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  • Question 1 - A 82-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after collapsing at home and...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after collapsing at home and experiencing a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health. Her pulse is recorded at 50 beats per minute and her blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg. The electrocardiogram taken upon admission shows sinus bradycardia of 47 beats per minute without any acute or ischemic changes. What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous atropine

      Correct Answer: Admit and arrange monitored telemetry with printing

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Bradycardia-Induced Syncope

      This patient is suspected to have bradycardia-induced syncope, but the diagnosis is not certain. Therefore, the best course of action is to observe the patient as an inpatient with appropriate heart rate monitoring. Outpatient observation is not recommended in this case due to the syncopal episode. While the patient may require a permanent pacemaker in the future, emergency temporary wire is not necessary unless the patient experiences recurrent syncope due to bradycardia or complete heart block. As the patient is currently stable, temporary wire, atropine, or carotid sinus massage are not required.

      It is important to properly diagnose and manage bradycardia-induced syncope to prevent further episodes and potential complications. Observation as an inpatient with heart rate monitoring allows for close monitoring of the patient’s condition and can help determine the underlying cause of the syncope. If a permanent pacemaker is eventually needed, it can be implanted at a later time. In the meantime, the patient should be advised to avoid triggers that may cause syncope, such as sudden changes in position or prolonged standing. With proper management, the patient can avoid further episodes of syncope and maintain a good quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      50.3
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of general malaise, weight loss, and arthralgia. He has recently returned from a holiday abroad and mentions visiting a tattooing parlour where he had an erythematous skin rash around the tattoo site. He also describes episodes of waking up at night feeling really hot. On examination, he is found to be pyrexia and tachycardia, with petechial haemorrhages in his conjunctival and buccal membranes. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with a PR interval of 220 ms and a urinary dipstick is positive for blood. His investigations reveal a Hb of 141 g/l, WCC of 15.6 × 109/l, PLT of 153 × 109/l, Na+ of 136 mmol/l, K+ of 4.8 mmol/l, Cr of 83 μmol/l, and urea of 5.0 mmol/l, with a CRP of 13.5 mg/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest several possible diagnoses. Infective endocarditis should be considered even without murmurs, especially if the patient has chronic fever, weight loss, and malaise. Conjunctival petechial hemorrhages are more common than the classical skin signs. A first-degree atrioventricular block and dipstick hematuria may also indicate subacute bacterial endocarditis. A history of skin infection suggests Staphylococcus as the probable culprit organism. Viral hemorrhagic fever is another possibility, especially if the patient has a travel history to countries where these viruses are prevalent. Pyelonephritis may be indicated by positive urine dipstick results for leukocytes/nitrites and symptoms such as dysuria, abdominal pain, and flank pain. Malaria may present with flu-like symptoms, acute febrile illness, and paroxysms, along with splenomegaly. Rheumatic fever may occur following a streptococcal throat infection and is characterized by fever, painful joints, Sydenham’s chorea, and erythema marginatum. Rheumatic heart disease may be a long-term complication of rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.3
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man with Marfan's syndrome and a history of mitral regurgitation presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with Marfan's syndrome and a history of mitral regurgitation presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past three days. He reports being able to walk only 100 meters before needing to stop and feeling restless at times with a racing heart. He denies any chest pain. He is currently on furosemide and ramipril and undergoes annual echocardiography surveillance.

      Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular at 96 beats per minute. He has a soft S1 with a loud grade 4 pan-systolic murmur that radiates into the axilla. He appears thin but alert, with no visible JVP and a clear chest.

      His laboratory results show a sodium level of 134 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.2 mmol/l, urea level of 4.3 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 89 µmol/l. His ECG shows no visible P-waves, an irregular narrow complex rhythm at 84 per minute, and his CXR reveals cardiomegaly with no effusions or lung shadowing. A bedside ECHO shows no pericardial effusion, normal-sized cardiac chambers, and no regional wall motion abnormality.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Refer to cardiothoracic surgery

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Regurgitation

      Mitral regurgitation, also known as mitral insufficiency, is a condition where blood leaks back through the mitral valve on systole. This valve is located between the left atrium and ventricle, and when it doesn’t function properly, it can lead to a less efficient heart. While MR is common in healthy patients to a trivial degree and does not need treatment, severe cases can lead to irreversible heart failure. Risk factors for MR include age, renal dysfunction, and collagen disorders like Marfan’s Syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      There are several causes of MR, including coronary artery disease, mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever, and congenital defects. Symptoms tend to be due to failure of the left ventricle, arrhythmias, or pulmonary hypertension, and may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. A pansystolic murmur described as blowing is typically heard on auscultation of the chest.

      Diagnosis of MR is done through ECG, chest x-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment options include medical management with nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, and ACE inhibitors, as well as surgery in acute, severe cases. Repair is preferred over replacement in degenerative regurgitation, as it has been shown to have lower mortality and higher survival rates. When repair is not possible, valve replacement with an artificial or pig valve may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      113.6
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  • Question 4 - A 45 year old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic for investigation and management of his persistently raised blood pressure. Despite being on ramipril 5mg once daily for four weeks, his blood pressure remains elevated between 170/100 mmHg and 180/110 mmHg. During the consultation, the patient mentions experiencing headaches for the past year, along with increased stool frequency and looser stools. He also reports flushing episodes and feeling that his clothes are looser than they were a year ago. The patient's family history includes his mother having a breast lump removed and his father having a pancreatic mass removed. On examination, the patient is tall with a wide arm span, and has a minor tachycardia of 95 bpm and a quiet systolic flow murmur. A 24h urinary catecholamine test arranged by the GP showed raised levels of total urine catecholamines at 210 mcg/24hr. A CT of the abdomen and pelvis was reported as normal, except for a few incidental simple renal cysts. Urinalysis in clinic today showed no leucocytes or blood, but did show glucose. Which test is most likely to determine the cause of the patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: MIBG (metaiodobenzylguanidine) scan

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can be caused by various factors. While primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is primary hyperaldosteronism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Other causes include renal diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, adult polycystic kidney disease, and renal artery stenosis. Endocrine disorders like phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and acromegaly can also result in increased blood pressure. Certain medications like steroids, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the combined oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, and leflunomide can also cause hypertension. Pregnancy and coarctation of the aorta are other possible causes. Identifying and treating the underlying condition is crucial in managing secondary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      81.4
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with acute coronary syndrome and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on day six after making a good recovery.

      Her medication on discharge included atenolol 50 mg daily, enalapril 10 mg daily, isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily.

      During admission, investigations showed that her serum urea was 12.4 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) and serum creatinine was 250 µmol/L (60-110).

      However, she was re-admitted one week after discharge with deteriorating dyspnoea. Further investigations revealed that her serum urea was 28.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine was 600 µmol/L (60-110), serum bicarbonate was 18 mmol/L (20-28), and serum potassium was 6.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). The ECG showed T wave inversion in leads II, III, and V5-6.

      If the patient is clinically fluid overloaded, what is the best course of management?

      Your Answer: Dialysis

      Explanation:

      Risks and Benefits of Dialysis for a Patient with Fluid Overload and Hyperkalemia

      This patient is at risk of developing pulmonary edema due to fluid overload and is also hyperkalemic, which increases the risk of a dangerous arrhythmia, especially after a myocardial infarction. The safest course of action is to perform dialysis, which will not only address the fluid overload and hyperkalemia but also improve myocardial function.

      Dialysis is a medical procedure that removes excess fluid and waste products from the blood when the kidneys are unable to do so. In this case, dialysis is necessary to prevent the patient from developing pulmonary edema, a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs breathing. Additionally, the patient’s hyperkalemia, a condition where there is too much potassium in the blood, can lead to a malignant arrhythmia, which can be life-threatening. Dialysis will help to lower the potassium levels and reduce the risk of arrhythmia.

      Performing dialysis will not only address the immediate risks but also have long-term benefits for the patient’s overall health. By removing excess fluid and waste products, dialysis can improve myocardial function, which is crucial for patients who have suffered a myocardial infarction. Therefore, dialysis is the safest and most effective option for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      83
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  • Question 6 - You are asked to review a 67 year-old male who was admitted yesterday...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a 67 year-old male who was admitted yesterday with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction and subsequent flash pulmonary oedema. He is a diabetic patient who has been receiving treatment with aspirin, clopidogrel, fondaparinux and intravenous furosemide. He is currently producing 100mls of urine per hour, indicating good diuresis.

      However, the patient is still experiencing significant breathlessness despite the absence of chest pain. Upon assessment, his blood pressure is 92/87 mmHg and oxygen saturations are at 83% on 65% humidified oxygen. Bibasal crepitations are present and JVP is raised. The ABG results are as follows:

      pH 7.32
      pCO2 4.6kPa
      pO2 7.9kPa

      What would be your next clinical intervention?

      Your Answer: Refer for angiography and primary coronary intervention

      Correct Answer: Start continuous positive airway pressure ventilation (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      If a patient with acute heart failure is not responding to treatment, it may be worth considering the use of CPAP. For example, if a patient has had an NSTEMI and is experiencing hypoxia due to pulmonary edema, despite being treated for the NSTEMI and showing good diuresis, CPAP could be the next step to improve oxygenation. While interventions such as GTN, tirofiban, and angiography may improve coronary perfusion, if the patient is already pain-free, addressing the ongoing pulmonary edema with CPAP may be a higher priority.

      Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.

      For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.

      While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      111.2
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  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old female presented to her general practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presented to her general practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and fatigue. She couldn't pinpoint when the symptoms started but felt they had been gradually developing over several months. The GP referred her to a cardiologist after finding some physical abnormalities.

      The cardiac catheterization results are as follows:

      - Superior vena cava: 77% oxygen saturation, no pressure recorded
      - Right atrium (mean): 79% oxygen saturation, 7 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 78% oxygen saturation, no pressure recorded
      - Pulmonary artery: 87% oxygen saturation, 52/17 mmHg pressure
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 16 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 96% oxygen saturation, 120/11 mmHg pressure
      - Aorta: 97% oxygen saturation, 130/60 mmHg pressure

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Surprising Increase in Oxygen Saturation between RV and PA

      The information presented indicates a surprising rise in oxygen saturation levels between the right ventricle (RV) and pulmonary artery (PA). This occurrence is linked to elevated pulmonary artery pressures and a high wedge pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old female patient visits her GP after being diagnosed with high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female patient visits her GP after being diagnosed with high blood pressure during a routine check-up. She has a history of laparoscopic cholecystectomy for gallstones but is otherwise healthy and does not take any regular medication. She is a non-smoker but is obese with a BMI of 35 kg/m2. On examination, her blood pressure is consistently high with a mean of 160/95 mmHg from three separate measurements. A 24-hour ambulatory BP measurement shows a mean of 145/90 mmHg. Her cardiovascular and fundal examinations are normal, and her ECG shows no specific abnormalities. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's high blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Lifestyle Interventions for Patients with Low Cardiovascular Risk

      Patients who are under the age of 40 and have less than 20% cardiovascular risk at 10 years should be initially offered lifestyle interventions. This means that they should be given advice on how to improve their lifestyle habits. For example, healthcare professionals should ask patients about their alcohol consumption and encourage them to cut down if they drink excessively. They should also discourage excessive consumption of coffee and other caffeine-rich products. Patients should be encouraged to keep their salt intake low or substitute sodium salt. Additionally, healthcare professionals should offer advice and help to patients who smoke to stop smoking. Lastly, patients should be informed about local initiatives that provide support and promote lifestyle change. It is important to periodically offer lifestyle advice to patients undergoing assessment or treatment for hypertension. By making these lifestyle changes, patients can reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 79-year-old man presents with suprapubic discomfort and urgency but has been unable...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents with suprapubic discomfort and urgency but has been unable to pass urine for over 24 hours. He had undergone a third failed transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hypertrophy three months ago. His medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, and previous myocardial infarctions. On examination, his mucous membranes are moist, his peripheries are warm, and his JVP is at 3 cm above the angle of Louis. His abdomen is tender and distended in the suprapubic region. A urethral catheter is inserted, and 900 mls of residual urine is noted. His blood tests show elevated potassium and creatinine levels. His ECG demonstrates left bundle branch block and first-degree heart block. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor renal function and consider long term catheter only

      Explanation:

      This elderly patient has multiple co-morbidities affecting various organ systems, which is typical for admissions in this age group. It is important to identify which aspects of the patient’s condition require attention. Currently, the patient is not experiencing fluid overload and therefore does not require intravenous fluids. However, it is important to monitor their urine output and replace any significant losses with oral or intravenous fluids. Although the patient’s troponin levels are elevated, this is likely due to their acute on chronic kidney injury, and there is no evidence of chest pain or dynamic ECG changes to suggest an acute coronary syndrome. Instead, the patient is at a higher risk of post-renal injury, and their renal function tests should be closely monitored. Given the patient’s history of failed TURPs, a long-term catheter may be a reasonable consideration.

      Cardiac Enzymes and Protein Markers: Understanding Their Interpretation

      The interpretation of cardiac enzymes has been largely replaced by the introduction of troponin T and I. However, questions about these enzymes still commonly appear in exams. It is important to note that myoglobin is the first to rise, while CK-MB is useful in detecting reinfarction as it returns to normal after 2-3 days (troponin T remains elevated for up to 10 days).

      The table above shows the time frame for the rise, peak value, and return to normal of various cardiac enzymes. CK-MB begins to rise 2-6 hours after an event, peaks at 16-20 hours, and returns to normal after 2-3 days. CK, on the other hand, begins to rise 4-8 hours after an event, peaks at 16-24 hours, and returns to normal after 3-4 days. Trop T begins to rise 4-6 hours after an event, peaks at 12-24 hours, and remains elevated for 7-10 days. AST begins to rise 12-24 hours after an event, peaks at 36-48 hours, and returns to normal after 3-4 days. Lastly, LDH begins to rise 24-48 hours after an event, peaks at 72 hours, and returns to normal after 8-10 days.

      In summary, understanding the interpretation of cardiac enzymes and protein markers is crucial in diagnosing and managing cardiac events. While troponin T and I have largely replaced the use of other enzymes, it is still important to know their time frames for rise, peak value, and return to normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with worsening symptoms of cardiac failure. He is currently taking metformin and empagliflozin for blood glucose control, ramipril, doxazosin, furosemide, aspirin and atorvastatin. On examination, he has bilateral crackles to the mid zones on chest auscultation and pitting oedema to the mid-shins bilaterally. His blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg, and his pulse is 80 beats per minute and regular. Laboratory investigations reveal Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.5 mmol/l, urea 6.2 mmol/l, and creatinine 112 µmol/l.

      Which medication would you discontinue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic heart failure are at a higher risk of developing congestive cardiac failure. To manage heart failure, guidelines recommend the use of ACE inhibitors, cardioselective beta blockers, and loop diuretics if necessary for fluid overload. While atorvastatin may be linked to myositis, it is not believed to worsen heart failure. Empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, has been shown to have a thiazide diuretic-like effect and promote sodium excretion, providing some benefit to patients with early-stage heart failure. Metformin does not have any negative impact on heart failure and is only contraindicated during periods of acute hypotension.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old woman was involved in a car accident as a passenger. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman was involved in a car accident as a passenger. The vehicle did not have an airbag and she suffered significant chest bruising. She has a history of chronic stable angina but no other medical issues. The nursing staff requests your assessment as she has suddenly deteriorated a few hours after being admitted.

      Upon admission, her blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, pulse is regular at 95 beats per minute. She is experiencing peripheral shutdown and pulsus paradoxus. Heart sounds are faint, and her ECG shows widespread T wave inversion.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Cardiac Tamponade

      The patient’s symptoms of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, along with peripheral shutdown, suggest the possibility of cardiac tamponade. This condition is likely due to the chest injury sustained from the dashboard. The preferred diagnostic method is urgent bedside echocardiography, followed by ultrasound-guided pericardiocentesis if necessary.

      Other potential causes of low output heart failure, such as myocardial contusion or infarct, would not result in the same symptoms as cardiac tamponade. Myocarditis is also an unlikely cause, as it would not lead to the same quietening of heart sounds or pulsus paradoxus.

      In summary, the patient’s symptoms strongly suggest cardiac tamponade, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are necessary to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. He had recently undergone internal fixation of his left tibia after fracturing it due to a fall while intoxicated. He is concerned about his current symptoms and denies any cough or chest pain. He has no prior medical history and is currently taking codeine and paracetamol for postoperative pain relief. There are no known allergies.

      Upon examination, the patient is hypoxic with saturations at 92% on room air. Blood tests, including FBC, U&E, and CRP, are all within normal ranges. There are a few left-sided crepitations and swelling and tenderness in his left calf, which was the side of his operation. A chest X-ray reveals a small left-sided pleural effusion causing blunting of his left costophrenic angle. However, no CT or US scanning is available as it is currently 3 AM.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment dose apixaban

      Explanation:

      In cases where there is a strong suspicion of PE but a delay in the scan, it is recommended to initiate treatment with a therapeutic dose of anticoagulant. In this scenario, the patient is young and healthy, and has presented with sudden onset of shortness of breath and a swollen calf following surgery. The most probable diagnosis is a PE from a DVT, and immediate treatment is necessary due to the patient’s hypoxia. While it is important to confirm the diagnosis, starting treatment first is the appropriate course of action. The effusion seen on the X-ray is likely a result of the embolus and is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s significant hypoxia. Therefore, treatment with a therapeutic dose of apixaban is recommended.

      Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.

      To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.

      CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old man presents to the emergency department with facial discoloration and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man presents to the emergency department with facial discoloration and a headache. He has a medical history of NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Upon examination, he appears cyanotic and his oxygen saturation remains at 85% despite receiving 15 L of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. His ABG results show a pH of 7.36, pO2 of 11 kPa, pCO2 of 4 kPa, Hb of 136 g/L, lactate of 2.0 mmol/L, and MetHb of 30%. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascorbic acid

      Explanation:

      Both treatment indications exist for this condition.

      Understanding Methaemoglobinaemia

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. Normally, NADH methaemoglobin reductase regulates this process by transferring electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, reducing it to haemoglobin. However, when this process is disrupted, tissue hypoxia occurs as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, shifting the oxidation dissociation curve to the left.

      There are congenital causes of methaemoglobinaemia, such as haemoglobin chain variants like HbM and HbH, as well as NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes include drugs like sulphonamides, nitrates (including recreational nitrates like amyl nitrite ‘poppers’), dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine, as well as chemicals like aniline dyes.

      Symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia include ‘chocolate’ cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, and in severe cases, acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma. Despite normal pO2 levels, oxygen saturation is decreased.

      Management of NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency involves ascorbic acid, while acquired methaemoglobinaemia can be treated with IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue). Understanding the causes and symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia is crucial in its proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic for his routine check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic for his routine check-up. He has been coming to the clinic for the past 5 years for his aortic stenosis. He reports a decrease in his exercise tolerance and experiences chest discomfort and dizziness during strenuous activity.

      During the examination, his BP is 130/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 80 bpm and regular. His JVP is not raised, and his chest is clear. On auscultation, there is an ejection systolic murmur grade 3/6 in the aortic distribution, and the first and second heart sounds are heard. The ECHO reveals a gradient of 70 mmHg across the aortic valve.

      You inform the patient that he will require a valve replacement and he inquires about the different types of heart valves available. Which of the following statements regarding prosthetic heart valves is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Heart Valve for a Young Patient

      When it comes to choosing a heart valve for a young patient, a metallic valve is the most suitable option. While tissue valves do not require anticoagulation, they only last for about 10 years on average. On the other hand, metallic valves last longer and are more resistant to wear and tear. However, the downside is that the patient will need anticoagulation for life to prevent thromboembolism. It is important to consider a patient’s life expectancy and the risks associated with valve replacement surgery when making this decision. Ultimately, the haemodynamic performance of mechanical valves and anticoagulation may drive better outcomes versus tissue valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man with a 3 year history of hypertension is referred for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a 3 year history of hypertension is referred for further evaluation due to his blood pressure being difficult to control. The following results were obtained prior to commencing medications:

      Na+ 146 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 µmol/l
      Renin 98 (7-50 IU/mL ambulatory)
      Aldosterone 1000 (N: 80-800 ng/dL ambulatory)
      Renin:Aldosterone Ratio 10.8 (< 500)
      Plasma Metanephrines 0.40 (<0.50 nmol/L)

      These results are most consistent with which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can be caused by various factors. While primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is primary hyperaldosteronism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Other causes include renal diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, adult polycystic kidney disease, and renal artery stenosis. Endocrine disorders like phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and acromegaly can also result in increased blood pressure. Certain medications like steroids, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the combined oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, and leflunomide can also cause hypertension. Pregnancy and coarctation of the aorta are other possible causes. Identifying and treating the underlying condition is crucial in managing secondary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension visits the outpatient clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension visits the outpatient clinic and his blood pressure is measured at 150/90 mmHg. He reports having reduced his salt intake but still consumes six bottles of wine per week. He is currently taking beta blockers and thiazide diuretics. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of alcohol intake

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Hypertension Management

      When it comes to managing hypertension, non-pharmacological measures should always be the first line of defense. In the case of a patient who has already reduced their salt intake, the next step should not be to prescribe an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Instead, the patient should focus on reducing their alcohol intake. This is a crucial step in managing hypertension and can have a significant impact on blood pressure levels.

      While reassurance may be helpful in some cases, it is unlikely to bring the patient’s blood pressure below the current guidelines. Similarly, increasing the diuretic dose may have little effect on blood pressure levels, but it can increase the risk of side effects. Therefore, it is important to focus on non-pharmacological measures, such as reducing alcohol intake, to effectively manage hypertension. By taking these steps, patients can improve their overall health and reduce their risk of complications associated with high blood pressure.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP for a routine health check. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP for a routine health check. They have a history of asthma and a family history of hypertension and bowel cancer. They used to smoke 10 pack-years but quit with the help of the practice nurse 5 years ago. They consume 20 units of alcohol per week and have a body mass index of 26 kg/m². They are not taking any regular medication. Their blood pressure reading is 160/100 mmHg, and they are sent for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM), which shows an average blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg. Their 10-year cardiovascular risk is 10%.

      Upon examination, including fundoscopy, there are no notable findings.

