and bicarbonate. Hypokalemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesaemia may also be present. Potassium depletion can be exacerbated by the correction of acidosis. Rehydration with 0.9% N. saline may worsen the hyperchloraemic state, and potassium supplementation alone via a central venous catheter is not sufficient treatment. Encouraging the patient to breathe into a paper bag is not appropriate in this case. Hyperglycaemia may also be present, but it is secondary to the metabolic stress response and not ketoacidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old teacher presents to the haemato-oncology unit with a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) following recurrent herpes simplex infection, two episodes of pneumonia and lymphadenopathy. The patient has an overwhelming lymphocytosis with a white count of 62 × 109/l. The consultant notes indicate that the patient is to be started on fludarabine. What pre-treatment medication must be administered to the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Prophylaxis and Treatment Options for CLL Patients: Understanding Co-trimoxazole, Tazocin, IV Immunoglobulin, and Cefuroxime
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) patients undergoing treatment with fludarabine are at an increased risk of opportunistic infections, including Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP). To prevent PCP, patients are usually given co-trimoxazole prophylaxis or nebulized pentamidine monthly. Tazocin is the recommended initial empiric antibiotic therapy for suspected neutropenic sepsis, but it is not used for PCP prophylaxis or treatment. IV immunoglobulin has no evidence in PCP prophylaxis, and cefuroxime may be used in the treatment of neutropenic sepsis but has no role in PCP prophylaxis. Understanding these options can help healthcare providers make informed decisions for CLL patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found unwell by friends. She has a history of vomiting and diarrhea for the past three days and her housemate reports that she has not been taking her regular insulin. The patient is disorientated and unable to provide any history. On examination, she is dehydrated with abdominal tenderness but no focal peritonism. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 86/57 mmHg, heart rate of 127 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 28 per minute, and O2 saturations of 100% on room air. Her fingerpick blood glucose is 38.2 mmol/L and blood ketones are 8.7 mmol/L. Arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.05, PaCO2 of 15 mmHg, PaO2 of 99 mmHg, bicarbonate of 12.3 mmol/L, chloride of 111 mmol/L, and lactate of 7.5 mmol/L. What is the appropriate strategy for intravenous insulin treatment in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fixed rate insulin infusion without initial bolus, converting to subcutaneous insulin once patient is eating and drinking normally
Explanation:The patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis as a result of dehydration, vomiting, and failure to take prescribed insulin. The Joint British Diabetes Society recommends administering insulin through an infusion at a rate of 0.1 units/kg/h, without an initial bolus. This is due to a randomized controlled trial that found no benefit from an initial bolus. Fixed rate insulin infusions are now preferred over titration of insulin dose against blood sugar levels (sliding scale) because blood glucose may correct more quickly than ketoacidosis, and fixed rate infusions ensure adequate insulin to eliminate ketones.
There is no agreement among expert bodies regarding the biochemical end-point of DKA. Therefore, it is recommended that patients be switched to subcutaneous insulin once they are able to eat and drink normally. It is crucial to ensure that there is an overlap between the administration of intravenous and subcutaneous insulin to prevent the recurrence of ketogenesis.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with chest pain and rapidly worsening shortness of breath that has been occurring over the past 48 hours. She has a history of joint symptoms and has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) by rheumatologists. There is no recent travel or signs of infection.
Upon examination, the patient has a respiratory rate of 26 and oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. Her pulse is 130 and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. The venous pressure is elevated, but there is no peripheral edema. Cardiac examination is unremarkable, and a 12-lead ECG shows only sinus tachycardia. A chest x-ray reveals a slightly enlarged heart but clear lung fields.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent transthoracic echocardiogram
Explanation:Urgent Diagnosis and Management for a Patient with Lupus and Acute Breathlessness
The case of a patient with lupus and acute breathlessness requires urgent diagnosis and management due to the worrying symptoms and haemodynamic parameters. The patient’s history suggests that the features could be due to pericardial effusion or pulmonary embolism (PE), both of which are increased risks with SLE. However, normal oxygen saturations and a slightly enlarged heart make pericardial effusion more likely than PE. It is unclear if pulsus paradoxus is present.
Cardiac examination may not reveal a pericardial effusion, so an urgent echo is necessary to exclude a significant pericardial effusion and provide information on evidence of tamponade physiology. While it is rare to diagnose PE with an echo, it can detect right heart dilatation/impairment and pulmonary hypertension, which can strongly suggest a diagnosis of PE.
Therefore, an urgent echo is the most appropriate diagnostic test in this case. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) could rule out PE and demonstrate an effusion, but it would not reveal tamponade changes. Urgent diagnosis and management are essential for this patient’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient undergoes endoscopy and a gastric lesion is biopsied. Immunohistochemistry from the lesion shows positive for CD117 (c-KIT). What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT scan and endoscopic ultrasound
Explanation:CD117 Positivity Indicates Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour (GIST)
CD117 positivity is a reliable indicator of the presence of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST). This type of tumour is commonly found in the stomach and is present in 95% of GIST cases. Therefore, it is important to conduct staging investigations to determine the extent of the tumour and plan for surgery. CT and endoscopic ultrasound are useful tools for staging and further management of GIST. By identifying CD117 positivity, medical professionals can take the necessary steps to provide appropriate treatment for patients with GIST.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to the Oncology Clinic with cholangiocarcinoma and peritoneal metastases. She has been receiving cisplatin plus gemcitabine chemotherapy for five weeks and reports increasing abdominal swelling and weight gain. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The best course of action for this patient with metastatic biliary tract cancer and moderate-to-large volume ascites is to perform an urgent therapeutic paracentesis and re-evaluate her fitness for chemotherapy in 1-2 weeks. Inserting an ascitic drain could provide relief from symptoms and potentially improve her fitness for chemotherapy. If malignant ascites is confirmed, an indwelling ascitic drain may be considered. Discontinuing chemotherapy and referring to Palliative Care is not necessary at this time, as the patient’s fitness for cancer-directed treatment is borderline and there is still a chance for improvement. Delaying chemotherapy by one week would not be beneficial, as the cause of deterioration is due to the disease rather than treatment toxicity. There is no indication for an urgent repeat CT scan, as the patient has only recently started chemotherapy. Switching from combination therapy to gemcitabine monotherapy is not necessary, as there is an actionable cause for the deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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