      Blood tests reveal:

      Hb 130 g/l
      Platelets 320 * 109/l
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      eGFR 88 ml/min
      Fasting plasma glucose 5.2 mmol/L
      Serum total cholesterol 4.2 mmol/L
      HDL cholesterol 1.9 mmol/L

      Urinary albumin:creatinine ratio 1.2 mg/mmol
      Urine dip negative for haematuria

      An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm.

      What is the initial step in managing this patient's high blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      For a patient aged 55 years or older, the preferred initial medication would be a calcium-channel blocker like amlodipine.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old man with a history of ischemic heart disease experiences a cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of ischemic heart disease experiences a cardiac arrest while watching TV at home. His wife immediately calls 999 and starts performing cardiorespiratory resuscitation. Upon arrival at the hospital, he is found to be in sinus rhythm, but a transthoracic echocardiogram shows significant left ventricular dysfunction.

      What would be the most effective long-term management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Implantable defibrillator

      Explanation:

      ICD Implantation for Ischaemic Cardiomyopathy

      This patient has ischaemic cardiomyopathy and experienced an out of hospital cardiac arrest that was successfully resuscitated. The best long term management strategy for this condition is ICD implantation, which has been shown to have a clear morbidity and mortality benefit over anti-arrhythmic therapy such as amiodarone.

      Long term mexiletine therapy is not recommended at this stage and may even be pro-arrhythmic. While beta-blocker, statin, and ACE inhibitor therapy have mortality benefits in heart failure treatment and ischaemia, and may decrease the incidence of cardiac arrests, they are complementary therapies to ICD therapy, which is the first line treatment for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman visits the haematology clinic after experiencing shortness of breath three...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits the haematology clinic after experiencing shortness of breath three days ago. She had gone to the emergency department where a CT pulmonary angiogram scan revealed a pulmonary embolus. She was discharged with low molecular weight heparin injections at treatment dose and advised to attend the anticoagulation clinic to begin warfarin. The patient has no medical history or allergies and only takes Microgynon as an oral contraceptive.

      The patient is not pregnant and consents to starting warfarin. What should be done with her heparin while initiating warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue until INR is known to be above 2

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action is to maintain low-molecular weight heparin until the patient’s INR level is confirmed to be above 2. This scenario involves a patient who has been prescribed warfarin for a pulmonary embolism while also receiving low-molecular weight heparin. As there are no contraindications for warfarin, such as pregnancy or malignancy, the patient should be given a target INR of 2.5 (with an acceptable range of 2-3). The process of initiating warfarin can vary, but until the patient’s anticoagulation is confirmed to be therapeutic, low-molecular weight heparin should be continued. Once the patient’s INR level is confirmed to be therapeutic, the low-molecular weight heparin can be discontinued.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of breathlessness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of breathlessness. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past two weeks, with a significant decrease in her ability to exercise. She now finds that even walking a few steps leaves her feeling breathless, whereas previously she could walk to her local shops and back without issue. She is unable to lie down as it exacerbates her symptoms. Her medical history includes hypertension, a previous heart attack, and asthma.

      Upon examination, her JVP is elevated, and there are bilateral crepitations on auscultation. Air entry is reduced in both lung bases, and percussion is dull. Her chest X-ray reveals evidence of pulmonary edema and bilateral pleural effusions. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat medically with diuretics

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action is to medically manage the patient with diuretics. Based on the patient’s history, physical examination, and imaging results, it is highly likely that her shortness of breath is caused by heart failure. The pleural effusions are probably transudates, and it is best to address the underlying cause before considering draining one or both of the effusions. If the patient’s acute heart failure exacerbation cannot be controlled with diuretics and nitrates, non-invasive ventilation may be necessary.

      Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.

      For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.

      While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man, who was previously healthy and physically fit, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man, who was previously healthy and physically fit, presented to the Emergency department with left-sided weakness that lasted for two hours. However, the weakness resolved by the time he arrived at the hospital. A CT scan of his head was normal, with no signs of haemorrhage or infarction.

      The patient is a non-smoker, has no history of hypertension or hypercholesterolaemia, and there is no family history of cerebrovascular disease. During the examination, a soft diastolic murmur was heard in the aortic area, and the patient had a fever of 38.2°C. Upon further questioning, he reported feeling lethargic and experiencing rigors for the past two weeks.

      A transthoracic echocardiogram and transoesophageal echocardiogram revealed a suspicious mobile mass on the aortic valve with moderate aortic regurgitation. Blood cultures showed that the patient was infected with Staphylococcus aureus, which was sensitive to flucloxacillin. The patient was started on appropriate antibiotic therapy for infective endocarditis after consulting with the microbiologist.

      However, two weeks later, the patient still had a daily fever that reached 38.5°C. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be referred to the cardiothoracic surgeons for urgent aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Surgical Recommendations for Silent Cerebral Embolism and TIA

      Guidance from the European Society of Cardiology advises that surgery should be promptly carried out after a silent cerebral embolism or TIA if there is still an indication for it. In cases where there are neurological complications, urgent surgery is recommended. For very large, enlarging, or ruptured intracranial aneurysms, neurosurgery or endovascular therapy is necessary.

      It is crucial to act quickly after a silent cerebral embolism or TIA to prevent further complications. Surgery is recommended without delay if there is still a need for it. In cases where there are neurological complications, urgent surgery is necessary to prevent further damage. For very large, enlarging, or ruptured intracranial aneurysms, neurosurgery or endovascular therapy is the best course of action. It is important to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - Whilst covering medical receiving overnight, you are referred a 54-year-old man presenting to...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst covering medical receiving overnight, you are referred a 54-year-old man presenting to the Emergency Department with palpitations. He describes 'fluttering in the chest' for the last 48 hours. His past medical history is remarkable only for type 1 diabetes, adequately controlled with insulin. His admission ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 130-140 beats per minute. Examination reveals; blood pressure 88/60 mmHg, with capillary refill 3 seconds. His chest is clear to auscultation. He scores 15/15 on the Glasgow coma score. The patient feels light headed but is otherwise uncomplaining.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      If a patient with tachyarrhythmia shows signs of shock, such as a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg and prolonged capillary refill time, the recommended course of action is immediate DC cardioversion. This advice is provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK), which also advises categorizing patients based on the presence or absence of adverse features, including shock, syncope, heart failure, myocardial ischemia, and extreme rate. Patients without adverse features are further sub-stratified based on the type and regularity of their tachycardia. While reversible causes such as electrolyte abnormalities should be addressed first, in the scenario given, electrical cardioversion is the best option due to the presence of shock.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      Peri-arrest tachycardias can be life-threatening and require prompt management. The Resuscitation Council (UK) has simplified the guidelines for the management of these rhythms. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given. Up to three shocks can be given, after which expert help should be sought.

      The treatment algorithm for peri-arrest tachycardias depends on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is recommended for regular rhythms. For irregular rhythms, expert help should be sought, as the cause could be atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are recommended for regular rhythms. If these are unsuccessful, atrial flutter should be considered, and rate control with beta-blockers may be necessary. For irregular rhythms, probable atrial fibrillation should be assumed, and electrical or chemical cardioversion may be necessary if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control, unless there is a contraindication. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

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  • Question 23 - A patient with severe rheumatic heart disease is scheduled for a gastroscopy with...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with severe rheumatic heart disease is scheduled for a gastroscopy with oesophageal dilatation. There is no current active gastrointestinal infection. What is the recommended endocarditis prophylaxis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis should only be considered in the following situations: prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair, previous infective endocarditis, cardiac transplantation with subsequent development of cardiac valvulopathy, and congenital heart disease involving unrepaired cyanotic defects, completely repaired defects with prosthetic material or devices within the first 6 months after the procedure, or repaired defects with residual defects at or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or device that inhibit endothelialisation. The presence of an active or non-active gastrointestinal infection does not affect the management of prophylaxis, but it may be advisable to postpone the procedure if possible.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man presents with swelling in his legs and frothy urine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with swelling in his legs and frothy urine for the past few weeks. He has no medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, he has pitting edema up to mid-thighs, an irregularly irregular pulse with an ECG showing fast atrial fibrillation, and a rising JVP with inspiration. His BP is 135/85 mm Hg, and he has weakness and sensory deficits in the right ulnar nerve and left posterior tibial nerve distribution. After receiving a loading dose of 1mg IV digoxin over 2 hours, the patient deteriorates and loses consciousness. A repeat ECG shows ventricular tachycardia, which progresses to ventricular fibrillation, and the patient does not survive resuscitation attempts. What is the most likely underlying disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AL amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Due to the high risk of digoxin toxicity in cardiac amyloidosis, it is not recommended to administer digoxin. This is because the drug binds strongly to amyloid fibrils. If a patient presents with Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rising on inspiration) and significantly elevated JVP, along with nephrotic syndrome and mononeuritis multiplex, it is important to consider amyloidosis. AA amyloidosis is caused by chronic inflammation, such as in rheumatoid arthritis, but there is no indication of a medical history that would predispose to this condition. Additionally, cardiac involvement is rare in AA amyloidosis, unlike in AL amyloidosis, which is caused by light chain disease and frequently affects the heart. In this case, the administration of digoxin has resulted in cardiac arrhythmia due to the drug’s increased effects on an amyloid heart.

      Cardiac amyloidosis is a condition that affects the heart and can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram. The ECG usually displays low-voltage complexes and a pseudoinfarction pattern, which is characterized by poor R wave progression in the chest leads. On the other hand, the echocardiogram shows a ‘global speckled’ pattern, which is a common feature of cardiac amyloidosis. This condition can cause damage to the heart and lead to heart failure if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and proper management are crucial for patients with cardiac amyloidosis.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman with mitral regurgitation presents to a cardiology clinic for routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with mitral regurgitation presents to a cardiology clinic for routine follow-up. Despite being asymptomatic and able to perform daily tasks, she has a NYHA functional classification of I. During examination, a loud rumbling pan-systolic murmur is heard at the apex, and it is discovered that she is in atrial fibrillation, which was previously unknown. An echocardiogram taken recently shows mild left atrial dilatation and an ejection fraction of 62%.

      What aspect of her medical history would provide the strongest indication for referral for valve replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Regurgitation

      Mitral regurgitation, also known as mitral insufficiency, is a condition where blood leaks back through the mitral valve on systole. This valve is located between the left atrium and ventricle, and when it doesn’t function properly, it can lead to a less efficient heart. While MR is common in healthy patients to a trivial degree and does not need treatment, severe cases can lead to irreversible heart failure. Risk factors for MR include age, renal dysfunction, and collagen disorders like Marfan’s Syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      There are several causes of MR, including coronary artery disease, mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever, and congenital defects. Symptoms tend to be due to failure of the left ventricle, arrhythmias, or pulmonary hypertension, and may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. A pansystolic murmur described as blowing is typically heard on auscultation of the chest.

      Diagnosis of MR is done through ECG, chest x-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment options include medical management with nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, and ACE inhibitors, as well as surgery in acute, severe cases. Repair is preferred over replacement in degenerative regurgitation, as it has been shown to have lower mortality and higher survival rates. When repair is not possible, valve replacement with an artificial or pig valve may be considered.

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man is being evaluated on the cardiology ward after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is being evaluated on the cardiology ward after returning from a vacation in Turkey. He was admitted to the hospital due to an anterior STEMI and received two stents. He has been recovering well and has not experienced any chest pain or worsening shortness of breath. During the examination, his blood pressure was 112/80, and his pulse was 67 and regular. His chest was clear, and the ECG showed anterior Q waves. What combination of drugs would you recommend for anti-platelet therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD and ticagrelor 90 mg BD

      Explanation:

      Anti-Platelet Therapy Post STEMI

      In the management of acute coronary syndrome, neither aspirin nor clopidogrel used as monotherapy are considered adequate due to the risk of in-stent restenosis. The standard loading dose used in this situation is clopidogrel 300 mg. However, in a subset of the Plato trial, ticagrelor was found to be associated with a 13% relative reduction in cardiovascular events compared to a conventional clopidogrel-based regimen. This has led to the use of ticagrelor in place of clopidogrel in major guidelines on anti-platelet therapy post STEMI. A loading dose of 180 mg stat is recommended at the time of diagnosis of STEMI. It is important to note that ticagrelor is also associated with an increased risk of bleeding events when compared to aspirin and clopidogrel.

      In addition to ticagrelor and clopidogrel, aspirin 75 mg OD is also recommended as part of anti-platelet therapy post STEMI. Rivaroxaban, a factor Xa inhibitor, is not typically used in this situation but is instead used in the management of chronic atrial fibrillation and venous thromboembolic disease.

      References:
      – Guidance for prescribing Ticagrelor to treat Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS)
      – Ticagrelor Versus Clopidogrel in Patients With ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndromes Intended for Reperfusion With Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old man was referred to clinic by his GP due to persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was referred to clinic by his GP due to persistent hypertension. He had no significant medical history except for a small myocardial infarction two years ago. His GP had recently measured his blood pressure and found it to be consistently high. An echocardiogram was ordered to assess his myocardial function after the previous infarction, which showed mild left ventricular hypertrophy but no systolic dysfunction. He was a non-smoker, had a healthy diet, and was of average height and weight. As a first-line anti-hypertensive, what medication should the GP prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post Myocardial Infarction Patients

      In patients who have suffered a myocardial infarction, either a beta blocker or an Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is typically prescribed. However, in cases where left ventricular systolic dysfunction is not present, ramipril has been shown to be the most effective in reducing cardiac events. Therefore, it is the logical choice for treatment in this patient group.

      It is important to note that while both beta blockers and ACE inhibitors are effective in treating post myocardial infarction patients, ramipril has been found to have a greater impact on reducing cardiac events. This is particularly true in cases where left ventricular systolic dysfunction is not present. As such, ramipril should be considered as the first-line treatment option for these patients. By selecting the most effective treatment option, healthcare providers can help to improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of palpitations that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for three hours. He has a medical history of frequent palpitation attacks that are resolved by carotid sinus massage. Additionally, he has had asthma since childhood and takes regular inhaled salbutamol and budesonide. The 12 lead ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm and no visible P waves. What is the appropriate treatment to stop the tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a condition where the heart beats faster than normal due to abnormal electrical impulses in the heart. The first line of treatment for SVT is adenosine, but in some cases, it may not be suitable for the patient. In such cases, verapamil is the second line of treatment. This drug is effective in terminating SVT, especially in patients who cannot take adenosine due to contraindications such as asthma.

      Amiodarone and digoxin are not recommended for terminating SVT, and lidocaine is mainly used for ventricular tachycardias and has no effect on AV nodal conduction. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia, which is a common type of SVT. The patient’s history of previous attacks is typical of this condition.

      In summary, verapamil is an effective treatment for SVT when adenosine is contraindicated. It is important to diagnose the type of SVT accurately to provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man arrived at the Emergency department complaining of central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrived at the Emergency department complaining of central crushing chest pain that had been ongoing for five hours. He had a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and mixed dyslipidaemia. After three hours of chest pain, he began experiencing breathlessness.

      Upon examination, his blood pressure was 105/70 mmHg and his pulse rate was 100 beats per minute. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. His jugular venous pressure was not visible, and he displayed signs of pulmonary oedema upon chest auscultation. His heart sounds were normal but relatively quiet.

      An ECG revealed ST elevation in leads V1 to V6 of approximately 3 mm. A Swan-Ganz catheter was inserted, and the following pressure readings were obtained:

      - Right atrial pressure: 10/5 mmHg
      - Pulmonary artery pressure: 50/15 mmHg
      - Right ventricular pressure: 52/5 mmHg
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 20/14/16/10 mmHg

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis Post Anterior Myocardial Infarction

      After an anterior myocardial infarction (MI), the most likely diagnosis is left heart failure, as indicated by clinical signs. However, there are no signs of right ventricular (RV) failure. The pressure data shows a raised pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) but normal right atrial pressure. The pulmonary and RV pressures are mildly elevated, which is consistent with the diagnosis of left heart failure. If there were a ventricular septal defect, the PCWP would be markedly elevated along with the RV pressure, but this is not the case here. There is no evidence to suggest the other two conditions.

      Overall, the diagnosis post anterior myocardial infarction is likely to be left heart failure, which is supported by the raised PCWP and mildly elevated pulmonary and RV pressures. It is important to rule out other conditions such as RV failure and ventricular septal defect, which can have similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man presented with a fever of 38°C, a new systolic murmur,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented with a fever of 38°C, a new systolic murmur, and positive blood cultures for Streptococcus viridans in three sets of blood culture bottles. A transthoracic echocardiogram revealed vegetations on the mitral valve leaflets, and he has been receiving appropriate intravenous antibiotics for three weeks. However, his inflammatory markers have started to increase. What would be an inappropriate reason for urgently or urgently referring him for mitral valve replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persistent fever for five days

      Explanation:

      Indications for Surgery in Native Infective Endocarditis

      Native infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. According to the European Society of Cardiology, surgery may be necessary in certain cases. These cases include aortic or mitral infective endocarditis with severe regurgitation, valve obstruction, fistula into a cardiac chamber or pericardium causing refractory pulmonary oedema or cardiogenic shock. Surgery may also be necessary in cases of aortic or mitral infective endocarditis with severe acute regurgitation and persisting heart failure or echocardiographic signs of poor haemodynamic tolerance (early mitral closure or pulmonary hypertension).

      In addition, surgery may be necessary in cases of locally uncontrolled infection, persistent fever and positive blood culture more than 7-10 days, and infection caused by fungi or multiresistant organisms. It is important to note that surgery is not always necessary in cases of native infective endocarditis, and treatment will depend on the individual case and the severity of the condition.

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  • Question 31 - A 12-year-old girl who has had limited access to medical services presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl who has had limited access to medical services presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fatigue, lethargy, and difficulty breathing. Her parents inform you that she was discharged from the hospital soon after birth without a full paediatric examination. They also mention that she has not received any formal medical care and has been travelling with them around the country for the past few years.

      Upon examination, the girl appears thin and fatigued. Her right arm blood pressure (BP) is 145/92 mmHg. A late systolic murmur is audible, which seems to be loudest over the thoracic spine. Bilateral basal crackles consistent with heart failure and mild pitting ankle oedema are present. A plain chest radiograph shows evidence of notching of the posterior ribs.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Late Systolic Murmur

      When evaluating a patient with a late systolic murmur, several conditions should be considered. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital defect that can present with a murmur that is loudest over the thoracic spine. Other features may include rib notching on chest X-ray and differential blood pressures. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is characterized by a double apex impulse, large a waves in the JVP, and a late systolic murmur that increases with valsalva. Mitral regurgitation typically produces a pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla and may be associated with atrial fibrillation. Ostium secundum atrial septal defect can cause a right ventricular heave, a pulmonic flow murmur, and a split S2. Aortic stenosis is characterized by an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids and may be accompanied by a heaving apex beat or an S4. Echocardiography and other imaging modalities can help confirm the diagnosis and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after experiencing palpitations while...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after experiencing palpitations while exercising at the gym. She has a past medical history of heart surgery to repair a congenital defect and an abnormal valve.
      Upon examination in the ED, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her heart rate is 90 bpm and regular. She is not experiencing any signs of heart failure. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a short PR interval, as well as right bundle branch block (RBBB) and a delta wave.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Ebstein’s Anomaly with WPW Syndrome

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a rare congenital heart disease that results from abnormal formation of the tricuspid valve, atrialisation of the right ventricle, and associated defects such as ASD. Patients with Ebstein’s anomaly may also present with Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome, as seen in this case with the presence of delta waves and short PR interval on ECG.

      Digoxin and verapamil are not recommended for arrhythmias associated with WPW as they may worsen tachycardia. DC cardioversion is the preferred acute management for tachyarrhythmia, but for long-term management, radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway is preferable, especially in younger patients like this one.

      It is unlikely that the patient’s presentation was due to uncomplicated SVT, as the abnormal resting ECG with short PR interval, delta waves, and RBBB suggests otherwise. Lown–Ganong–Levine syndrome, another pre-excitation syndrome, only presents with a short PR interval without delta waves or abnormal QRS complex.

      Amphetamine toxicity and thyrotoxicosis can cause tachyarrhythmia but should not affect PR interval or cause delta waves. Therefore, the diagnosis of Ebstein’s anomaly with WPW syndrome is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation, given his past surgical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 33 - A 40-year-old man presents to his GP with worries about undergoing invasive procedures....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his GP with worries about undergoing invasive procedures. He underwent a tissue aortic valve replacement five years ago due to infective endocarditis that did not improve with medical treatment.

      Would he need prophylactic antibiotics for any of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal investigation at a site where there is suspected infection

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for people undergoing dental or non-dental procedures in the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and upper and lower respiratory tract. This includes procedures such as urological, gynaecological, obstetric, childbirth, ear, nose, throat, and bronchoscopy. Chlorhexidine mouthwash should also not be used as prophylaxis against infective endocarditis for those at risk undergoing dental procedures.

      In summary, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for most procedures, and chlorhexidine mouthwash should not be used as a substitute. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine if antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary for specific procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old woman presented to the hospital in her 32nd week of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presented to the hospital in her 32nd week of pregnancy with complaints of dyspnea. She had been experiencing progressively worsening symptoms for the past eight weeks and was unable to lie flat due to shortness of breath. The patient had no significant medical history except for a previous admission for a dislocated lens two years ago. This was her first pregnancy, and her urine dipstick was negative for protein. After undergoing various tests during her hospital stay, including cardiac catheterization, the following data was obtained:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 76 -
      Inferior vena cava 72 -
      Right atrium (mean) 74 9
      Right ventricle 75 60/8
      Pulmonary artery 74 58/26
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 30
      Left ventricle 98 150/25
      Aorta 97 150/44

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s Syndrome and Aortic Incompetence

      Marfan’s syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disease that is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by various clinical features such as arachnodactyly, high-arched palate, lenticular dislocation, arm span greater than height, and aortic incompetence. Aortic incompetence is a condition where the aortic valve fails to close properly, leading to blood flowing back into the left ventricle. This results in a wide pulse pressure in the aorta and a very high left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP). If the LVEDP is greater than 20 mmHg, it may suggest irreversible LV dysfunction.

      Although all the conditions listed are associated with aortic regurgitation, the clinical description best fits with Marfan’s syndrome. Cardiovascular complications of the disease limit the lifespan, and aortic incompetence is more likely to occur during pregnancy when there is a greater cardiovascular workload. Therefore, it is important for individuals with Marfan syndrome to receive regular monitoring and treatment to manage their condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 35 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations, headaches, and dizziness for the past three days. She reports feeling her heart pounding, which causes her to become dizzy and feel faint, occurring three to four times per day. She denies having diabetes or hypertension.

      The patient has a long-standing history of headaches and is convinced that there is a serious issue with her brain, although her doctors do not agree. Her younger sister has had epilepsy for the past 15 years. Four days ago, she was diagnosed with a UTI and is currently being treated with ciprofloxacin. Her medication history includes olanzapine and occasional paracetamol for her headaches.

      Upon examination, her pulse is 135 bpm with an irregular rhythm, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Her systemic examination is unremarkable. A cardiac monitor shows runs of ill-sustained polymorphic tachycardia, and IV lidocaine does not elicit a response.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition is caused by an acquired long QT syndrome resulting from the use of both ciprofloxacin and olanzapine. This syndrome can lead to syncope and palpitations due to polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). While these episodes typically end on their own, they can also progress to fatal ventricular fibrillation. The corrected QT interval during these arrhythmias is typically greater than 0.5 seconds.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - A 62-year-old man is admitted to the cardiology ward after experiencing central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is admitted to the cardiology ward after experiencing central chest heaviness and shortness of breath. He has been diagnosed with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and underwent percutaneous coronary intervention in the catheter lab. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      Two days into his admission, the patient's vital signs are as follows:
      - Temperature: 36.5ºC
      - Heart rate: 48 beats/min
      - Blood pressure: 121/77 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 17 breaths/min
      - Saturations: 96% on air

      Upon examination, the patient's chest is clear, and heart sounds are normal. He denies chest pain and has soft calves with no evidence of edema.

      ECG results show dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes, as well as ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and observation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ECG shows complete heart block, which is a common complication following an inferior myocardial infarction due to disruption of blood flow to the AV node. Unlike complete heart block following an anterior MI, which indicates significant myocardial damage and requires permanent pacing, bradyarrhythmias post-inferior STEMI are usually transient and resolve spontaneously. Atropine is an effective emergency treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, but in this case, a period of observation is preferred as the patient is asymptomatic. Isoprenaline infusion is contraindicated in patients with asthma. Synchronised electrical cardioversion is only indicated in the presence of hypotension, chest pain, or syncope, which are not present in this patient.

      Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features

      Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.

      First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.

      Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.

      It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a medication he was...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a medication he was prescribed after suffering a heart attack. He informs the doctor that the cardiology team has put him on atorvastatin, but he is hesitant to take it due to negative experiences his relatives had with simvastatin, such as muscle pain and sleep disturbances. Although he has no family history of early-onset hypercholesterolemia, several of his relatives are taking statins after experiencing cardiac events.

      What are the available options for his secondary prevention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with atorvastatin at the current dose

      Explanation:

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 38 - A 16-year-old girl with a history of Noonan syndrome presents to the Cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with a history of Noonan syndrome presents to the Cardiology Clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, pitting oedema in both ankles, and reduced exercise tolerance. On examination, her blood pressure is 115/80 mmHg, pulse is regular at 80 bpm, and there are prominent a waves in the jugular venous pressure. A soft systolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge, and mild pitting oedema is observed in both ankles. The chest is clear. What is the most probable cardiac diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Nicotine Replacement Therapy for Smoking Cessation

      Smoking cessation is a challenging process, especially for individuals with a long history of smoking. Abrupt cessation without any aid may have a high chance of failure. Therefore, nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is recommended as the most beneficial option for patients who want to quit smoking. NRT can help reduce secondary smoking, which can be of great benefit to the patient’s child. However, it is important to monitor the child closely for any ill effects of the mother’s smoking during pregnancy.

      Hypnotism may be useful as an adjunct in some patients, but it is not a primary option for smoking cessation. Varenicline and bupropion are other pharmacological options for smoking cessation. However, varenicline is not recommended for patients with a psychiatric history, despite recent studies indicating that this effect may be overstated. Buproprion is effective but is not recommended for people with a history of seizures as it may lower the seizure threshold.

      In conclusion, NRT is the most beneficial option for smoking cessation. However, other options such as hypnotism, varenicline, and buproprion may be considered depending on the patient’s medical history and individual needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for smoking cessation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 39 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started after eating. He describes the pain as excruciating and located in the center of his abdomen. The pain lessens during periods of starvation, and he passed dark red blood within his stools on one occasion. He also reports feeling unwell for the last couple of days, with night sweats and tiredness. His medical history includes angina, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and COPD. He is a smoker and does not consume alcohol. On examination, he has an elevated heart rate, absent pedal pulses bilaterally, and a purpuric rash on both halluxes. Initial investigations reveal abnormal blood results, including an elevated creatinine level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol atheroemboli

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol atheroemboli can occur when arteries with atheromatous plaques are manipulated, such as during angiography. This can lead to the dissemination of cholesterol emboli throughout the body, affecting multiple organs. Symptoms may include a low-grade inflammatory response with fever and malaise, as well as a vasculitic rash on the distal extremities. The respiratory, gastrointestinal, and renal systems may also be affected, potentially leading to renal failure and proteinuria. It is important to differentiate cholesterol atheroemboli from contrast nephropathy, as the latter tends to be less severe and does not typically involve cutaneous or other organ involvement.

      Cholesterol embolisation is a condition where cholesterol deposits break off and can lead to renal disease. This condition is commonly seen as a result of vascular surgery or angiography, but can also occur due to severe atherosclerosis, especially in large arteries like the aorta. Symptoms of cholesterol embolisation include eosinophilia, purpura, renal failure, and livedo reticularis.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old IV drug user presents to the ED with fevers and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old IV drug user presents to the ED with fevers and feeling unwell. He reports a recent flu-like illness and difficulty finding injection sites, resulting in the use of groin vessels. On examination, he appears emaciated with a BMI of 17 kg/m2 and a murmur consistent with pulmonary regurgitation is heard on cardiovascular exam. Respiratory exam reveals pockets of infection suggestive of pneumonia. Lab results show a Hb of 98 g/l, MCV of 95 fl, WCC of 12.5 × 109/l with neutrophils of 9.8 × 109/l, Na+ of 136 mmol/l, K+ of 5.6 mmol/l, Cr of 190 µmol/l, urea of 9.8 mmol/l, and an ESR of 90 mm/hour. CXR shows multiple areas of patchy consolidation with abscess formation. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Likely Diagnosis and Differential Diagnoses for a Man with IV Drug Abuse and Chest X-Ray Findings

      The most likely diagnosis for a man with IV drug abuse and chest X-ray findings consistent with septic emboli distributed via the pulmonary vasculature is Staphylococcus aureus endocarditis. This is supported by evidence of poor injection technique and right-sided valvular disease. Diagnosis involves collecting multiple blood cultures and imaging affected valves via echocardiography. Treatment involves antibiotics targeted against S. aureus.

      Differential diagnoses include Streptococcus bovis endocarditis, which is most commonly isolated in patients with colon cancer; Klebsiella pneumonia, which is associated with sputum production and CXR changes in the upper lobes and is commonly seen in those with underlying conditions such as alcoholism, diabetes, or COPD; Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia, which is less likely due to the presence of abscesses and inability to explain the patient’s murmur; and Pseudomonas endocarditis, which is uncommon in those who were previously healthy and is associated with a characteristic skin lesion (ecthyma gangrenosum) and requires surgical treatment.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 41 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. His ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. His ECG reveals a broad complex tachycardia at 180 beats/min, indicating ventricular tachycardia. Despite receiving a 300mg bolus of amiodarone and a subsequent 900 mg infusion over 24 hours via a central venous line, he experiences a recurrence of VT at the same rate on the second day of admission. His blood pressure is 140/75 mmHg. What treatment options should be considered at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lidocaine infusion

      Explanation:

      Despite receiving a therapeutic dose of amiodarone and sufficient loading, the patient’s refractory VT persists. Further boluses of amiodarone are unlikely to have any additional therapeutic effects. Not treating the patient is not an option as his myocardium is unlikely to tolerate the persistent tachycardia for much longer without reducing left ventricular output and causing arrest. Although the patient is not haemodynamically unstable, emergency DC cardioversion is not warranted. Similarly, emergency VT ablation is not appropriate after only 1st line treatment. The second line treatment is intravenous lidocaine, which will be administered as a bolus followed by an infusion regimen over 6.5 hours.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. Amiodarone is the preferred drug and should be administered through a central line. Lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment, and verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be needed, especially in patients with significantly impaired LV function. It is important to note that a broad complex tachycardia may result from a supraventricular rhythm with aberrant conduction, so proper diagnosis is crucial.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old man has been referred to the hospital's emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been referred to the hospital's emergency department due to fluctuating confusion and a severe headache that has been ongoing for 4 hours. The patient's medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis that occurred 2 months ago, and he is currently taking rivaroxaban 20 mg OD.

      Upon examination, the patient is oriented to person but unable to recall the time or his location. There are no signs of head injury, and his temperature is 36.5 degrees, pulse rate is 90 bpm, and blood pressure is 149/80 mmHg. A brief assessment of his peripheral nervous system reveals no abnormalities, and his pupils are size 3 and equal.

      An urgent CT scan of the head reveals blood in the ventricular system. What is the most appropriate immediate management to limit the bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)

      Explanation:

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old man has been referred to your clinic due to a family...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been referred to your clinic due to a family history of Marfan's syndrome. The patient is currently not experiencing any symptoms.

      What is the primary investigation that should be conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An echocardiogram to assess the size of the aortic root

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is not associated with delta waves or prolongation of the QT interval, so performing an ECG would not be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Similarly, there is no association with premature coronary artery disease, so a stress echocardiogram would not be useful. Although there is an association with pneumothorax, a chest x-ray would not be necessary if the patient is asymptomatic.

      However, an echocardiogram to assess the aortic root would be helpful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome. Enlargement of the aortic root is an important factor in risk stratification for aortic dissection, which is a serious complication of the condition. There is no association with myositis.

      It is important to note that the diagnosis of Marfan’s syndrome is primarily based on clinical assessment and the Ghent criteria. While the fibrillin I gene is known to be associated with the condition, not all patients with Marfan’s syndrome have this gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 44 - Which patients should be evaluated for statin therapy in the primary prevention of...

    Incorrect

    • Which patients should be evaluated for statin therapy in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 year cardiovascular risk predicted to be >10%

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Lipid Modification and Cardiovascular Risk Assessment

      The NICE guidelines on Lipid modification (CG181) suggest that patients with a predicted 10-year cardiovascular risk of more than 10% should be considered for statin therapy. In addition, healthcare professionals should assess and offer modification for risk factors such as BMI and obesity, blood pressure, alcohol consumption, smoking status, fasting blood glucose, renal function, liver function, family history, and fasting lipid profile. However, cardiovascular risk assessment tools are not perfect and tend to have particular strengths and weaknesses. Some methods underestimate the risk associated with race, diabetes, age, and family history, while patients with inherited disorders such as familial hypercholesterolaemia will have their cardiovascular risk grossly underestimated. Therefore, these patients require individual specialist assessment. The NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 calculator for assessing 10-year cardiovascular risk.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old woman, who has a history of migraines, presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who has a history of migraines, presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of a pounding sensation in her head. This started suddenly following the use of her sumatriptan medication. She says that she usually feels a slight headache after using sumatriptan but that this usually settles after a couple of minutes. On this occasion, the pounding sensation has lasted for 20 minutes and she is starting to feel uncomfortable.

      On examination, her pulse is 190 beats per minute (bpm) and her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Neurological examination reveals no focal deficits and her pupils are equal and reactive to light.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a narrow complex, regular tachycardia without any obvious P waves. Vagal manoeuvres are unsuccessful.

      A venous blood sample is taken and run through the blood gas machine. It reveals the following:


      pH 7.40 7.35–7.45
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l

      Which of the following would be the management of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV verapamil

      Explanation:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a common arrhythmia that requires prompt management. According to Resuscitation council (RSC) guidelines, the first-line treatment for narrow-complex regular tachycardia is vagal manoeuvres, followed by adenosine. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatic patients, and beta-blockade should be avoided. In such cases, verapamil is the recommended agent, given intravenously at a dose of 2.5-5 mg. It is important to monitor the patient closely during the administration of any drug and record a rhythm strip continuously to capture the termination of the arrhythmia. Digoxin and sotalol are not recommended for narrow-complex regular tachycardia. DC cardioversion is reserved for cases with adverse features such as shock, ischaemia, heart failure, or syncope. By choosing the right drug, SVT can be managed effectively and safely.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 46 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. He has been experiencing worsening palpitations since being diagnosed with a chest infection by his GP two days ago and starting oral antibiotics. He feels very unwell and severely short of breath. The patient has a history of myocardial infarction, AF, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he has a heart rate of 167 bpm, blood pressure of 87/50 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 93% on 5 litres of oxygen, and a temperature of 36.5ºC. He appears very unwell and distressed with bilateral crepitations to his mid-zones and peripheral edema to his thighs. His ECG shows atrial fibrillations. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient with decompensated AF is to perform a synchronised DC cardioversion immediately. This is because the patient is experiencing a tachyarrhythmia that has led to acute heart failure and shock, possibly due to an underlying infection. To avoid causing asystole, the shock must be synchronised to occur during an R wave, which the defibrillator will detect and pause until it identifies before delivering the shock. If three shocks fail to restore rhythm, amiodarone should be administered, while adenosine is used for haemodynamically stable narrow complex tachycardia. It is important to note that administering fluids may worsen pulmonary oedema in this situation.

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation

      Cardioversion may be used in two scenarios for atrial fibrillation (AF): as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      In the elective scenario for rhythm control, the 2014 NICE guidelines recommend offering rate or rhythm control if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and starting rate control if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain.

      If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised. Patients who have risk factors for ischaemic stroke should be put on lifelong oral anticoagulation. Otherwise, patients may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological methods.

      If the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately. NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological.

      If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old man presents to Cardiology clinic with exertional chest pain following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to Cardiology clinic with exertional chest pain following a recent permanent pacemaker insertion for pre-syncopal episodes associated with bradycardia. He reports an improvement in his pre-syncopal symptoms since the procedure. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia, and takes metformin and atorvastatin. What is the likely cause of his chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Exertional chest pain is not typically associated with pacemaker lead malposition, costochondritis, or Bornholm disease (a viral infection causing lower chest pain). However, pacemaker syndrome can occur with a VVI pacemaker that results in simultaneous atria and ventricle conduction, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, dizziness, and hypotension.

      Given the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia, as well as her pre-existing conduction system disease, she is a likely candidate for coronary artery disease. The pacemaker insertion has improved her heart rate and increased her energy demands, which may have unmasked underlying coronary ischemia. Therefore, an angiogram is necessary for further evaluation.

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG does not exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.

      For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 48 - A 63-year-old woman with a history of type two diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypothyroidism,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with a history of type two diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, and dementia is being reviewed by the medical team prior to discharge. She was admitted to the hospital due to a lower respiratory tract infection and now feels well enough to be discharged. During her admission, her metformin was stopped for the first two days, but her other medications remained the same as in the community.

      Despite being confirmed as taking ramipril, the patient's blood pressure remains persistently high. What is the most appropriate course of action to control her hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of ramipril and check U&Es within 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      To address the patient’s hypertension, the recommended course of action is to raise the dosage of ramipril and conduct U&Es testing within 1-2 weeks. Rather than adding a second anti-hypertensive, the first step should be to increase the low dose of ramipril. It is crucial to monitor renal function after starting or increasing the dosage of an ACE inhibitor, as any decline in renal function would require immediate investigation. If the patient did not have diabetes, amlodipine would have been a more suitable choice for an anti-hypertensive medication.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man complains of chest pain. He reports that the pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man complains of chest pain. He reports that the pain is sharp, aggravated by breathing in, and confined to the right side of his chest. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications.

      Here is the ECG report:

      P waves - Normal morphology
      PR interval - 140 ms
      QRS - 110 ms
      QTc - 420 ms
      T waves - Inverted in V1-V6
      ST segments - No elevation or depression

      What is the most probable interpretation of these ECG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal variant

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that a man of this age has coronary artery disease, especially since there is no ST elevation present, making an acute STEMI even more improbable. While T-wave inversion can be a symptom of an NSTEMI or stable angina, the patient’s age and lack of risk factors make these diagnoses unlikely. Prinzmetal’s angina, which is caused by vasospasms, is a possibility, but it typically presents with ST elevation. In young Afro-Caribbean patients with no cardiovascular risk factors, widespread T-wave inversion in the chest leads can be a normal variant, making it the most probable diagnosis. However, since the patient’s pain is pleuritic in nature, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses such as pneumothorax.

      Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs

      When analyzing an athlete’s ECG, there are certain changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, junctional rhythm, which originates from the AV node instead of the SA node, first degree heart block, which is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, and Mobitz type 1, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, which is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. It is important to recognize these normal variants in order to avoid unnecessary testing or interventions.

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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a road traffic accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a road traffic accident where she sustains multiple injuries including an open fracture of her left tibia and fibula. The following day she has an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia and fibula and remains in hospital for physiotherapy. She is quite immobile during this period and then develops subsequent painful swelling and erythema of the left calf. Subsequent ultrasonography confirms a left-sided above knee deep vein thrombosis.

      Before treatment starts, she develops sudden onset weakness in her right leg and right arm, dysarthric speech and a reduction in conscious level. Subsequent CT scanning confirms the presence of a left-sided infarct in the middle cerebral artery territory. Doppler investigation of the carotids shows a 20% stenosis on the left side and 10% on the right side. The 24-hour tape shows average heart rate 52 bpm with 1.5s pauses maximum, sinus bradycardia.

      What feature from further investigations would best explain this woman's presentation, given that she is now 50 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patent foramen ovale (PFO)

      Explanation:

      PFOs have been associated with a higher likelihood of experiencing a stroke. Additionally, there is some indication that subclinical DVTs may contribute to cryptogenic stroke when combined with a PFO.

      However, there is not enough evidence to suggest that closing a PFO will decrease the risk of stroke.

      All of the options except for E are known to increase the risk of stroke, but they cannot explain how embolism occurs in individuals with normal carotids and sinus rhythm. E, on the other hand, is not linked to a greater likelihood of experiencing an embolic stroke.

      Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale

      Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.

      Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.

      The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.

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  • Question 51 - A 75-year-old woman with advanced lung cancer arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with advanced lung cancer arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of facial swelling, shortness of breath, and headache. Upon examination, an echocardiogram reveals cardiac tamponade, and an urgent pericardiocentesis is performed to alleviate her symptoms. What is the most likely finding on physical examination of a patient experiencing acute cardiac tamponade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rise in JVP on inspiration

      Explanation:

      Signs of Cardiac Tamponade

      Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that occurs when fluid accumulates in the sac surrounding the heart, putting pressure on the heart and preventing it from functioning properly. The most common signs associated with cardiac tamponade include pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign, tachycardia, muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and an impalpable apex beat. Pulsus paradoxus refers to a fall in blood pressure on inspiration, while Kussmaul’s sign is a rise in JVP on inspiration. Tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate, while muffled heart sounds indicate that the heart is not functioning properly. Hypotension is low blood pressure, and an impalpable apex beat means that the heartbeat cannot be felt. These signs are important to recognize as they can indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

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  • Question 52 - You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old man comes for review following a recent, short admission to hospital where he was treated for a paracetamol overdose. He has no past medical history of hypertension or any other problems.

      During the review, he is found to have a manual blood pressure reading of 155/90 mmHg. Clinical examination of cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, as is urine dip and fundoscopy. Given this information what should be your next course of management in relation to his blood pressure?

      Start lisinopril
      10%
      Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
      80%
      Arrange to check blood pressure again following a two week interval
      5%
      Start nifedipine
      2%
      Screen for causes of secondary hypertension
      3%

      In 2011 the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its 2006 guideline for the management of hypertension (see the link below for the quick reference guide). Within this guideline, the first line use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in those found to have an elevated clinic reading (> 140/90 mmHg) is emphasised. When using ABPM to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, two measurements per hour are taken during the persons waking hours. The average value of at least 14 measurements are then used to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension.

      Generally speaking, secondary causes of hypertension should be sought in; patients under 40 who lack traditional risk factors for essential hypertension, patients with other signs and/or symptoms of secondary causes, and patients with resistant hypertension. Although in reality the most common cause of secondary hypertension is hyperaldosteronism, and as such a trial of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone is often employed as both a therapeutic and diagnostic measure.

      Drug treatment of essential hypertension can be summarised as follows, but for a more detailed explanation see the link below;
      Step 1; Age <55 - ACE inhibitor. Age >55 or of black African or Caribbean origin - calcium channel blocker
      Step 2; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker
      Step 3; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker + thiazide-like diuretic
      Step 4; consider further diuretic or beta-blockade or alpha blocker and seeking expert advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      In 2011, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for managing hypertension, emphasizing the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) as the first line of diagnosis for those with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm hypertension.

      Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both diagnosis and treatment.

      Drug treatment for essential hypertension follows a stepwise approach, with ACE inhibitors recommended for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Combination therapy with ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers is recommended in step 2, followed by the addition of a thiazide-like diuretic in step 3. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For more detailed information, see the provided link.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

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  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus for five...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus for five years is admitted to a village hospital due to chest pain. He takes metformin 500 mg tds and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily for hypertension. On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2, has a pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. His ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Unfortunately, rescue PCI is not available, and he receives tenecteplase. His BM glucose concentrations range from 7-12 mmol/L, while his plasma glucose concentration obtained from the laboratory is 10.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0).

      What is the most appropriate treatment for his glycaemic control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence intravenous insulin infusion and stop metformin

      Explanation:

      IV Insulin Infusion in Acute Myocardial Infarction with Diabetes

      The DIGAMI study showed that patients with diabetes and myocardial infarction (MI) who were treated with IV insulin infusion followed by three months of subcutaneous insulin had lower mortality rates compared to those who received conventional therapy with oral hypoglycemic agents. Although DIGAMI II raised doubts about the need for prolonged insulin therapy, IV insulin infusion is still the most appropriate initial therapy for patients with acute MI and stress insult. Continuing metformin in this context is not advisable due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis.

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  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic seeking advice. She works as...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic seeking advice. She works as a teacher, maintains a healthy weight, and does not smoke. She is concerned because her mother and aunt both had heart attacks in their early thirties.
      During the examination, her weight is normal with a BMI of 22 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.
      Her fasting blood test results are as follows:

      LDL cholesterol 5.5 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
      Triglycerides 2.8 mmol/l < 1.5 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      TSH 1.2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Familial Combined Hyperlipidaemia

      Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is a common genetic disorder that increases the risk of premature cardiovascular disease. The first-line treatment for this condition is a statin, which can reduce LDL cholesterol levels and lower the risk of cardiovascular events. However, if triglyceride levels remain high, fenofibrate may be added to the treatment regimen. Dietary modifications may not have a significant impact on lipid parameters in individuals who already lead a healthy lifestyle. Ezetimibe is an option for individuals who cannot tolerate statin therapy or require additional lipid-lowering therapy. It is recommended to use ezetimibe in combination with a statin when serum cholesterol levels are not adequately controlled with the maximum tolerated dose of statin. It is important to identify and treat familial combined hyperlipidaemia early to prevent cardiovascular events.

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  • Question 55 - A 14-year-old boy with a history of congenital hearing loss presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with a history of congenital hearing loss presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after collapsing during a basketball game. He regained consciousness within a few minutes. He had started taking azithromycin for a sinus infection a week prior. On examination, his vital signs are stable, and cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 75 bpm, a PR interval of 0.16 s, a QRS interval of 0.12 s, and a corrected QT interval of 0.47 s. What is the most likely syndrome causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Long-QT syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a prolonged QT interval, which is normally between 0.35-0.43 seconds. When this condition is accompanied by congenital deafness, it is known as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome. Long-QT syndrome increases the risk of ventricular tachy-arrhythmias, which can lead to syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. The risk of tachy-arrhythmias is further increased by low levels of magnesium or potassium and medications that prolong the QT interval, such as clarithromycin. Beta-blockers are the preferred treatment for patients with long-QT syndrome. Other cardiac conditions include Brugada syndrome, which is characterized by ST elevation in leads V1-V3 and a RBBB pattern, Romano-Ward syndrome, which also involves a prolonged QT interval but without deafness, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, which is a pre-excitation syndrome with a short PR interval, broad QRS complex, and a delta wave, and Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome, which is another pre-excitation syndrome with a very short PR interval, normal QRS, and no delta wave.

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  • Question 56 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.

      - Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
      - Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure

      Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis

      There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.

      To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.

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  • Question 57 - A 39-year-old woman presents to the cardiology outpatient department with complaints of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents to the cardiology outpatient department with complaints of shortness of breath during exertion. She has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, an elevated jugular venous pulse and a loud P2 component of the second heart sound are noted.

      A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals an elevated mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) of 54 mmHg, which is confirmed with a right heart catheterization (RHC). Acute vasodilator testing during RHC shows a decrease in mPAP to 28 mmHg.

      Despite a thorough investigation, no identifiable cause for the abnormalities is found.

      What class of medications would be appropriate for the treatment of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium channel blockers

      Explanation:

      Patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension who have a positive response to vasodilator testing should be treated with calcium channel blockers. This is because pulmonary hypertension is diagnosed through right heart catheterization, with a mean pulmonary artery pressure of 25 mmHg or higher at rest indicating the condition. Vasodilator testing is then performed, and a positive response, indicated by a decrease in mPAP, suggests that the patient may benefit from calcium channel blockers. If no secondary cause is found, the patient likely has idiopathic pulmonary hypertension. Endothelin receptor antagonists, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, and prostacyclin analogues are not appropriate treatments for patients with a positive response to vasodilator testing, as they are typically used for patients with negative acute vasodilator testing.

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

      The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.

      Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.

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  • Question 58 - A 72-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of crushing central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of crushing central chest pain that started two hours ago. The patient has a history of ischaemic heart disease. The ECG results reveal the following:
      - ST elevation greater in lead II than in lead III with abnormal Q waves in II, III, and aVF
      - ST depression, tall, broad R waves and upright T waves in V1-3. Dominant R wave in V2
      - ST elevation in V5-V6

      Based on these findings, where is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left circumflex

      Explanation:

      The presence of ischaemic changes in leads I, aVL, and V5-6 is indicative of a left circumflex occlusion. This is a classic finding that corresponds to the cardiac anatomy as follows: ST elevation in V5-V6 indicates a lateral component of infarction, while ST elevation greater in lead II than in lead III with abnormal Q waves in II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior component of infarction. Additionally, ST depression, tall, broad R waves, and upright T waves in V1-3 with a dominant R wave in V2 suggest a posterior component of infarction. An example ECG with a description of these changes can be found at the provided link.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal ECG changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

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  • Question 59 - A 31-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after experiencing a cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after experiencing a cardiac arrest. He was shocked from ventricular fibrillation into sinus rhythm using an automatic defibrillator at the scene. He reports no chest pain prior to the event and has a normal medical history with no issues with glucose, blood pressure (BP), or cholesterol. He is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination in the ED, his Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13 and his BP is 120/80 mmHg. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows right bundle-branch block and ST elevation in the right precordial leads.

      What is the most appropriate treatment option for this 31-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Implantable cardioverter defibrillator

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Brugada Syndrome

      Brugada syndrome is characterized by right bundle-branch block and ST elevation in the right precordial leads associated with ventricular fibrillation and sudden death. The prognosis of patients depends on their history of previous syncope and inducibility of arrhythmias during ventricular stimulation. The treatment of choice for these patients is an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. However, a subset of patients may also be considered for therapy with quinidine, especially those who present with ‘VF storm’.

      Verapamil and amiodarone are not effective in managing arrhythmia associated with Brugada syndrome. Verapamil is usually a treatment option for patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, while amiodarone may be of value in patients with ventricular tachycardia related to ischaemic cardiomyopathy with decreased left ventricular function.

      Long-term anticoagulation is not of value in managing Brugada syndrome as the patient’s collapse is not due to a thromboembolic phenomenon. Beta blockade with atenolol may be considered for patients with long-QT syndrome to reduce the risk of ventricular tachycardia.

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  • Question 60 - A 67-year-old man was admitted from the community with an anterior STEMI to...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man was admitted from the community with an anterior STEMI to the local district general hospital. He complained of severe chest pain before his wife rang for help. She noted he was clammy and sweaty.

      About ten minutes after being transferred into the emergency department a nurse noticed that the patient looked unwell, appeared grey and poorly responsive. The nurse put out a peri-arrest call. The cardiac monitor showed a broad complex tachycardia. His femoral pulse was faintly palpable and his blood pressure was 76/36 mmHg.

      What immediate actions should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      If a patient with ventricular tachycardia is experiencing haemodynamic compromise, immediate DC cardioversion is necessary. However, if the patient is stable, administering amiodarone and magnesium may be considered after checking their electrolyte levels. It is crucial to ensure the patient is stable before transferring them for PCI. CPR is not recommended in this scenario as it is not a cardiac arrest situation.

      Understanding Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates from a ventricular ectopic focus. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which requires immediate treatment. There are two main types of VT: monomorphic VT, which is commonly caused by myocardial infarction, and polymorphic VT, which includes a subtype called torsades de pointes that is triggered by prolongation of the QT interval. The causes of a prolonged QT interval include congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions.

      When a patient shows adverse signs such as chest pain, heart failure, or systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg, immediate cardioversion is necessary. If there are no adverse signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. If drug therapy fails, electrical cardioversion may be required with synchronised DC shocks. Amiodarone, lidocaine, and procainamide are some of the drugs used to treat VT. However, verapamil should not be used in VT.

      If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be necessary. An ICD is particularly recommended for patients with significantly impaired left ventricular function. Understanding the causes and treatment options for VT is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

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  • Question 61 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with his daughter. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with his daughter. She is very concerned because he fainted while walking to the kitchen. He reports feeling dizzy and then losing consciousness, falling to the ground. He was unresponsive for about 20-30 seconds and had some shaking movements. He has a history of high blood pressure and takes a daily dose of amlodipine 5 mg.
      During the examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and the cardiovascular examination is unremarkable. Neurological examination is normal.
      The following investigations were performed:
      - Haemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l (normal range: 130-170 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      - Platelets (PLT): 180 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Cr): 120 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Resting electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm, no significant abnormalities
      - Chest X-ray (CXR): Mild cardiomegaly, no other significant findings
      Which of the following investigations is most likely to reveal the underlying cause of his fainting episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a condition that affects middle-aged women and leads to the gradual destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in fibrosis, cholestasis, and ultimately hepatic cirrhosis. Common symptoms include pruritis, fatigue, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. The most specific test for PBC is the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, which are present in over 90% of cases. Myeloma screening is less likely to be positive in PBC patients, as myeloma is a disease of older adults characterized by bone pain, anemia, and kidney disease. Smooth muscle autoantibodies and antinuclear antibodies are associated with antibody-negative PBC or autoimmune cholangitis. Anti-liver kidney microsomes (LKM) antibody testing is useful in diagnosing autoimmune hepatitis, but a liver biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Bone marrow aspiration is not specific for the diagnosis of PBC. In conclusion, the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most specific test for the diagnosis of PBC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 62 - A 29-year-old man presents with heart palpitations. He reports experiencing a couple of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents with heart palpitations. He reports experiencing a couple of episodes each week for the past 3 months, describing the palpitations as a rapid beating of his heart. He has no medical history and takes no regular medications.

      Upon performing an ECG, the following results were obtained:

      - P waves: Normal morphology, inverted in lead I
      - PR interval: 130ms
      - QRS: 110ms, with loss of R wave progression in chest leads
      - QTc: 410 ms
      - Axis: Right axis deviation

      What is the most likely explanation for these ECG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dextrocardia

      Explanation:

      ECG Axis Deviation: Causes of Left and Right Deviation

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) axis deviation refers to the direction of the electrical activity of the heart. A normal axis is between -30 and +90 degrees. Deviation from this range can indicate underlying cardiac or pulmonary conditions.

      Left axis deviation (LAD) can be caused by left anterior hemiblock, left bundle branch block, inferior myocardial infarction, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome with a right-sided accessory pathway, hyperkalaemia, congenital heart defects such as ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD) and tricuspid atresia, and minor LAD in obese individuals.

      On the other hand, right axis deviation (RAD) can be caused by right ventricular hypertrophy, left posterior hemiblock, lateral myocardial infarction, chronic lung disease leading to cor pulmonale, pulmonary embolism, ostium secundum ASD, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome with a left-sided accessory pathway, and minor RAD in tall individuals. It is also normal in infants less than one year old.

      It is important to note that Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a common cause of both LAD and RAD, depending on the location of the accessory pathway. Understanding the causes of ECG axis deviation can aid in the diagnosis and management of underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 63 - A 74-year-old man who is generally healthy and in good shape comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man who is generally healthy and in good shape comes in with syncope and a sinus pause lasting nine seconds. What type of permanent pacemaker (PPM) is appropriate for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DDDR

      Explanation:

      Pacemaker Codes

      Pacemakers are devices used to regulate the heartbeat of individuals with certain heart conditions. They are classified by a code of up to five letters, known as the NBG Pacemaker code. This code was developed by the North American Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology (NASPE) and the British Pacing and Electrophysiology Group (BPEG).

      The code consists of five categories: Chamber(s) Paced, Chamber(s) Sensed, Mode(s) of Response, Rate Modulation, and Multisite Pacing. The first category refers to which chamber or chambers of the heart are being paced by the device. The second category refers to which chamber or chambers the device is sensing the heartbeat from. The third category refers to the mode of response, such as triggered or inhibited. The fourth category refers to whether the device can adjust the heart rate based on activity level. The fifth category refers to whether the device is capable of pacing multiple sites in the heart.

      In the case of a 76-year-old individual with a nine-second asystolic pause causing syncope, a dual chamber permanent pacemaker (DDDR) is recommended. This is because both chambers of the heart need to be paced, and the device should have a responsive element to increase heart rate with exercise. AAI/VVI/VVIR pacemakers alone are insufficient, and a biventricular pacemaker is not warranted in this case. the NBG Pacemaker code can help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate device for their patients with heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 64 - A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after feeling unwell for some time. While waiting, he suddenly collapses and becomes unresponsive. He is quickly transferred to the resuscitation area where he is attached to a defibrillator, gains IV access, and has his airway secured. The monitor shows VF and he is given a shock. Despite continued chest compressions, he remains in VF after the second shock. What is the next immediate step in management according to current resuscitation guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One shock and immediately restart chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Importance of Continuous Chest Compressions in Cardiac Arrest

      Current UK resuscitation guidelines highlight the significance of minimizing interruptions in chest compressions during a cardiac arrest. It is recommended to restart chest compressions immediately after each shock, before any other action is taken. The rhythm assessment and pulse check should be conducted after two minutes of continuous chest compressions. The guidelines also suggest a single shock strategy.

      In advanced life support, adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes, and amiodarone should be given after three shocks. Additionally, brief periods of echo (10 seconds) are now supported during an arrest situation, but it should be performed at the end of two minutes of compressions.

      Therefore, the most appropriate immediate step in a cardiac arrest situation is to administer one shock and immediately restart chest compressions. This approach ensures that the patient receives continuous chest compressions, which is crucial for their survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 65 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She reports no cough or sputum and the pain is constant. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication except for her pregnancy supplements. On examination, she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Her blood pressure is 112/76 mmHg and her heart rate is 90 beats per minute. There are no abnormal findings on chest auscultation and her heart sounds are normal. However, there is swelling in her left leg from above the knee down to the ankle, with pitting edema and collateral superficial veins.

      The emergency department registrar has ordered several blood tests, which reveal:

      Hemoglobin: 120 g/L
      Platelets: 450 x 10^9/L
      White blood cells: 10.2 x 10^9/L

      Troponin T: 5 ng/L (<14 ng/L excludes cardiac damage)
      D-dimer: 1.2 mg/L (<0.5)
      C-reactive protein: 15 mg/L (<10)

      A chest x-ray is unremarkable.

      During the post-take ward round, the consultant suspects a pulmonary embolism and wants to order the most appropriate first investigation for this patient.

      What is the recommended first investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: USS Doppler of legs

      Explanation:

      This woman displays symptoms that suggest she may have both a pulmonary embolism (PE) and a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right leg.

      According to current guidelines, the recommended course of action in this scenario is to conduct a chest X-ray followed by an ultrasound Doppler of the legs. If a DVT is detected, the patient should be treated with anticoagulants without exposing the baby to radiation. If the ultrasound is negative and the chest X-ray is normal, the patient should be given the option to choose between a V/Q scan or a CTPA. While a V/Q scan carries a slightly higher risk of childhood cancers for the baby, a CTPA carries a slightly increased risk of breast cancer for the mother over her lifetime.

      Investigation of DVT/PE during Pregnancy

      Guidelines updated in 2015 by the Royal College of Obstetricians recommend different investigations for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy. For suspected DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed if there is clinical suspicion. On the other hand, for suspected PE, an ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients. If women also have symptoms and signs of DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed. If DVT is confirmed, no further investigation is necessary, and treatment for VTE should continue. The decision to perform a V/Q or CTPA should be taken at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist.

      When comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy, CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer (increased by up to 13.6%, background risk of 1/200 for the study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation. On the other hand, V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared with CTPA (1/50,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000). D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism as it is often raised in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 66 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. Her symptoms have been progressively worsening over the past two weeks and she now experiences difficulty breathing even at rest. The patient has a history of mitral valve prolapse and is awaiting surgery, but has not yet been given a date. Additionally, she has polycystic ovarian syndrome, type 2 diabetes, and depression, and takes metformin, sertraline, and furosemide.

      Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and has bilateral crepitations without wheezing upon chest auscultation. She also has a raised JVP and a systolic murmur. A chest X-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Despite receiving IV diuretics, the patient remains hypoxic and short of breath. What type of ventilatory support would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.

      For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.

      While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 67 - An 82-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic for medication review for his...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic for medication review for his atrial fibrillation (AF). He had previously experienced paroxysmal AF, but it has now become permanent and he failed a recent cardioversion. A past medical history of diabetes mellitus is noted.During examination, his BP is 150/80 mmHg and his pulse is 70 bpm in AF. There is residual weakness in his left leg from a previous stroke. Routine blood tests reveal an elevated creatinine of 135 µmol/l.What is the most significant risk factor for predicting the likelihood of a future stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous stroke

      Explanation:

      The CHADS2VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF). The score takes into account various factors, with previous stroke and age over 75 years being the most significant, scoring 2 points each. Other factors considered include congestive heart failure, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, vascular disease, age between 65-74 years, and female sex.While renal failure is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, it is not included in the CHADS2VASc score for AF patients. Hypertension, often associated with renal impairment, is considered a weaker risk factor than previous stroke or transient ischemic attack.Diabetes mellitus is also a risk factor for future stroke, but it is considered a lesser risk factor compared to prior stroke or transient ischemic attack.Hypertension is a risk factor for future stroke, but it is also considered a lesser risk factor compared to previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, scoring only 1 point on the CHADS2VASc score.Overall, understanding the CHADS2VASc score can help healthcare providers assess the risk of stroke in AF patients and develop appropriate treatment plans to reduce the risk of future strokes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 68 - A 29 year-old man with a history of asthma presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old man with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and wheezing for the past two days, and has been using his salbutamol inhaler multiple times per day to manage these symptoms.

      Upon examination, the patient appears alert and comfortable, but reports a fluttering sensation in his chest. His pulse rate is 180 bpm and his blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. Oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals equal bilateral air entry with mild polyphonic wheeze throughout.

      A 12-lead ECG shows a narrow-complex regular tachycardia at 180 bpm with pseudo r' waves after each QRS complex in lead V1.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT). The first-line management for SVT is vagal manoeuvres, such as the Valsalva manoeuvre or carotid sinus massage. In AVNRT, a retrograde p-wave may be visible in continuity with the QRS complex, appearing as a ‘pseudo r’ wave in lead V1 or a ‘pseudo s’ wave in the inferior leads. If the SVT is regular and narrow-complex without adverse features, vagal manoeuvres should be attempted first before considering other treatments such as IV Verapamil or synchronised DC cardioversion. Adenosine and metoprolol should be avoided as they may worsen bronchospasm.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by the sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, there are several options available. Vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is also an option.

      Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation. Beta-blockers are a common choice for long-term management, while radio-frequency ablation is a more permanent solution that involves destroying the abnormal tissue causing the SVT.

      In summary, SVT is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin and is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT. Acute management options include vagal maneuvers, intravenous adenosine, and electrical cardioversion. Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 69 - A 78-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing several episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing several episodes of loss of consciousness. The patient cannot recall the events, but his family reports that there is no clear pattern to them. Most of the episodes were unwitnessed, except for the most recent one where he became pale, his eyes rolled back, and he fell onto a chair. Some minor flickering was noted. Upon regaining consciousness, he was briefly confused and anxious but soon realized where he was. The cardiovascular examination was unremarkable, with no postural hypotension, but his blood pressure was 105/60 mmHg, and there was no focal neurology isolated. His blood tests were normal.

      The patient's ECG showed sinus rhythm: 68/min with Right Bundle Branch Block (RBBB). A previous echocardiogram in his notes indicated that he has a degree of heart failure with an ejection fraction of 40%. A 72-hour holter monitor revealed no significant pauses.

      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange performance of Carotid sinus and Tilt-test

      Explanation:

      Before initiating any management, it is important to conduct further testing to rule out other potential causes of collapse or syncope, such as autonomic dysfunction. According to the ESC Guidelines on Cardiac Pacing and Cardiac Resynchronization therapy (2013), less than half of patients with BBB and syncope have a final diagnosis of cardiac syncope, so it is crucial to investigate other possibilities. Carotid sinus massage and electrophysiological studies, such as a tilt-test, may provide valuable information. While an MRI head and EEG are also options, they can be arranged later if necessary.

      A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 70 - A 26-year-old primigravida presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old primigravida presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of nausea and vomiting with associated right upper quadrant pain. She has no significant medical history and is only taking pregnancy vitamins. During her 33-week midwife appointment 2 weeks ago, it was noted that she had gained weight and had borderline hypertension. The decision at that appointment was to monitor.

      Upon examination, she appears unwell and is clinically dehydrated. There are no significant findings on respiratory and cardiovascular examinations, but abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus and right upper quadrant tenderness. Pitting edema is present up to the mid-shin. All observations are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg. She is alert and oriented, denies any headaches, and has no rashes.

      Blood tests are performed, and the results are as follows:

      - Hb 100 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets 97 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 7.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - PT 13.0 seconds (9.5-13.5)
      - APTT 39.0 seconds (30-40)
      - Na+ 132 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 150 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 350 u/L (3 - 40)
      - Albumin 34 g/L (35 - 50)

      An ultrasound of the abdomen shows patchy areas of hepatic enhanced echogenicity. Fetal monitoring is satisfactory, but the baby is in the breech position.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give steroids and organise a caesarean section within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for HELLP syndrome in this patient, who is 33 weeks pregnant, is delivery of the baby. However, prior to delivery, steroids may be given to aid in the maturation of the baby’s lungs. Induction of labor is not appropriate as the baby is in a breech position. The patient does not have any signs of liver hematoma, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or hemodynamic instability, which would require immediate delivery.

      Other possible diagnoses to consider are cholecystitis and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). However, the patient does not have any signs of infection, ruling out cholecystitis. TTP typically presents with neurological symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and seizures, which the patient does not have. The recommended treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma.

      Understanding HELLP Syndrome

      HELLP syndrome is a serious condition that can occur in the later stages of pregnancy. It is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and a Low Platelet count. Although there are similarities with severe pre-eclampsia, some patients may present with no prior history, leading many specialists to consider it a separate entity. However, it is important to note that around 10-20% of patients with severe pre-eclampsia may develop HELLP.

      Symptoms of HELLP syndrome include nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant pain, and lethargy. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are conducted to check for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and a Low Platelet count.

      The only known treatment for HELLP syndrome is the delivery of the baby. In some cases, this may need to be done earlier than planned to prevent further complications. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms of HELLP syndrome and seek medical attention immediately if they experience any of them. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the outcome for both mother and baby.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 71 - A 67-year-old man visits his doctor for assessment. He reports no current issues....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his doctor for assessment. He reports no current issues. He is taking lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide for high blood pressure and ibuprofen as needed for knee pain. During the physical examination, the doctor observes a healthy-looking man with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute with a regular rhythm and blood pressure of 158/80 mmHg. The JVP is not visible, and the patient has a sustained non-displaced apical impulse. No thrills or audible murmurs are present, and his heart sounds are normal. The chest is clear upon auscultation, the abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. The patient has trace pedal oedema. The doctor reviews the ECG that was conducted earlier that day.

      What is the most probable finding on this man's ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep S waves in V1 and V2 and tall R-waves in V5 and V6

      Explanation:

      During a cardiology examination, the patient’s sustained apical impulse suggests left ventricular hypertrophy, which can be confirmed by identifying deep S waves in V1 and V2 and tall R-waves in V5 and V6 on an ECG. The patient has a history of hypertension and elevated blood pressure during the exam, which can contribute to left ventricular hypertrophy if not well controlled. However, the patient’s normal heart rate makes it unlikely that they have third-degree heart block. Additionally, the patient’s regular rhythm suggests they do not have atrial fibrillation. The absence of symptoms makes it unlikely that the patient has acute pericarditis, which is characterized by PR-segment depression and global ‘saddle-shaped’ ST-segment elevation and typically presents with pleuritic chest pain.

      ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy

      Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 72 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intermittent palpitations, breathlessness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intermittent palpitations, breathlessness, and non-specific chest discomfort. The previous day she had found out that she was 14-weeks pregnant which had caused significant stress and anxiety. She has a long history of anxiety and depression, managed by cognitive behavioural therapy. She reported that she had intermittently had episodes of palpitations and shortness of breath for the past 10 years and had attributed this to her anxiety. These symptoms had worsened over the past couple of weeks and today her symptoms were intolerable. Her medications consisted of over-the-counter vitamin supplements.

      What is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition was observed during the beginning of the second trimester, which was deemed too early for PPCM. However, the changes in her haemodynamics due to pregnancy were sufficient to activate her underlying ARVC.

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.

      The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.

      Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 73 - A 50-year-old man with a dual chamber permanent pacemaker implanted three years ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a dual chamber permanent pacemaker implanted three years ago for complete heart block was admitted to the CCU due to a fever of 38°C. During a transthoracic echocardiogram, a vegetation was found on the ventricular lead of the pacemaker. He has been given IV antibiotics in the Emergency department. Which statement below is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He will require prolonged antibiotic therapy before removal of the pacemaker

      Explanation:

      European Society of Cardiology’s Recommendations for Cardiac Device Related Infective Endocarditis

      The European Society of Cardiology has issued guidelines for the management of infective endocarditis related to cardiac devices. According to these guidelines, patients with cardiac device related infective endocarditis should undergo urgent extraction of the implanted device followed by prolonged antibiotic therapy. Even patients with large vegetations (>10mm) should undergo percutaneous extraction. After device removal, the need for reimplantation should be reassessed. Additionally, routine antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended before device implantation.

      In summary, the European Society of Cardiology recommends a comprehensive approach to the management of infective endocarditis related to cardiac devices. This includes prompt device removal, prolonged antibiotic therapy, and reassessment of the need for reimplantation. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications associated with cardiac device related infective endocarditis.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 74 - A 58-year-old man with a history of COPD, for which he takes fluticasone...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of COPD, for which he takes fluticasone and salmeterol (combined) and salbutamol, presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath and left-sided pleuritic chest pain. He takes several medications for hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, but has recently started a pulmonary rehabilitation programme and is walking up to 2 miles per day. On examination, his BP is 150/88 mmHg with pulse 90/min and regular. He has diminished breath sounds over the left-hand side on auscultation. Oxygen saturation is reduced at 91%. CXR reveals a left-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Management of Pneumothorax

      When managing a pneumothorax, the appropriate intervention depends on the size and symptoms present. For a pneumothorax with a size of 8-14 Fr, a chest drain insertion is preferred over air aspiration if significant symptoms such as shortness of breath are present. Discharge and review in 24 hours is recommended after successful chest drain insertion.

      For a primary pneumothorax with a size of 1-2 cm and no associated symptoms, air aspiration is the recommended intervention. Discharge and review in 2 weeks is appropriate after successful air aspiration.

      For a secondary pneumothorax, where patients are usually admitted to the hospital for 24 hours, high-flow oxygen is the correct course of action after successful air aspiration. Discharge and review in 2-4 weeks is recommended after successful air aspiration for a secondary pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 75 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath, heavy chest pain and syncope over the last week. He is currently undergoing adjunct chemotherapy for a non-resectable soft tissue sarcoma with known metastasis in his thorax and mediastinum.

      Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160) Platelets 120 * 109/L (150 - 400) WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145) K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0) Bicarbonate 20 mmol/L (22 - 29) Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      On physical examination, his JVP is raised at 6cm, there are no precordial thrills, and he has quiet S1 and S2.

      Observations show: Heart rate of 120/min and regular Blood pressure 90/50 mmHg Respiratory rate 30/min Temperature 36.7ºC AVPU - A

      What is the specific ECG finding associated with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrical alternans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Tamponade

      Cardiac tamponade is a medical condition where there is an accumulation of pericardial fluid under pressure. This condition is characterized by several classical features, including hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds, which are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Other symptoms of cardiac tamponade include dyspnea, tachycardia, an absent Y descent on the JVP, pulsus paradoxus, and Kussmaul’s sign. An ECG can also show electrical alternans.

      It is important to differentiate cardiac tamponade from constrictive pericarditis, which has different characteristic features such as an absent Y descent, X + Y present JVP, and the absence of pulsus paradoxus. Constrictive pericarditis is also characterized by pericardial calcification on CXR.

      The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis. It is crucial to recognize the symptoms of cardiac tamponade and seek medical attention immediately to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 76 - A 70-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following a myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following a myocardial infarction. During your clinic review, he reports no dyspnoea, orthopnoea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and there is no persistent leg oedema. His examination indicates he is euvolaemic. His ECG shows sinus rhythm, Q waves in the inferior leads, a PR interval of 208/msec, normal QRS, and no signs of intraventricular conduction delay. He is anxious and asks if there are any additional measures he can take to reduce his rate of hospitalisation besides maintaining a healthy lifestyle and taking his medications. He mentions his brother, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, has a just-in-case box at home and is entitled to vaccinations. He wonders if there are any vaccinations or additional antibiotics/medications that could be useful to him. What recommendations would you make for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      Annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.

      Patients with heart failure are at a higher risk of developing respiratory infections, which can worsen their condition and lead to decompensation. Therefore, it is recommended that they receive both the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. While pneumococcal vaccination is typically a one-time regimen, patients with chronic diseases or asplenia may require additional vaccinations, such as Haemophilus influenzae B.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis, such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, is not recommended for reducing infection rates in heart failure patients. Additionally, there is no strong evidence supporting a pill-in-the-pocket strategy for managing heart failure, but patients should be aware of the potential need for diuretic therapy manipulation and when to seek urgent medical care.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 77 - A 43-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with her second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with her second episode of paroxysmal AF in the past year. She reports experiencing palpitations for two hours before seeking medical attention. She is a non-smoker, drinks two glasses of wine per week, and runs up to 10 miles per week on a treadmill. After successful electrical cardioversion, her BP is 115/70, pulse is 65 and regular, and routine bloods are normal. The 12 lead ECG confirms AF pre-cardioversion and normal sinus rhythm post-cardioversion. There is no chest or ankle swelling, and her BMI is 24. What is the most appropriate long term management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for ablation

      Explanation:

      Referral for Ablation in Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation

      It is becoming increasingly recognized that early intervention with ablation in patients with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation has a higher chance of success. However, concomitant comorbidities such as mitral valve disease, obstructive sleep apnea, obesity, and left ventricular dysfunction may reduce the chances of success and push towards drug therapy as an alternative. Among the anti-arrhythmic options, bisoprolol is considered a first-line option, with flecainide as an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate beta-blockade. Amiodarone is not recommended for long-term use due to its negative risk-benefit profile, while digoxin only reduces ventricular rate and has no effect on maintaining sinus rhythm. Therefore, referral for ablation should be considered early in the management of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 78 - A 45-year-old man presents for a health check at a mobile cardiovascular risk...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a health check at a mobile cardiovascular risk assessment clinic. He does not take any medication and has a sedentary lifestyle. He has never smoked and his father had a heart attack at the age of 60.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Total cholesterol: 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)
      - Triglycerides: 4.0 mmol/L (0.45-1.69)

      What is the most common cause of an isolated hypertriglyceridaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Mild Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Mild hypertriglyceridaemia, or elevated levels of triglycerides in the blood, is commonly caused by obesity. This is due to a decrease in the effectiveness of lipoprotein lipase activity and an increase in the production of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). In the UK, approximately 20% of individuals are considered obese, and this number is on the rise. Alcohol consumption is also a significant contributor to hypertriglyceridaemia.

      Aside from obesity and alcohol, there are other secondary causes of mild hypertriglyceridaemia. These include pregnancy, hypothyroidism, the use of diuretics, and pancreatitis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertriglyceridaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 79 - A 19-year-old male complains of gradually worsening shortness of breath over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male complains of gradually worsening shortness of breath over the past year. He denies cough, wheeze or chest pain and has no significant medical history. During examination, a loud second heart sound is noted and an ECG reveals right bundle branch block (RBBB) with left axis deviation (LAD).

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ostium primum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing symptoms of pulmonary hypertension, such as progressive shortness of breath and a loud second heart sound. The ECG indicates the presence of an atrial septal defect (ASD), which typically causes RBBB. By examining the axis, it is possible to differentiate between ostium primum ASDs (which usually have a LAD) and ostium secundum (which usually have RAD). Based on the ECG findings, it is more likely that the patient has an ostium primum defect.

      Additionally, while ostium secundum are more common overall, they typically do not present as early as the patient in this case. In contrast, ostium primum defects are usually located lower in the septum and may involve the atrioventricular valves, leading to a faster progression of symptoms and earlier presentation.

      Understanding Atrial Septal Defects

      Atrial septal defects (ASDs) are a type of congenital heart defect that can be found in adulthood. They are associated with a high mortality rate, with 50% of patients dying by the age of 50. There are two types of ASDs: ostium secundum and ostium primum. Ostium secundum is the most common type, accounting for 70% of all ASDs.

      ASDs can be identified by certain features, such as an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of S2. They can also lead to embolisms passing from the venous system to the left side of the heart, which can cause a stroke.

      Ostium secundum ASDs are often associated with Holt-Oram syndrome, which is characterized by tri-phalangeal thumbs. On an ECG, ostium secundum ASDs are typically identified by RBBB with RAD.

      Ostium primum ASDs, on the other hand, present earlier than ostium secundum defects and are often associated with abnormal AV valves. On an ECG, they are typically identified by RBBB with LAD and a prolonged PR interval.

      Understanding the different types of ASDs and their associated features can help with early identification and treatment, potentially improving outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 80 - A 68-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease attends his regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease attends his regular cardiology appointment. He complains of progressively worsening shortness of breath over the past 3 months and can only walk 100 yards before needing to rest. He also experiences occasional chest pain during exertion, which resolves with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, lansoprazole, bisoprolol, ramipril, spironolactone, and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate as required.

      During examination, his heart rate is regular at 80 bpm, and his blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg. His chest is clear with good air entry bilaterally, and his saturations are 94% on room air. His abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable organomegaly. He has pitting oedema to his knees.

      ECG results show sinus rhythm, Q waves, and T wave inversion in V1-V4, with a QRS duration of 110ms.

      Echocardiogram results show a left ventricular ejection fraction of 33% and a pulmonary arterial pressure of 20 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ivabradine

      Explanation:

      As a treatment for heart failure, digoxin is typically reserved as a third-line option. Its use is particularly beneficial for patients who also have atrial fibrillation. On the other hand, while furosemide can alleviate symptoms associated with fluid buildup in heart failure, it does not have a significant impact on mortality rates and is not typically recommended as a next step in treatment.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 81 - An 82-year-old man visits his GP one week after undergoing right hemicolectomy for...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man visits his GP one week after undergoing right hemicolectomy for colonic carcinoma, complaining of feeling generally unwell. He has been experiencing night sweats and increasing lethargy. During the examination, a pan-systolic murmur is detected and he has a fever of 37.8oC. Further investigations reveal abnormal results, including a high ESR and vegetations on the mitral valve seen on trans-oesophageal echocardiography. Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Infective Endocarditis: Organisms and Associations

      Infective endocarditis is a rare complication of colonic resection, caused by gut bacteria entering the bloodstream and forming vegetations on heart valves. Bacteroides fragilis and Streptococcus viridans are commonly associated with community-acquired infection, while Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause overall and often associated with healthcare-acquired disease. Staphylococcus epidermidis is most associated with early prosthetic valve endocarditis. Pseudomonas, which may contaminate recreational drugs, is associated with IV drug abuse and has a high morbidity and mortality rate. Management of endocarditis typically involves broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as metronidazole in the case of B. fragilis. Dental procedures may be relevant in the presence of valvular heart disease due to the presence of S. viridans in the mouth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 82 - A 75-year-old woman, previously healthy, arrived at the Emergency department complaining of fevers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman, previously healthy, arrived at the Emergency department complaining of fevers, chills, and fatigue for the past four weeks. Upon examination, she had a soft pansystolic murmur and a temperature of 39°C. She also had bilateral palmar erythema and splinter hemorrhages on both hands. Blood cultures were taken, and all three sets grew Streptococcus viridans. A transthoracic echocardiogram revealed a mobile mass on the posterior mitral valve leaflet with moderate mitral regurgitation. The patient was immediately started on appropriate IV antibiotics. What factor has the greatest impact on prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Old age

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Endocarditis

      Prognosis for endocarditis varies depending on the patient’s characteristics. Poor prognostic factors include old age, presence of prosthetic valve endocarditis, insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, and severe co-morbidities. Other factors that are crucial in prognostic assessment are endocarditis caused by fungus or Gram negative bacilli, endocarditis complications such as heart failure, renal failure, stroke, septic shock, and periannular complications, and echocardiographic findings such as severe left sided valve regurgitation, low left ventricular ejection fraction, pulmonary hypertension, large vegetations, and severe prosthetic valve dysfunction. It is important to consider these factors when assessing the prognosis of patients with endocarditis. Proper management and treatment can improve outcomes for those with poor prognostic factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 83 - A 79-year-old man presents with an isolated intracapsular fracture of his left neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents with an isolated intracapsular fracture of his left neck of femur. He is alert and oriented, and reports feeling lightheaded and briefly losing consciousness upon standing. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and takes furosemide for ankle swelling.

      During examination, a soft mid-systolic murmur is heard loudest over the second left intercostal space, radiating to the carotid area. The second heart sound is muffled. Due to angina, he is unable to leave his home without assistance and requires informal caregiver support for daily activities due to breathlessness. His ECG shows typical electrical criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, but no acute changes.

      He has been scheduled for the planned orthopaedic trauma list later today. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform surgery as planned, under general anaesthesia with invasive monitoring

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetic Management for a Patient with Critical Aortic Stenosis and Proximal Femoral Fracture

      This patient has critical aortic stenosis with heart failure and left ventricular hypertrophy, and presents with a possible cardiogenic syncope. Surgery for their proximal femoral fracture cannot be delayed for echocardiography, as the patient’s outcome is likely to be significantly worse if surgery is postponed. A spinal anaesthetic is not recommended due to the risk of profound, uncontrolled, and irreversible autonomic blockade. Instead, a cardiostable general anaesthetic with invasive monitoring is a safer option for this patient, who is at high risk of morbidity and mortality in the perioperative period.

      Although a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) would provide useful information on left ventricular function, it would result in a significant delay to surgery. Therefore, the patient should be managed as if they have critical aortic stenosis with left ventricular systolic dysfunction and hypertrophy until proven otherwise. Aortic valve replacement would cause a considerable delay to lifesaving hip fracture fixation surgery, and may not reverse the end organ damage that has already occurred.

      Conservative management of proximal femoral fractures has a mortality rate approaching 100%, making surgery the most effective option for pain relief. A subarachnoid block is not recommended due to the risk of uncontrolled vasodilation, which could lead to a vicious cycle of decreased coronary perfusion and increased workload on the heart.

      In conclusion, performing surgery as planned under a cardiostable general anaesthetic with invasive monitoring is the least risky option for this patient with critical aortic stenosis and a proximal femoral fracture. This approach allows for titrated control of vasodilation and ensures stability during the perioperative period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 84 - A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal blood tests. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal blood tests. He has a medical history of hypertension, type two diabetes, obesity, and depression. The patient was prescribed atorvastatin two months ago due to elevated cholesterol levels identified during a routine QRISK assessment. A blood test was performed three months after starting the medication, which revealed an increase in alanine aminotransferase from 28 iU/L to 94 iU/L. All other blood tests were within normal ranges, except for cholesterol, which improved from 5.4mmol/L to 4.9mmol/L. How should the patient's atorvastatin treatment be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue atorvastatin and repeat LFT within 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The appropriate action in this scenario is to continue the patient’s atorvastatin medication and schedule a repeat liver function test within 4-6 weeks. Although the patient has experienced elevated transaminases after starting the statin, the levels are not more than three times the upper limit of normal. It is important to note that this is not three times higher than the patient’s baseline result, but rather three times higher than the maximum normal range. Therefore, it is acceptable to continue the medication while monitoring liver function. If the transaminase levels had been greater than three times the upper limit of normal, it would have been appropriate to discontinue the atorvastatin and repeat the liver function test. At this time, there is no need for an ultrasound as the cause of the elevated transaminases is clear, and there is no evidence of new muscle pain to warrant testing for creatinine kinase. Changing to a different statin may be considered if the patient is unable to tolerate the current medication, but this is not necessary in this case.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80mg for secondary prevention.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 85 - A 37-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with severe central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with severe central chest pain, nausea, vomiting, and fainting. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and uses cocaine occasionally. On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 170/80 mmHg, her pulse is 100 beats per minute (bpm), and she appears very unwell. Bilateral crackles are heard at both lung bases. The following investigations are conducted:

      Haemoglobin (Hb): 128 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC): 7.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT): 155 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr): 95 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l)
      Troponin: 2.5 μg/l
      Electrocardiogram (ECG): Anterior ST elevation consistent with acute myocardial infarction (MI)

      Further investigation reveals a 90% decrease in flow in the left main stem, but no focal lesion is identified in the coronary artery angiography. What is the most appropriate immediate management for her chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GTN

      Explanation:

      In a young and healthy patient with suspected STEMI, the use of cocaine can lead to the development of coronary vasospasm. This condition is characterized by the constriction of the coronary arteries, which can cause chest pain and other symptoms similar to a heart attack.

      The most appropriate initial management for coronary vasospasm is intravenous GTN, which helps to dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow. This is supported by the angiogram, which does not show a focal lesion that can be treated with angioplasty or stenting.

      While aspirin and LMW heparin are commonly used in the acute treatment of acute coronary syndrome, they have no role in the treatment of coronary vasospasm. Beta-blockers like atenolol, which are used to reduce the risk of post-infarct arrhythmias, may worsen vasoconstriction and should be avoided in the case of coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, the management of coronary vasospasm in a young patient with suspected STEMI involves the use of intravenous GTN to improve blood flow and avoid unnecessary interventions like angioplasty or stenting. Other medications like aspirin, LMW heparin, and beta-blockers are not indicated in this condition.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 86 - A 16-year-old boy visits his GP with complaints of experiencing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy visits his GP with complaints of experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. His mother accompanies him and reports that his exercise capacity has been gradually decreasing, and he is no longer able to participate in Saturday morning football games. Upon examination, the GP refers the patient to a cardiologist. The cardiologist performs a cardiac catheterization and obtains the following pressure and oxygen saturation data:

      Anatomical site: Oxygen saturation (%), Pressure (mmHg), End systolic/End diastolic
      - Superior vena cava: 74, -
      - Right atrium (mean): 75, 7
      - Right ventricle: 87, 50/12
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: -, 16
      - Left ventricle: 96, 140/12
      - Aorta: 97, 110/60

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The oxygen saturation increases between the RA and RV, indicating an abnormal connection between the two chambers through a VSD, which is supported by elevated right ventricular pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old male patient is rushed to the emergency department after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient is rushed to the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed cardiac arrest. He has a medical history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. Upon arrival, the paramedics are performing chest compressions and the patient is intubated. He has one blue cannula inserted in his right antecubital fossa and has already undergone two cycles of the current ALS protocol. The team leader requests to pause chest compressions and reviews the monitor, which shows a consistent VF rhythm. The defibrillator is being charged for a shock in accordance with the latest advanced life support guidelines.

      What is the appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Updated UK Resuscitation Council Guidelines Emphasize Importance of Chest Compressions

      The UK Resuscitation Council has released updated clinical guidelines for adult advanced life support in 2010, which include several changes. One of the most significant changes is the increased focus on the importance of good chest compressions during resuscitation. According to the new guidelines, chest compressions should continue while the defibrillator is being charged, and the oxygen supply to the patient should be removed during this time. The guidelines also state that only the team member performing chest compressions should be touching the patient while the defibrillator is charging, meaning that attempts to secure an IV line should be delayed until later.

      The updated guidelines also recognize the potential use of ultrasound during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, but emphasize that it should be performed at a different stage, such as while the pulse is being checked. These changes reflect the latest research and best practices in resuscitation, and are designed to improve outcomes for patients in cardiac arrest. By prioritizing chest compressions and minimizing interruptions, healthcare providers can increase the chances of successful resuscitation and improve overall survival rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 88 - A 65-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes came in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes came in for a routine check-up at the outpatient clinic. During his visit, it was discovered that his blood pressure had consistently been at 145/100 mmHg for the past few appointments, despite efforts to reduce his salt and alcohol intake. As a result, his primary care physician decided to start him on antihypertensive medication. What would be the most appropriate choice of medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Treatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the treatment of hypertension (CG127) to assist in selecting the appropriate antihypertensive medication. The guidelines recommend ACE inhibitors, calcium antagonists, or diuretics as first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or non-black, and for those over 55 years old or black. For patients with diabetes, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended as a compelling indication. However, for black patients of African or Caribbean origin and older patients, ACE inhibitors may not be as effective due to lower renin states.

      The guidelines also suggest that compelling indications, such as alpha-blockers for hypertensive patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia or beta-blockers for those with heart failure or angina, may override the initial treatment recommendations. The guidelines provide a clear framework for selecting the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for patients based on their individual characteristics and medical history.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 89 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a fall at...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a fall at home. He reports a history of episodic lightheadedness and a few falls over the past several months. His medical history includes coronary artery disease, ischaemic cardiomyopathy, chronic kidney disease stage 3, benign prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and peripheral arterial disease. He is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, tamsulosin, losartan, and gabapentin.

      During the physical examination, the patient appears well and has a heart rate of 78 beats/min with a regular rhythm. His blood pressure is 119/89 mmHg, his mucous membranes are moist, and his heart sounds are normal with a soft ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal border. His chest is clear to auscultation, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has trace peripheral oedema.

      What would be the most appropriate next steps in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check orthostatic vitals including heart rate and blood pressure at the bedside

      Explanation:

      When an elderly male patient presents with presyncope/syncope and is taking alpha-blockers for BPH, the first step in evaluation should be to assess for orthostatic hypotension. In this case, the patient has a history of presyncope and falls, along with comorbidities such as ischaemic heart disease and cardiomyopathy, and is taking medications that may contribute to hypotension. To clarify the diagnosis, checking the patient’s orthostatic vital signs at the bedside would be the next best step. If orthostatic hypotension is confirmed, discontinuing tamsulosin would be appropriate while continuing bisoprolol for his heart conditions. While a murmur may suggest aortic stenosis, checking orthostatic vitals is a simpler and easier first step. Similarly, administering IV fluids would not be necessary in this patient without signs of hypotension or dehydration. It is best practice to start with simpler tests before proceeding to more sophisticated ones.

      Understanding Orthostatic Hypotension

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition that is more commonly observed in older individuals and those who have neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, diabetes, or hypertension. Additionally, certain medications such as alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia can also cause this condition. The primary feature of orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure, usually more than 20/10 mm Hg, within three minutes of standing. This can lead to presyncope or syncope, which is a feeling of lightheadedness or fainting.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for orthostatic hypotension. Midodrine and fludrocortisone are two medications that can be used to manage this condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for orthostatic hypotension, individuals can take steps to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 90 - A 16-year-old boy presented with exercise-induced collapse and underwent cardiac catheterisation for investigation....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presented with exercise-induced collapse and underwent cardiac catheterisation for investigation. The results are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic

      Superior vena cava 74 -
      Inferior vena cava 72 -
      Right atrium 73 5
      Right ventricle 74 20/4
      Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
      Left ventricle 98 210/15
      Aorta 99 125/75

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Elevated Left Ventricular Pressures and Sharp Decline in Aortic Systolic Pressures

      The pressure in the left ventricle is high and there is a significant decrease in pressure between the left ventricle and the aorta during systole. This means that the heart is working harder to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the aorta. The steep drop-off in pressure can be an indication of aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve is narrowed and obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. It can also be a sign of other cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension or heart failure. Monitoring left ventricular and aortic pressures can help diagnose and manage these conditions. Proper treatment can help reduce the workload on the heart and improve overall cardiovascular health.

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  • Question 91 - A 27-year-old woman is scheduled for a complicated dental procedure. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is scheduled for a complicated dental procedure. She has a medical history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and had a ventricular septal defect surgically corrected at birth. During the same surgery, she also had to undergo aortic valve replacement due to a complication. About eight years ago, she was treated for suspected infective endocarditis. What factor is not a risk factor for the development of infective endocarditis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dental scale and polish procedure

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines on Dental Procedures and Infective Endocarditis Risk

      According to the 2008 NICE guidelines, undergoing a simple dental procedure does not increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis. However, healthcare professionals should be aware that certain cardiac conditions can put individuals at risk for this infection. These conditions include acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation, valve replacement, structural congenital heart disease (excluding certain fully repaired defects), previous infective endocarditis, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to take these cardiac conditions into consideration when assessing a patient’s risk for infective endocarditis. By identifying those at higher risk, appropriate measures can be taken to prevent infection, such as prophylactic antibiotics before certain dental procedures. Overall, following the NICE guidelines can help ensure the safety and well-being of patients with cardiac conditions.

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  • Question 92 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. He denies any history of wheezing and has not responded to a trial of albuterol inhalers. Upon further questioning, he reports intermittent chest pain during exertion and has experienced near-fainting episodes in the last month. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his pulse is 80 bpm. His BMI is 25kg/m2. He has a raised JVP with giant v-waves and a left parasternal heave. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Pulmonary Hypertension

      Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension (IPAH), previously known as primarily pulmonary hypertension (PPH), is a rare condition characterized by elevated pulmonary artery pressure without a clear cause. A typical presentation for IPAH includes syncope and ECG findings of right ventricular hypertrophy. Treatment typically involves calcium channel blockers, anticoagulation, and nebulized prostacyclin.

      Ischemic heart disease is unlikely in a young patient with no significant risk factors for coronary artery disease, despite intermittent chest pain on exertion. Chronic pulmonary emboli can lead to chronic pulmonary hypertension, but there are no risk factors for venous thromboembolism or DVT symptoms described. Loeffler syndrome, characterized by acute onset pulmonary eosinophilia, typically occurs secondary to an external trigger, which is not evident in this case. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) can cause significant breathlessness, but the ECG shows no features to suggest significant left ventricular hypertrophy, which would be expected if HCM was the underlying diagnosis.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for a young patient with pulmonary hypertension includes IPAH, but other conditions such as ischemic heart disease, chronic pulmonary emboli, Loeffler syndrome, and HCM should also be considered and ruled out.

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  • Question 93 - A 55-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) has been referred to the diabetic clinic. He is currently managing his diabetes through diet control alone. Over the past year, he has noticed a weight gain of 6 kg and experiences two to three episodes of nocturia most nights. He is an ex-smoker and drinks approximately 8 units of alcohol weekly.

      During examination, his body mass index is 33.5 kg/m2, blood pressure is 162/98 mmHg, and pulse is 78 beats per minute. Fundoscopy reveals scattered microaneurysms in both eyes and a crescent of hard exudates encroaching upon the macular in the right eye. Neurological examination reveals reduced light touch sensation in both feet to the ankles. Dipstick of his urine reveals protein (++) and glucose (+).

      Investigations show fasting plasma glucose of 7.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), sodium of 138 mmol/L (137-144), potassium of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea of 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine of 90 µmol/L (60-110), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7.8% (3.8-6.4), cholesterol of 4.0 mmol/L (<5.2), and triglycerides of 2.5 mmol/L (0.45-1.69).

      What is the most appropriate treatment to reduce his cardiovascular (CV) risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-hypertensive therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Cardiovascular Risk in Type 2 Diabetes Patients

      The most appropriate treatment for reducing cardiovascular risk in patients with type 2 diabetes should focus on controlling blood pressure. Evidence from the UK Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) showed that blood pressure control resulted in greater reductions in cardiovascular risk compared to tight glycemic control with insulin or sulfonylureas. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend using an ACE inhibitor as the first-line antihypertensive for patients under 55 years old and a calcium channel blocker for those over 55 years old. However, in patients with proteinuria, an ACE inhibitor may be a better choice regardless of age.

      Weight reduction alone has not been shown to reduce cardiovascular risk, and orlistat has not been proven to have this effect either. Statins are recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes, but the degree of benefit is higher when the baseline cholesterol is elevated. NICE guidelines recommend aiming for a cholesterol level of less than 4 mmol/L and LDL-C level of less than 2 mmol/L in diabetic patients.

      Insulin is not considered first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes as it can worsen weight gain. Metformin is generally tried first, but blood pressure control is still considered more beneficial for reducing cardiovascular risk in obese patients with type 2 diabetes. Overall, controlling blood pressure is the most effective way to reduce cardiovascular risk in patients with type 2 diabetes.

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  • Question 94 - A 62-year-old bus driver presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old bus driver presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest discomfort. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals T-wave inversion in leads II, III and aVF. The pain subsides within an hour and a repeat ECG shows no abnormalities. His troponin T level after 12 hours is < 0.05 µg/l (normal range 0–0.05 µg/l). He undergoes coronary angiography and receives a stent to his left coronary artery. During angiography, the other coronary arteries are found to have mild stenosis. He is discharged five days later.

      What advice should have been provided to him regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Driving After Unstable Angina

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for driving after an episode of unstable angina. For patients with a Class 1 driving license who have not had successful coronary intervention, they should not drive for one month. However, for those with a Class 2 license, driving may be permitted after at least six weeks, provided the exercise test requirements are met.

      If the patient has had successful coronary intervention and their left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is greater than 40% before discharge, they may be able to drive a car in one week if they are pain-free. However, for Class 2 vehicles, the patient should contact the DVLA and not drive until relicensing after at least six weeks.

      It is important to note that driving a heavy goods vehicle should not be attempted until the patient has been assessed by the DVLA. It is always better to err on the side of caution and follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

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  • Question 95 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of being a keen half marathon runner...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of being a keen half marathon runner in her 20's before having her family presents to the Cardiology Clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She has returned to work after the birth of her second child, but is breathless climbing the stairs or even on running only a few yards to catch the bus. On examination, she has a loud second heart sound, bilateral pitting lower limb oedema, and an unremarkable chest X-ray. Investigations reveal an elevated estimated pulmonary artery pressure, no signs of right/left shunt/atrial septal defect, and no evidence of pulmonary emboli. Acute vasoreactivity testing is positive. Her blood pressure is 125/72 mmHg, pulse is 62 bpm and regular, BMI is 22 kg/m2, and other investigation results are within normal values except for a slightly elevated creatinine level.

      Based on this information, what is the most appropriate first line therapy for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Primary pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries. The choice of therapy depends on several factors, including positive reactivity testing and the patient’s heart rate. Calcium channel antagonists (CCB) are the initial therapy of choice for patients who are vasoreactive. Amlodipine, a non-cardioselective CCB, is preferred over diltiazem, which can cause symptomatic bradycardia. Bosentan, a dual endothelin receptor antagonist, is used for patients who are not vasoreactive or as a combination therapy for those who have not responded to high dose CCB. Iloprost, a prostacyclin analogue, and sildenafil, a selective inhibitor of phosphodiesterase type 5, are also used for non-vasoreactive patients or as combination therapy. The choice of treatment should be individualized based on the patient’s clinical presentation and response to therapy.

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  • Question 96 - A 45-year-old adopted woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old adopted woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset crushing chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms anterior myocardial infarction (MI). She is a non-smoker. Her cholesterol on admission is 9.8 mmol/l, with relatively normal triglycerides, and a significant increase in low-density lipoprotein (LDL). You suspect she has familial hypercholesterolaemia. Physical examination reveals the presence of tendon xanthomata, corneal arcus, and xanthelasma.
      What is the most appropriate long-term management for her hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg OD

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing high cholesterol, it’s important to choose the right medication to achieve the desired results. Here’s a breakdown of some common cholesterol-lowering medications and their effectiveness:

      Atorvastatin 80 mg OD: This is the maximum dose of atorvastatin and is recommended for patients at high risk of cardiovascular events. If this dose doesn’t achieve the desired LDL target, ezetimibe or evolocumab can be added.

      Pravastatin 40 mg OD: This medication has only modest effects on LDL cholesterol and may not be effective for patients with high baseline levels.

      Atorvastatin 10 mg OD: This dose is unlikely to achieve the desired LDL target for patients with high baseline levels.

      Nicotinic acid 1.5 g OD: While this medication can improve HDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels, it may not specifically target LDL cholesterol. Additionally, many patients experience unpleasant side effects like itching and facial flushing.

      Bezafibrate 200 mg BD: Fibrates are effective for managing hypertriglyceridemia, but may not significantly impact cardiovascular risk.

      In summary, choosing the right cholesterol-lowering medication depends on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 97 - A 58-year-old man is recovering on the cardiology ward after suffering an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is recovering on the cardiology ward after suffering an anterior myocardial infarction when he suddenly deteriorates on day four.

      When you review him, his BP is 80/60 mmHg, his pulse is 100 and regular, he looks grey and clammy.

      There is a harsh systolic murmur over a wide area including the apex and left sternal edge.

      Additionally, there are extensive crackles on auscultation of the chest consistent with pulmonary oedema.

      What is the most appropriate intervention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-aortic balloon counter pulsation (IABCP)

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiogenic Shock Secondary to Acute Ventricular Septal Defect

      This patient is experiencing a severe medical emergency, with symptoms indicating cardiogenic shock caused by an acute ventricular septal defect. The key to a positive prognosis is stabilizing the patient’s hemodynamics. In this case, the best approach is to use intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation (IABCP) to support cardiac output, as the patient is experiencing hypotension and shock. While inotropes like adrenaline and noradrenaline can provide additional support after IABCP, they can also increase myocardial ischemia. Vasodilators like GTN can improve myocardial blood flow, but they are not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s hypotension. Similarly, furosemide alone is unlikely to be sufficient.

      Overall, the management of cardiogenic shock secondary to acute ventricular septal defect requires a careful balance of interventions to stabilize the patient’s hemodynamics and prevent further complications. IABCP is a crucial first step, followed by adjunctive support with inotropes if necessary. Vasodilators and diuretics may be appropriate in other cases, but in this situation, they are not recommended. With prompt and effective management, the patient has a better chance of recovery and improved outcomes.

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  • Question 98 - A 50-year-old CEO presents with sudden onset retrosternal chest pain accompanied by light-headedness....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old CEO presents with sudden onset retrosternal chest pain accompanied by light-headedness. She has no past medical history except for menopause six years ago and a brief course of hormone replacement therapy. Upon examination, her peripheries are cool, and her heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral oedema, and her calves are soft and non-tender. Her ECG shows ST elevation in V2-V4, and her troponin level is 0.8 (normal range <0.03). Overnight, percutaneous coronary intervention was performed, revealing no occlusions in her coronary arteries. However, ballooning of her left ventricular mid-cavity and apex was observed, along with left ventricular hypokinesia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing chest pain that sounds like it is related to their heart, and their troponin levels indicate a positive event. However, they do not have any risk factors for vascular disease, and their coronary vessels appear normal. The diagnosis is based on the appearance of the left ventricle, which shows apical ballooning, which is a clear indication of…

      Understanding Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy

      Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a type of heart condition that is not caused by a blockage in the arteries. Instead, it is associated with a temporary ballooning of the heart’s apex, which may be triggered by stress. The term Takotsubo comes from the Japanese word for an octopus trap, which describes the shape of the heart during this condition.

      The pathophysiology of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy involves severe hypokinesis of the mid and apical segments of the heart, while the basal segments continue to function normally. This results in a distinctive appearance of the heart, with the bottom appearing to balloon out while the top remains contracted.

      Symptoms of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy include chest pain and signs of heart failure. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show ST-elevation, and a coronary angiogram will typically be normal. Treatment for this condition is supportive, with the majority of patients improving with time.

      In summary, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a unique type of heart condition that can be triggered by stress. While it can cause significant symptoms, the prognosis is generally good with appropriate supportive care.

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  • Question 99 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and dizziness. She has experienced palpitations in the past, but this is the first time she has felt dizzy.

      Upon examination, she is found to be afebrile with a heart rate of 140 bpm and blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg. Her respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 96% on air. The rest of her physical exam is unremarkable.

      A 12-lead ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a QTc of 510 ms. Laboratory studies show:

      - Haemoglobin: 125 g/L (reference range for women: 115-160 g/L)
      - White blood cells: 8.7 * 109/l (reference range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Platelets: 280 * 109/l (reference range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (reference range: 135-145 mmol/L)
      - Potassium: 3.9 mmol/L (reference range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
      - Magnesium: 1.01 mmol/L (reference range: 0.70-1.05 mmol/L)
      - Urea: 2.5 mmol/L (reference range: 2.0-7 mmol/L)
      - Creatinine: 99 umol/L (reference range: 55-120 umol/L)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      IV magnesium sulfate is the recommended treatment for torsades de pointes, which is the condition this patient is presenting with. Her ECG shows polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a prolonged QT interval, a classic sign of torsades de pointes. This arrhythmia is characterized by rapid, irregular QRS complexes that appear to twist around the ECG baseline. Even if the patient’s serum magnesium levels are normal, IV magnesium sulfate should still be administered. In cases of pulseless torsades de pointes, immediate defibrillation is necessary, but since this patient is conscious and has a pulse, defibrillation is not required.

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation and sudden death. There are several causes of a long QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other factors that can contribute to a long QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The management of torsades de pointes typically involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate.

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  • Question 100 - A 32-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiology Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiology Department with complaints of heart palpitations. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. On examination, her BP is 120/80 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm and regular, and there is a systolic murmur with a fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An ECG shows left-axis deviation with an RBBB, and an ECHO reveals an ostium primum ASD. What are the potential risks to the pregnancy, if any?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No significant increase in risk compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Atrial Septal Defects

      Atrial septal defects (ASD) are generally well tolerated during pregnancy, with no significant increase in risk compared to the general population. However, it is important to close the defect prior to subsequent pregnancies. In cases where Eisenmenger syndrome is present, pregnancy is contraindicated and maternal mortality can be as high as 40%, especially in older women. Systolic flow murmurs are common during pregnancy and do not hold any prognostic significance in the absence of structural heart disease.

      While there is a small risk to the mother, up to 20% of fetuses may develop congenital heart defects. However, most cases of ASD are sporadic and the risk to the fetus is not expected to be as high as 20%. In cases where maternal mortality is significant, it is usually due to severe pulmonary arterial hypertension and Eisenmenger syndrome.

      Overall, pregnancy is generally well tolerated by women with ASD, with no significant increase in risk to the mother. However, it is important to monitor and manage any potential complications to ensure the health of both the mother and fetus.

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  • Question 101 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increased fatigue, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increased fatigue, shortness of breath, and difficulty walking up stairs. She was recently diagnosed with HIV and is currently on an HAART regimen containing abacavir. On examination, she has bilateral crackles on lung auscultation and her echocardiogram shows cardiomyopathy. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her pulse is 90 bpm.

      Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l), a white cell count of 5.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), a platelet count of 130 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l), a sodium level of 138 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), and a creatinine level of 98 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor related cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) therapy, which is commonly used in the treatment of HIV, can lead to cardiomyopathy by reducing vascular responsiveness and causing mitochondrial dysfunction. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility and dilative cardiomyopathy. While viral myocarditis is a possible cause, it is less likely in the absence of recent viral symptoms. Abacavir hypersensitivity, which can cause a hypersensitivity reaction in some patients, typically occurs within the first few months of treatment and is characterized by symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, malaise, and fever. Autoimmune disease and ischemic heart disease are also possible causes, but are less likely in a young patient with no history of these conditions.

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  • Question 102 - A 78-year-old man presents with a history of light headedness and a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with a history of light headedness and a recent episode of loss of consciousness. His wife reports that he complained of feeling dizzy before fainting and being unconscious for about a minute. Upon regaining consciousness, he recovered quickly and did not experience confusion. He denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, or palpitations.

      A 7-day holter was performed, revealing 3 episodes of bradycardia with a heart rate of 20-30 bpm, which correlated with pre-syncope episodes. Additionally, there were no P waves for 3.5 seconds during other events.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AAIR pacemaker

      Explanation:

      When dealing with pure sinus node dysfunction without AF or evidence of AV block, a DDDR pacemaker is often preferred over an AAIR pacemaker by most cardiologists. This is because many patients with this condition eventually develop AV block.

      The diagnosis of sick sinus syndrome can be challenging to manage due to the potential for bradyarrhythmias, tachyarrhythmias, or a combination of both. Pacemakers are effective in controlling bradyarrhythmias, while rate limiting drugs such as calcium channel blockers, digoxin, and beta blockers are useful in managing tachyarrhythmias. However, drug therapy for tachyarrhythmias may worsen bradyarrhythmias, which is why a pacemaker is often implanted before drug therapy is initiated.

      In this particular case, the patient has been experiencing symptomatic bradycardia episodes due to sinoatrial node disease, making an AAIR pacemaker the appropriate choice. AAI pacemakers are designed to both sense and pace the atria, making them ideal for isolated sinoatrial node disease. However, they are not suitable for patients with atrial fibrillation.

      VVI pacemakers, on the other hand, are designed to both sense and pace the ventricle, making them useful for pure sustained slow atrial fibrillation. Biventricular pacemakers are typically used in heart failure patients with left bundle branch block.

      A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 103 - A 57-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to his GP for a routine check-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to his GP for a routine check-up of his hypertension treatment. He has a history of hypercholesterolemia and was diagnosed with hypertension 3 years ago. Despite being on ramipril and amlodipine, his blood pressure readings have been consistently high over the past 4 months. He has already made lifestyle modifications by reducing salt intake and increasing physical activity. He denies smoking or drinking alcohol.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is recorded as 160/98 mmHg, and his pulse rate is 82/min. He has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and an elevated waist-to-hip ratio.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add chlortalidone

      Explanation:

      If a black individual with primary hypertension is already taking a calcium channel blocker and ACE-inhibitor but still has uncontrolled blood pressure, the next appropriate step is to add a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlortalidone or indapamide. In this case, the patient is taking ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, so adding another ACE inhibitor like benazepril is not recommended. Bariatric surgery is only an option for individuals with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with another significant disease that could be improved with weight loss. As this patient’s BMI is 32 kg/m2, bariatric surgery is not a suitable option. While continuing lifestyle changes, the patient requires a change in their drug regimen.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 104 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 37 weeks gestation presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 37 weeks gestation presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath. She denies cough or sputum production, haemoptysis, or calf pain. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a successful external cephalic version for a breech presentation five days ago and a resolved placenta praevia. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has no family history of note except for her mother's unexplained deep vein thrombosis at age 42. On examination, she has tachycardia, tachypnoea, and reduced oxygen saturation. Her blood pressure drops rapidly, and she becomes cool and clammy. Investigations reveal anaemia, thrombocytopenia, elevated INR and APTT, and a raised D-dimer. Arterial blood gases show respiratory alkalosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolus

      Explanation:

      DIC cannot be attributed to pulmonary embolism and there are no clinical indications of deep vein thrombosis. While septic shock can have similarities to amniotic fluid embolus, there is limited evidence of sepsis in this case.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

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  • Question 105 - A 56-year-old man is being evaluated on the cardiac ward 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is being evaluated on the cardiac ward 3 days after being admitted for an acute coronary syndrome event. He had previously suffered from an inferior myocardial infarction 5 years ago, which was treated with stenting. He is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril, bisoprolol, and indapamide. Upon examination, there are no notable findings, and he is considered fit for discharge.

      What is the most suitable choice for anti-platelet therapy upon discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin and ticagrelor

      Explanation:

      The latest guidelines from NICE recommend using ticagrelor and aspirin for secondary prevention after acute coronary syndrome, instead of clopidogrel and aspirin. Patients who are medically managed for ACS should be prescribed dual anti-platelet therapy, which includes aspirin 75 mg daily and ticagrelor 90 mg twice a day for 12 months. Ticagrelor is the preferred choice, even for those who have previously been treated with clopidogrel, unless the risk of bleeding outweighs the benefits. For patients at high risk of bleeding, DAPT should be continued for at least one month. For patients with MI at high ischaemic risk who have tolerated DAPT without bleeding complications, treatment with DAPT (ticagrelor 60 mg twice daily) in addition to aspirin for longer than 12 months and up to 36 months should be considered. If ticagrelor is not suitable, clopidogrel 75 mg daily (as well as aspirin) can be considered for longer than 12 months.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 106 - A 35-year-old pregnant patient is referred to the cardiology clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant patient is referred to the cardiology clinic with a history of regular fast palpitations. The gestational age is 27 weeks. There is no history of collapse and the patient is usually fit and well.

      You examine the patient. Pulse is 105 and regular and the blood pressure is 105/80 mmHg. Venous pressure is not elevated. Heart sounds are normal and a resting 12 lead ECG shows sinus rhythm only.

      What is an expected physiological change during a normal pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, the body undergoes several physiological changes. One of the most notable changes is the increase in heart rate by 10-20 beats per minute. Additionally, stroke volume and cardiac output also increase. However, venous pressure should remain constant due to a 25% reduction in systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.

      Another change that occurs during pregnancy is a drop in blood pressure during the first and second trimesters. This drop is due to the expansion of blood vessels and increased blood volume. However, by the third trimester, blood pressure should climb back up to pre-pregnancy levels.

      Overall, these changes are necessary to support the growing fetus and prepare the body for childbirth. It is important for pregnant individuals to monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 107 - You are the Senior House Officer (SHO) in the Cardiology Clinic and wish...

    Incorrect

    • You are the Senior House Officer (SHO) in the Cardiology Clinic and wish to start an elderly male patient, who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, on an agent in addition to his angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. He is a type II diabetic who is currently diet-controlled. His blood pressure is 155/90 mmHg.

      Which of the following is the most suitable next medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Second-line agents for hypertension in diabetics: A review of options

      When it comes to treating hypertension in diabetics, certain medications are not recommended as first- or second-line agents due to their adverse impact on blood glucose control. Beta-blockers and thiazides fall into this category, leaving calcium channel blockers (CCBs) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) as the preferred options. Amlodipine, a CCB, is recommended as the next logical choice if hypertension is inadequately controlled on ACEi monotherapy. Diltiazem, another CCB, is not recommended due to its potential to precipitate bradycardia. Valsartan, an ARB, can be used in combination with ACE inhibition in the treatment of heart failure, but may cause hyperkalaemia when used as a second-line agent for hypertension in diabetics. Atenolol and bendroflumethiazide, both not recommended as first- or second-line agents, are beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics, respectively. Understanding the options for second-line agents in hypertension management for diabetics is crucial for optimal patient care.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 108 - A 45-year-old woman with no medical history presents with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no medical history presents with a 6-month history of dyspnea during exertion. Her echocardiogram revealed impaired right ventricular function and elevated pulmonary arterial pressure of 78 mmHg, but good systolic function and ejection fraction of 80%. Right and left heart catheterization confirmed pulmonary arterial hypertension with a pressure of 49/24 mmHg. V/Q scan showed no chronic pulmonary emboli, CTPA showed no acute emboli, and ultrasound of the abdomen showed no portal hypertension. Currently, she is comfortable at rest but experiences shortness of breath with minimal activity. What is the appropriate course of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral sildenafil

      Explanation:

      The treatment plan for pulmonary arterial hypertension is determined by the patient’s functional status. If the patient is in class I, no symptomatic treatment is necessary, but if they are in class IV, prostaglandins are required, most likely administered intravenously. In this case, the patient is experiencing shortness of breath with minimal activity, placing them in functional class III. Therefore, appropriate treatments include endothelin receptor antagonists (such as bosentan) or phosphodiesterase V inhibitors (such as sildenafil). If the patient remains symptomatic at functional class IV despite intravenous prostaglandins and subsequent combination therapy with bosentan or sildenafil, atrial septostomy and lung transplantation may be necessary.

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

      The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.

      Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 109 - A 56-year-old male presents with heart palpitations. He has no past medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents with heart palpitations. He has no past medical history and takes no regular medicines. His cardiorespiratory exam is normal.

      An ECG is performed:

      Rate and rhythm 150 beats per minute. Regular rhythm
      P waves Not visible
      QRS 150ms. RBBB pattern
      QTc 430ms
      Axis Right axis deviation

      What is the most probable cause of these ECG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia with bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing VT from SVT with Aberrant Conduction in Broad Complex Tachycardia

      Broad complex tachycardia can be caused by either ventricular tachycardia (VT) or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction. However, it is important to distinguish between the two as the treatment approaches differ. Here are some features that suggest VT rather than SVT with aberrant conduction:

      – AV dissociation
      – Fusion or capture beats
      – Positive QRS concordance in chest leads
      – Marked left axis deviation
      – History of ischemic heart disease
      – Lack of response to adenosine or carotid sinus massage
      – QRS duration greater than 160 ms

      If any of these features are present, it is more likely that the patient is experiencing VT rather than SVT with aberrant conduction. It is important to accurately diagnose the underlying rhythm in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent potential complications.

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  • Question 110 - A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with severe crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with severe crushing chest pain. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 40-50 cigarettes per day, and has a history of hypertension, which he manages with ramipril 10 mg daily. He also takes aspirin 75 mg per day and atorvastatin 10 mg. Upon examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 90/60 mmHg, and his pulse is 105 beats per minute (bpm). He is experiencing significant left ventricular failure (LVF) and has cold extremities. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows inferior T-wave inversion. Which of the following parameters is most consistent with this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Hemodynamic Parameters in Cardiogenic Shock

      When assessing a patient in cardiogenic shock, several hemodynamic parameters are measured to guide management. The cardiac index, which relates cardiac output to body surface area, is typically below 2 l/min/m2 in this condition. Inotropic support with agents like dobutamine and mechanical support with an intra-aortic balloon pump are often necessary. A right atrial pressure of 6 mmHg is normal and would be unexpectedly low in a patient with pulmonary edema. A mean arterial pressure of 105 mmHg would be impossibly high given a blood pressure of 90/60. Finally, an ejection fraction of 54% would be unexpectedly high in the face of severe cardiogenic shock. Understanding these parameters is crucial in managing patients with cardiogenic shock.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 111 - An 83-year-old man presents with a newly detected bradycardia during routine monitoring. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man presents with a newly detected bradycardia during routine monitoring. He reports feeling well with no episodes of syncope or shortness of breath. The patient has a medical history of Parkinson's Disease and ischemic heart disease.

      Upon examination, the patient is alert. His heart rate is irregular and measures 37 beats per minute. Bibasal crepitations are present, but there is no visible JVP. A pacemaker is palpable under the left infraclavicular area, and two leads can be felt under the skin.

      The patient's laboratory results show a sodium level of 143 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.9 mmol/l, urea level of 3.4 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 46 µmol/l. The ECG reveals broad complexes seen irregularly with intermittent unrelated p-wave activity. A chest x-ray shows that the pacemaker leads are displaced and sit in the superior vena cava and right atrium, respectively. It is noted that they coil and twist at the origin next to the main body of the pacemaker.

      What is the underlying cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twiddler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twiddling is a term used to describe the malfunction of a pacemaker caused by patients interfering with the wires. In this case, the patient has experienced lead displacement, resulting in complete heart block. The most common causes of pacemaker failure are lead fracture, lead displacement, or twiddling. However, in this instance, the leads are not fractured, but instead, they have been displaced due to extensive coiling at the proximal site. In some cases, patients may twiddle with the pacemaker wires, causing them to pull back from their site. This can result in the pacemaker remaining in place while the wires coil up and become palpable under the skin, rendering the pacemaker ineffective.

      A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 112 - A 75-year-old man with a history of severe biventricular heart failure presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of severe biventricular heart failure presents at the clinic for follow-up. He is only able to walk a distance of around 100 meters to the bus stop and climbs stairs only once a day. His current medication includes ramipril 10mg, furosemide 80mg, bisoprolol 10mg, spironolactone 25mg, aspirin, and atorvastatin. During examination, his blood pressure is 123/82 mmHg, and his resting pulse rate is 85 beats per minute. Bilateral basal crackles are heard on auscultation of the chest, and mild pitting edema is observed in both ankles.

      Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/l, platelets count of 190 * 109/l, and a bilirubin level of 11 µmol/l. His WBC count is 7.4 * 109/l, and his Na+ level is 134 mmol/l. The K+ level is 5.0 mmol/l, and the ALP level is 105 u/l. Neuts count is 4.5 * 109/l, and creatinine level is 142 µmol/l. The γGT level is 56 u/l, and the albumin level is 38 g/l. Eosin count is 0.5 * 109/l.

      Further investigations reveal cardiomegaly and bilateral upper lobe diversion on chest x-ray. The ECG shows left bundle branch block, and the ventricular rate is 85. The ECHO reveals an ejection fraction of 31%.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his heart failure medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add ivabradine

      Explanation:

      The use of digoxin for heart failure has decreased due to an increase in mortality associated with its use. Adding valsartan or increasing spironolactone may not provide significant benefits in symptom improvement and may increase the risk of hyperkalemia. While increasing furosemide may alleviate heart failure symptoms, it may also cause a significant increase in serum creatinine levels.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 113 - What pulse characteristic indicates a diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) during clinical...

    Incorrect

    • What pulse characteristic indicates a diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) during clinical examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus bisferiens

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy and its Clinical Features

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by asymmetrical interventricular septal hypertrophy, which causes left ventricular outflow obstruction and delayed left ventricular emptying. This condition can be sporadic or inherited, and its presentation and life expectancy depend on the genetic mutation involved. Some of the genes affected include beta-myosin, troponin T, alpha trophomyosin, and myosin binding protein C, which all affect the mechanism of muscular contraction in the myocardium.

      The clinical features of HOCM include angina, dyspnea, arrhythmias (such as atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation), and syncope. On examination, patients may have a jerky carotid pulse, pulsus bisferiens, double apex beat, a prominent a wave on jugular venous pressure, and a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a possible additional murmur of mitral regurgitation. ECG findings may show left ventricular hypertrophy, T wave inversion, and deep Q waves inferolaterally. Echocardiography can confirm septal hypertrophy, mitral regurgitation, and the aortic valve closing in mid-systole.

      Further investigation with a 24-hour ECG can help to risk stratify patients, and catheterization can provoke ventricular tachycardia. Management of HOCM requires specialist expertise and may involve dual chamber pacing, implantable defibrillator, surgical septal myomectomy, anticoagulation, beta blockers, amiodarone, or other antiarrhythmic agents.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 114 - A 67-year-old Caucasian man presents to the dermatology clinic with a new rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Caucasian man presents to the dermatology clinic with a new rash that has been present for 3 weeks. He reports a discoloration of his forearms and hands that first appeared during his recent vacation in the south of France. The rash is mildly itchy but not painful, and he denies any changes in his diet or exposure to new detergents. The patient has no known allergies but has a medical history significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes, ischaemic heart disease, and atrial fibrillation.

      Upon examination, the patient has a purplish discoloration of his hands extending up to his elbows bilaterally. Mild erythema is noted on his face and scalp, but there is no blistering or crusting.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced photosensitivity can occur as a skin reaction to UV radiation in patients taking certain medications. Phototoxic drugs include antibiotics, NSAIDs, diuretics, sulfonylureas, antipsychotics, and others such as amiodarone, quinine, and hydroxychloroquine. Thiazides are known to cause phototoxic reactions, while photoallergic reactions are less common and present as an eczematous, itchy skin reaction. Symptoms of photosensitivity can vary depending on the medication and type of reaction, but may include sunburn-like reactions, pigmentation changes, blisters, and vesicles. Treatment involves avoiding the trigger if possible, and using protective measures such as sunscreen or clothing. Digoxin, aspirin, metformin, and ramipril do not commonly cause photosensitivity, but may have other side effects or allergic reactions.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 115 - A 65-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain and 3 mm ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. She undergoes primary PCI in the cardiac catheter laboratory with a satisfactory angiographic outcome. After six hours on CCU, she develops complete heart block. Despite being asymptomatic, her haemodynamic parameters are as follows:

      Pulse 44 bpm, regular
      Blood pressure - 123/75 mmHg

      What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue close monitoring and observation of the patient

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ECG revealed ST elevation in leads II, III and aVf, indicating an inferior STEMI. It is common for complete heart block to occur after an inferior MI, but it usually resolves without intervention. As the patient is asymptomatic and stable, close monitoring is the best course of action. It is expected that she will return to sinus rhythm given enough time post-reperfusion. However, if she becomes haemodynamically unstable, temporary pacing wire should be used initially, with a permanent system upgrade if she does not recover to sinus rhythm in due course.

      Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features

      Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.

      First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.

      Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.

      It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 116 - An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) hospital with a fractured femur sustained in a fall. He undergoes successful surgery, but you are asked to see him by the Orthopaedic Team some 36 hours after admission as he has suffered increasing breathlessness and right-sided pleuritic chest pain.

      He is rather confused and the nursing staff have measured his saturations at 93% on 6 litres oxygen. His pulse is 105 beats per minute (bpm) and regular. His blood pressure (BP) is 120/70 mmHg. His chest is clear on auscultation.

      Which of the following tests would be most definitive in identifying the cause of the breathlessness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Work-up for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with breathlessness and a pubic ramus fracture, the risk of pulmonary embolism (PE) is significantly increased. The most appropriate diagnostic test in this context is a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which is fast, readily available, and has a higher sensitivity than ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scanning. However, CTPA has a higher radiation dose to breast tissue and a higher risk of inducing nephropathy due to IV contrast, making it less suitable for pregnant women or those with renal impairment.

      Performing a 12-lead ECG during the episode of breathlessness is unlikely to be helpful unless the patient has a history of cardiac chest pain. Similarly, D-dimer levels may be elevated due to the fracture, making it a less diagnostic investigation. While a chest X-ray is appropriate, it is less diagnostic than CTPA in this clinical context. Troponin levels are also unlikely to be helpful unless the patient has a history of cardiac chest pain.

      In summary, when a patient presents with breathlessness and a pubic ramus fracture, a CTPA is the most appropriate diagnostic test for suspected PE. Other investigations may be helpful but are less diagnostic in this context.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 117 - A 55-year-old man has a history of severe aortic stenosis and experiences syncope...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has a history of severe aortic stenosis and experiences syncope during physical activity. What should be the next course of action in his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Surgery for Exertional Syncope in Aortic Stenosis Patients

      Exertional syncope, or fainting during physical activity, is a sign that surgery may be necessary for patients with severe aortic stenosis. This is true even if the patient does not experience exertional dyspnea, or difficulty breathing during physical activity. Aortic valvuloplasty, a procedure to widen the aortic valve, is not as effective as aortic valve replacement in the medium and long term for treating aortic stenosis. It is important for patients with aortic stenosis to seek medical attention if they experience exertional syncope, as surgery may be necessary to improve their condition. Proper treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve quality of life.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 118 - A 39-year-old woman with a diastolic murmur on auscultation is referred to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman with a diastolic murmur on auscultation is referred to the Cardiology Department by her GP. She denies any history of rheumatic fever and has lost 8 kg in weight over the last six months, with a couple of episodes of sudden fainting. On examination, she has finger clubbing and a diastolic murmur that varies greatly with her sitting forward and is associated with a friction rub. Investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, high white cell count and platelet count, elevated ESR, and intracardiac calcification on CXR. Which diagnosis could account for all these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial myxoma

      Explanation:

      Atrial myxoma is a rare condition that should be considered in individuals presenting with finger clubbing, normocytic anaemia, a positional murmur, and intracardiac calcification on the CXR. Fainting spells may suggest transient left ventricular inflow obstruction. Urgent echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgery is recommended for complete removal, which is curative. Rheumatic mitral valve disease, tuberculosis, subacute infective endocarditis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are not associated with the same symptoms and findings as atrial myxoma.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 119 - A 49-year-old hypertensive, male smoker complains of central crushing chest pain and nausea....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old hypertensive, male smoker complains of central crushing chest pain and nausea. Upon examination, his ECG reveals newly inverted T waves in V2 and V3. Which coronary artery is likely affected by critical stenosis based on these ECG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute coronary syndrome and has T wave abnormalities in V2 and V3 consistent with Wellens’ syndrome. This syndrome is highly specific for critical stenosis of the LAD artery and poses a high risk of extensive anterior wall myocardial infarction. Urgent angiography and revascularisation are necessary, similar to treatment for an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction. The left circumflex, left main, and posterior descending arteries are not associated with Wellens’ syndrome, while the right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, right atrium, and the sino-atrial and atrioventricular nodes of the heart.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

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  • Question 120 - A medical opinion was sought from the obstetrics team regarding a 37-year-old 28...

    Incorrect

    • A medical opinion was sought from the obstetrics team regarding a 37-year-old 28 weeks pregnant lady who presented with a blood pressure of 158/98 mmHg during a routine check-up. Despite suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum, her pregnancy had been uncomplicated so far. She denied experiencing any symptoms such as headaches, vomiting, vision changes, abdominal pain, seizures, or vaginal bleeding. She reported no change in the frequency of foetal movements, and her 20-week antenatal scan showed a healthy foetus with normal growth. She had no significant medical history, did not smoke or drink alcohol, and her blood pressure at the booking antenatal appointment was 148/88 mmHg. Her sister had a history of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy, which required a caesarean section.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared well, and her cardiovascular system showed normal heart sounds, a JVP of 3cm, and no pedal oedema. Her respiratory system was unremarkable, and her gastrointestinal system showed an appropriate symphysis fundal height for gestational age with easily obtainable foetal heart sounds on hand-held Doppler examination. Her neurological system was also unremarkable, with normal reflexes, cranial nerve function, and peripheral motor and sensory function. Urinalysis showed no abnormalities.

      What is the recommended next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence labetalol

      Explanation:

      This woman has pre-existing hypertension, which was detected during her antenatal booking clinic and has persisted throughout her pregnancy. If left untreated, hypertension can lead to negative outcomes for both the mother and baby, such as placental abruption, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and cerebrovascular accidents. However, there are no signs of preeclampsia, such as proteinuria or peripheral edema, so there is no need for admission to a high dependency unit or magnesium sulfate treatment. Labetalol is the safest antihypertensive medication to use during pregnancy, with methyldopa being an alternative option. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors, which are typically the first line of treatment for hypertension, are not safe to use during pregnancy.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 121 - A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean man is experiencing shortness of breath while dressing, washing, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean man is experiencing shortness of breath while dressing, washing, and climbing stairs. He has a medical history of age-related macular degeneration, systolic heart failure (with an ejection fraction of 43% on echocardiogram), osteoporosis, and myelodysplasia. He is currently taking the maximum tolerated doses of ramipril, bisoprolol, and spironolactone, as well as alendronate once a week. What additional medical treatment could enhance his prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate and hydralazine

      Explanation:

      For Afro-Caribbean patients with heart failure who are unresponsive to conventional medical treatment including ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists, hydrazine and nitrate should be considered. This is particularly important for those who are symptomatic (New York Heart Association Stage III) and can improve their prognosis. NICE recommends this additional treatment for Afro-Caribbean patients.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

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  • Question 122 - An 80-year-old man with a history of chronic asthma managed with high-dose seretide...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of chronic asthma managed with high-dose seretide presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of palpitations. He has felt very faint, with shortness of breath for the past 30 minutes. Two further episodes occur during his time in the ED, documented as fast atrial fibrillation (AF).

      During examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 135/80 mmHg. His pulse is 80 beats per minute (bpm) and regular. An electrocardiogram (ECG) at that time reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of lateral ST depression.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for controlling his ventricular rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Anti-Arrhythmic Agents: Comparison and Appropriate Use

      When it comes to managing arrhythmias, choosing the right anti-arrhythmic agent is crucial. Verapamil is a non-dihydropridine calcium antagonist that is effective for long-term ventricular rate control. Adenosine, on the other hand, is a short-acting agent that can terminate transient tachy-arrhythmias and aid in the diagnosis of underlying rhythm in cases of uncertain aetiology. Bisoprolol, a beta blocker, should be used with caution in patients with asthma. Amiodarone is highly effective but limited by long-term systemic side effects, and current guidelines recommend other anti-arrhythmic agents as first-line treatment. Ivabradine, a ‘funny channel’ blocker, has been used off-licence in the treatment of atrial fibrillation but is not recommended under current guidelines due to increased rates of the condition. Choosing the appropriate agent requires careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition.

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  • Question 123 - A 67-year-old man presented to a cardiology clinic for follow-up after being hospitalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presented to a cardiology clinic for follow-up after being hospitalized for pulmonary edema. He reported experiencing significant shortness of breath at rest and limited exercise tolerance. His medical history included hypertension, diabetes, and a myocardial infarction treated with percutaneous coronary intervention five years ago. He was currently taking bisoprolol 10mg, ramipril 10mg, furosemide 80 mg twice daily, spironolactone 25mg, simvastatin 40mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and aspirin 75mg. On examination, he appeared breathless, had an elevated jugular venous pressure of 7cm, bibasal fine crepitations, and moderate pitting edema to his knees. His heart rate was 68 beats per minute, and his blood pressure was 95/65 mmHg.

      Investigations revealed a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L, a white cell count of 5.6 x10^9/L, a platelet count of 268 x10^9/L, a serum sodium level of 132 mmol/L, a serum potassium level of 4.3mmol/L, a serum urea level of 6.7mmol/L, and a serum creatinine level of 68 micromol/L. An electrocardiogram showed normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 65 beats per minute and a QRS duration of 155ms. There were no acute ST changes. Echocardiography revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30% and no significant valvular abnormalities. Coronary angiography showed a patent left anterior descending coronary artery stent and minor diffuse coronary artery disease.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac resynchronisation therapy

      Explanation:

      The patients are currently receiving the best possible pharmacological treatment. Studies have shown that this treatment can reduce symptoms by one NYHA classification, lower hospitalization rates, and decrease mortality. These devices can also be equipped with an implantable cardiac defibrillator (CRT-D) for primary or secondary prophylaxis against ventricular dysrhythmias.

      Increasing the patient’s furosemide dosage is unlikely to have a significant impact on her symptoms, so it is not a valid option. While coronary artery bypass grafting is more effective than percutaneous coronary intervention for treating multivessel disease, this patient only has minor disease in her other coronary vessels and has already received treatment for her left anterior descending artery disease. Therefore, this is not a suitable solution. Given her hypotension, starting amlodipine would be inappropriate.

      Non-Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through non-drug interventions such as cardiac resynchronization therapy and exercise training. Cardiac resynchronization therapy, specifically biventricular pacing, has been found to improve symptoms and reduce hospitalization in patients with heart failure and wide QRS in NYHA class III. On the other hand, exercise training has been shown to improve symptoms but not hospitalization or mortality rates.

      Overall, non-drug management options for chronic heart failure can be effective in improving symptoms and reducing hospitalization rates. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

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  • Question 124 - A 56-year-old man presented to the hospital with sudden chest pain. His electrocardiogram...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presented to the hospital with sudden chest pain. His electrocardiogram revealed inferior ST segment elevation. He was treated with thrombolysis and did not experience any pain afterwards. However, on the fifth day of his admission, he became severely unwell, complaining of sudden onset of chest pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, he appeared pale and sweaty. Urgent cardiac catheterisation was performed and the following data was obtained:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Right atrium (mean) - 7
      Right ventricle - 50/12
      Left ventricle - 90/12
      Femoral artery 97 100/50

      What measurement would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturation in right atrium and pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnoses for Post-MI Complications

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), two potential complications that may arise are ventricular septal defect (VSD) or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute mitral regurgitation. These two conditions can be challenging to differentiate based on clinical presentation alone. The diagnosis is typically confirmed by identifying a left to right shunt.

      To distinguish between VSD and papillary rupture, medical professionals may look for a step-up in oxygen saturation between the right atrium and pulmonary artery. If a step-up is present, the diagnosis is likely VSD. However, if there is no step-up, the diagnosis is more likely to be papillary muscle rupture. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these complications to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart.

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  • Question 125 - A 50-year-old man presents to the cardiology unit with a history of transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the cardiology unit with a history of transient ischaemic attack and exertional syncope murmur. He reports deteriorating exercise tolerance. On examination, he has atrial fibrillation, a mid diastolic murmur, finger clubbing, and low grade pyrexia. His BP is 144/72 mmHg and pulse is 82. Investigations show a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L, white cell count of 6.4 ×109/L, platelets of 293 ×109/L, sodium of 137 mmol/L, potassium of 4.2 mmol/L, creatinine of 111 µmol/L, and ESR of 78 mm/hr. The autoimmune profile is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial myxoma

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Tumors and Mitral Stenosis

      The combination of a murmur, atrial fibrillation, syncope, and raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may indicate the presence of a cardiac tumor leading to symptoms of mitral stenosis. Myxomas are more commonly seen than rhabdomyomas in this context, and surgical excision is the preferred treatment. However, rhabdomyomas are associated with tuberous sclerosis, which is not evident in this case. Additionally, the presence of raised ESR, clubbing, and pyrexia makes mitral stenosis alone unlikely. Rheumatic heart disease is also an unlikely explanation, as there is no history of rheumatic fever or a related illness. Finally, the absence of normochromic normocytic anemia and mitral regurgitation makes endocarditis less likely. Overall, the presence of a cardiac tumor should be considered in cases of mitral stenosis with these accompanying symptoms.

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  • Question 126 - A 28-year-old man with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is admitted to the cardiology ward after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is admitted to the cardiology ward after experiencing his third episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation in the past year. He has previously declined anti-arrhythmic medication, but is now willing to try it. He does not want to undergo an ablation procedure.

      During examination, his blood pressure is 122/82, pulse is 67 and regular. Heart sounds are normal and his chest is clear. Laboratory investigations reveal normal levels of hemoglobin, white blood cells, platelets, sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and creatinine. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a structurally normal heart, while the electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm with an obvious delta wave.

      What is the most appropriate anti-arrhythmic medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flecainide

      Explanation:

      Treatment for AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia Leading to AF

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia leading to AF can be treated with class 1C anti-arrhythmics such as flecainide. It is not necessary to determine whether the condition is orthodromic or antidromic. Although amiodarone is an option, it is usually reserved for cases with structural heart disease. Beta blockers, digoxin, and calcium channel antagonists should be avoided as they may increase the risk of VT. In such cases, ablation may be a more appropriate option. The use of flecainide has been confirmed in various reviews and is a viable treatment option for this condition.

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  • Question 127 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for evaluation of severe heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for evaluation of severe heart failure. She has a history of multiple myocardial infarctions and can only walk short distances on level ground. She experiences shortness of breath at night once or twice a week and is unable to climb stairs. Her current medications include ramipril 10 mg, furosemide 80 mg, bisoprolol 10 mg, and spironolactone 25 mg. On examination, she has bilateral chest crackles and mild ankle swelling. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 64 beats per minute. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 117 g/L, a white cell count of 7.9 ×109/L, a platelet count of 200 ×109/L, a sodium level of 137 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.1 mmol/L, and a creatinine level of 132 µmol/L. An ECG reveals left bundle branch block, sinus rhythm with first-degree block QRS widening (155 msec), and angiography shows 60% stenosis of circumflex. What is the best intervention to improve heart failure symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biventricular pacemaker implantation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Resynchronisation Therapy for Heart Failure Patients

      Cardiac resynchronisation therapy is recommended by NICE guidance for heart failure patients who are currently experiencing or have recently experienced NYHA class III-IV symptoms, have a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35% or less, and are receiving optimal pharmacological therapy. The patient in this case fulfils all of these criteria. The therapy is recommended for patients in sinus rhythm with a QRS duration of 150 ms or longer estimated by standard ECG or with a QRS duration of 120-149 ms estimated by ECG and mechanical dyssynchrony that is confirmed by echocardiography.

      Intervention via PCI or CABG is unlikely to significantly impact heart failure symptoms in this case as the stenosis of the circumflex is only 60% and it usually supplies the posterolateral surface of the ventricle. While increased furosemide may improve symptoms, it is not likely to be as effective as biventricular pacing. Dual chamber pacing is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia other than primary treatment of heart failure.

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  • Question 128 - A 67-year-old man presents to the cardiology outpatient clinic with complaints of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the cardiology outpatient clinic with complaints of shortness of breath upon exertion. He experiences breathlessness after climbing a single flight of stairs. The patient has a history of ischemic heart disease and heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction of 30%. He is currently taking aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, spironolactone, atorvastatin, and lansoprazole. He does not smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, the patient is euvolemic, and chest auscultation is normal. There is no peripheral edema, and the pulse is regular. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 63 beats per minute, blood pressure 120/77 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 96% on room air, and temperature 37ºC.

      Which medication would be the best choice to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Replace ramipril with sacubitril-valsartan

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

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  • Question 129 - A 55-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon admission, his ECG reveals an inferior myocardial infarction. He experiences complete heart block and his blood pressure drops to 90/60 mmHg. A temporary pacing wire is inserted, which brings his blood pressure back up to 115/75 mmHg. However, four hours later, he develops pericarditis chest pain and becomes cold and clammy. His blood pressure drops to 70/40 mmHg, but there are no crepitations present when his lung bases are auscultated. His electrocardiogram shows a paced ventricular rate of 60 beats per minute. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pacing wire perforation causing tamponade

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Time Course of Pacing Wire Induced RV Perforation

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient’s condition is pacing wire induced RV perforation. It is crucial to consider the time course of this situation as it often occurs through an infarcted RV wall, which is more fragile and thin-walled. It is unlikely for the patient to experience reinfarction in the absence of ischaemic chest pain. Although a ruptured mitral chord can complicate an inferior MI, there would be signs of severe pulmonary oedema secondary to it. Aortic dissection is unlikely given the presentation, and the ECG confirms that the temporary wire continues to pace.

      To summarize, the patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest that pacing wire induced RV perforation is the most likely diagnosis. The time course of this condition is crucial to consider, and reinfarction is unlikely without ischaemic chest pain. While other complications such as ruptured mitral chord and aortic dissection are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s presentation and ECG results.

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  • Question 130 - An 80-year-old female is referred to the outpatient department for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female is referred to the outpatient department for hypertension. She has been generally healthy but recently visited the gynaecologists for incontinence, where hypertension was detected. Upon examination, the patient has a BMI of 25 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 188/78 mmHg, and normal heart sounds. Fundal examination reveals silver wiring. What class of drugs would be the most suitable for treating this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Isolated Systolic Hypertension in Elderly Patients

      Elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, where the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg, are at risk of morbidity and mortality. Studies such as Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program and Syst-Eur have shown that thiazides and calcium antagonists are the preferred drugs for reducing these risks. However, incontinence may be a side effect of diuretic therapy, making calcium antagonists a more suitable option for some patients.

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  • Question 131 - A 56-year-old man with a history of alcoholism presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of alcoholism presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath and decreased exercise tolerance over the past six months. He reports consuming a bottle of whisky and four pints of strong lager per day.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 80 in atrial fibrillation. Bilateral basal crackles are heard on auscultation of the chest and there is pitting edema in both feet.

      Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 117 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 6.0 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 178 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 136 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 110 µmol/L (79-118). An echocardiogram shows a dilated left ventricle with an ejection fraction of 34%.

      What is the most appropriate long-term intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of these

      Explanation:

      Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Management

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that causes the heart to become enlarged and weakened, leading to heart failure. One of the most common causes of this condition is chronic alcoholism. However, the good news is that it is potentially responsive to alcohol cessation.

      In terms of long-term management, there are several effective therapies available. Bisoprolol, ramipril, and spironolactone are all medications that have been shown to be effective in managing chronic heart failure. These medications work by reducing the workload on the heart and improving its function. It is important to note that these medications should only be taken under the guidance of a healthcare professional, as they can have side effects and may interact with other medications.

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  • Question 132 - A 72-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department in cardiac arrest. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department in cardiac arrest. He was found unconscious on the floor by his carer. Upon arrival of the paramedics, he was in VF and received two shocks before being transported to the hospital. He has been intubated and has good IV access. Despite receiving five shocks at the recommended energy and appropriate doses of adrenaline and amiodarone, he remains in VF. As a member of the cardiac arrest team, you are called to assist. Upon reviewing his medications, you discover that he is taking bendroflumethiazide. What is the next most appropriate management option for this patient's cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Management of Refractory VF in Cardiac Arrest

      Refractory VF is a concerning situation during cardiac arrest. If repeated shocks are ineffective, it is important to consider other management options and review the 4 Hs and 4 Ts for any possible reversible causes. Magnesium sulphate IV is recommended for the treatment of refractory VF, especially if the patient may be hypomagnesaemic due to medications such as thiazides. It is not recommended to increase doses of adrenaline or amiodarone, or increase shock energy. If amiodarone is given again, it should be at a reduced dose of 150 mg. Lidocaine is only recommended if amiodarone is unavailable or has not already been given. Therefore, the most appropriate response in managing refractory VF is magnesium sulphate IV.

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  • Question 133 - A 68-year-old man presents for review after undergoing coronary angiography. The results show...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for review after undergoing coronary angiography. The results show that he has dual vessel disease and requires CABG. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with ramipril and felodipine, and peripheral vascular disease. He also takes simvastatin 40 mg and aspirin 75 mg. His blood pressure is 148/84 mmHg, pulse is 74 and regular. A right carotid bruit is detected, and a pre-operative carotid duplex is requested to assess the situation. There is no history of prior stroke or TIA. The investigations reveal a 65% stenosis in the left carotid and a 75% stenosis in the right carotid. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proceed to CABG

      Explanation:

      The NASCET Study and Treatment for Carotid Artery Disease

      The NASCET study, which stands for the North American carotid endarterectomy experience, provides the largest body of data regarding treatment for carotid artery disease. According to this study, patients who undergo endarterectomy have better outcomes if they have significant coronary artery disease treated beforehand. This suggests that addressing coronary artery disease prior to endarterectomy can improve the success of the procedure.

      In cases where a patient has already suffered a completed stroke, the use of clopidogrel is recommended. However, in the scenario presented, neither a completed stroke nor the use of clopidogrel has occurred. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider the NASCET study findings when determining the best course of treatment for patients with carotid artery disease. Proper treatment can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of future strokes.

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  • Question 134 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with an episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with an episode of chest pain following a strenuous workout. On admission to the ED, she admits to a previous episode after running a few weeks earlier. She smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. She has no significant past medical history and she is usually fit and well. Her mother died suddenly at the age of 40.
      On examination, there is a systolic murmur, loudest at the left sternal border, as well as a fourth heart sound.
      Her electrocardiogram reveals prominent Q waves in leads II, III, aVF, V5 and V6, with associated ST depression.
      Which investigation will reveal the diagnosis considered first line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is an autosomal dominant condition with variable penetrance that can lead to dyspnea, syncope, angina, palpitations, and an increased risk of lethal arrhythmias and sudden death. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify HOCM:

      Echocardiogram: This test reveals an increased septal versus left ventricular wall diameter (diameter ratio of > 1.3 : 1) and is useful for diagnosing HOCM.

      Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging: This test may increase the diagnostic yield in patients with suspected HOCM who have poor visualization on echocardiography.

      Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography: This test is helpful in evaluating for the presence of concomitant coronary disease in patients with HOCM.

      MYH7 and MYBPC3 mutation testing: Genetic testing and mutation identification may be performed, especially for screening of relatives of those who have a mutation identified.

      Troponin T: Although troponin T may be elevated in HOCM, it is not diagnostic.

      It is important to note that while these tests can aid in the diagnosis of HOCM, a thorough clinical evaluation and family history are also crucial in making an accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 135 - A 55-year-old patient with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department with crushing central chest pain. On examination you find:

      Respiratory rate - 22/min
      Oxygen saturations 95% on room air
      Chest clear
      Pulse 118 bpm
      Blood pressure 92/61 mmHg
      JVP elevated 4 cm above sternal angle

      An ECG done in the department shows 3 mm ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes a primary PCI to his right coronary artery with a good angiographic result. An echocardiogram is performed the following day. What would you expect to see?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regional wall motion abnormality in the inferior wall of the LV with a dilated and impaired RV

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with an inferior STEMI, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVf. Typically, an echocardiogram would reveal a regional wall motion abnormality in the inferior wall of the left ventricle. However, there are additional important factors to consider in this case. The patient is experiencing significant hypotension, which is not typical for an uncomplicated inferior STEMI. Additionally, an elevated JVP suggests elevated RV filling pressures and RV failure. However, the patient’s clear chest indicates normal LV filling pressures, ruling out RV failure due to LV failure. Therefore, the diagnosis is an inferior STEMI with right ventricular infarction. An echocardiogram would be expected to show an inferior LV wall RWMA, as well as a dilated and impaired RV.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal ECG changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

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  • Question 136 - A 45-year-old homeless patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old homeless patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a prolonged illness characterized by fevers and chills, and now a rash has developed. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.5 oC, splinter hemorrhages on their nails, and a widespread purplish rash. The patient has injection sites on both forearms and has attempted to inject into their femoral vein. The following laboratory results were obtained: Hb 110 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l), WCC 13.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), PLT 30 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l), Na+ 138 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cr 160 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l), and ESR 80 mm/hour (normal range: 1-20 mm/hour). Blood cultures have not shown any growth yet, and the urine test is positive for blood. A chest X-ray reveals cavitating lesions in both lower lobes. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis in a Patient with Substance Abuse

      The clinical scenario presented is suggestive of infective endocarditis, likely caused by Staphylococcus aureus due to the patient’s history of injectable drug use and cavitating lesions on chest X-ray. The Duke criteria for diagnosis of endocarditis require echocardiographic evidence of endocardial involvement, which can be obtained through a trans-thoracic echocardiogram. Further blood cultures are unnecessary as sufficient cultures have already been taken. A CT thorax may provide additional information on the nature of the cavitations, but is not necessary for the underlying diagnosis. Urine cultures may be appropriate if further investigations for endocarditis are negative, but initial imaging of the heart is required. ANA testing is important in considering a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus, but given the patient’s history of substance abuse, infective endocarditis is a more likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 137 - A 87-year-old man visited the general medical clinic with concerns about palpitations. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old man visited the general medical clinic with concerns about palpitations. He was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation (AF) three months ago and was prescribed bisoprolol to control his heart rate instead of attempting to regulate his rhythm. Despite increasing his dosage, he still experiences palpitations almost every day, but no other symptoms are present. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having suffered a heart attack five years ago, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is currently taking bisoprolol, metformin, aspirin, and simvastatin. He has refused anticoagulation with warfarin or NOAC due to the risk, as his wife passed away from an intracranial bleed while taking warfarin.

      During the examination, his heart rate was found to be 94/min and irregular. His chest was clear upon auscultation, and there was no peripheral oedema. What is the recommended course of action for his further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Diltiazem is the correct answer. The patient has permanent AF with symptoms that are not responding to bisoprolol, which is the first-line treatment for a rate-control strategy in AF according to NICE guidelines. While digoxin can be considered for non-paroxysmal AF in less active patients, a combination therapy with beta-blocker, diltiazem, or digoxin can be used if the first-line treatment fails. Amiodarone, dronedarone, and left atrial ablation are strategies for cardioversion, not rate control. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and is not rate-limiting, so it would not be effective in treating AF.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) can be classified into three patterns according to the joint guidelines of the American Heart Association (AHA), American College of Cardiology (ACC), and European Society of Cardiology (ESC) in 2012. The first pattern is the first detected episode of AF, regardless of whether it is symptomatic or self-terminating. The second pattern is recurrent episodes, which occur when a patient experiences two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes of AF terminate spontaneously, it is called paroxysmal AF, and they usually last less than seven days, typically less than 24 hours. If the arrhythmia is not self-terminating, it is called persistent AF, and the episodes usually last more than seven days. The third pattern is permanent AF, which is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or is deemed inappropriate to attempt cardioversion. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

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  • Question 138 - A 75-year-old man presents with symptoms of breathlessness and mild heart failure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with symptoms of breathlessness and mild heart failure. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and experiences breathlessness on mild exertion (NYHA class II). His resting heart rate is 90 beats/minute and increases to 150 beats/minute on exertion. Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg OD, enalapril 10 mg BD, verapamil 180 mg OD, and digoxin 125 mcg OD. The serum digoxin level is 1.5 nmol/ml, which falls within the therapeutic range of 1.0-2.6 nmol/ml. What medication adjustment would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch verapamil to a beta blocker

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Failure with Incomplete Atrial Fibrillation Rate Control

      The patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure and incomplete atrial fibrillation rate control, which can lead to breathlessness during physical activity. The most effective treatment for this condition is beta blockade, which has been shown to improve symptoms and reduce mortality in patients with NYHA II heart failure. Additionally, beta blockade can help regulate the patient’s AF rate.

      It is important to note that verapamil should not be used in this case, as it has negative inotropic effects that can be harmful to patients with heart failure. The current dose of digoxin is appropriate, as evidenced by therapeutic plasma levels, so there is no need to increase the dosage at this time.

      While increasing the dose of enalapril may be beneficial, it is not the most appropriate first step in managing this patient’s condition. Overall, beta blockade is the most effective treatment option for heart failure with incomplete atrial fibrillation rate control.

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  • Question 139 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of back pain. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Upon initial assessment, his heart rate is 112 beats per minute, blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, respiratory rate is 26/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on 2 litres oxygen via nasal cannula, and temperature is 37.2ºC.

      During examination, muffled heart sounds I and II are noted. However, JVP is not elevated and there is no peripheral edema. Auscultation of the chest reveals clear lung fields with no crackles or wheeze and good air entry bilaterally. An ECG confirms sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 102 beats per minute and 2 mm inferior ST depression. A portable chest x-ray shows poor inspiratory effort with cardiomegaly and clear lung fields.

      What is the next single investigation that should be arranged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT aortogram

      Explanation:

      An urgent CT aortogram is necessary to rule out type A aortic dissection, given the patient’s clinical features. Back pain is a common symptom as the aorta is located in the retroperitoneal space. Hypertension is a major risk factor. The Stanford classification distinguishes type A dissections involving the ascending aorta from type B dissections originating in the descending aorta. Type A dissections can extend proximally and cause coronary sinus rupture and secondary ischemia, as well as pericardial effusions that may appear as cardiomegaly on a chest x-ray and lead to muffled heart sounds. Urgent referral to a cardiothoracic surgical unit is necessary for type A dissection management.

      A CTPA or V/Q scan would not be useful in this case, as the presentation is not typical for a pulmonary embolus (PE). While a 12-hour troponin test could provide information on myocardial necrosis, it is not the most appropriate investigation in this clinical context. An echocardiogram could be relevant to rule out a significant pericardial effusion with features of cardiac tamponade, but the examination findings do not suggest this. Although echocardiography can visualize proximal dissections involving the aortic root, CT aortography is the definitive test for diagnosis.

      Aortic dissection is a serious condition that can cause chest pain. It occurs when there is a tear in the inner layer of the aorta’s wall. Hypertension is the most significant risk factor, but it can also be associated with trauma, bicuspid aortic valve, and certain genetic disorders. Symptoms of aortic dissection include severe and sharp chest or back pain, weak or absent pulses, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation. Specific arteries’ involvement can cause other symptoms such as angina, paraplegia, or limb ischemia. The Stanford classification divides aortic dissection into type A, which affects the ascending aorta, and type B, which affects the descending aorta. The DeBakey classification further divides type A into type I, which extends to the aortic arch and beyond, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally.

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  • Question 140 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden shortness of breath at 2 am. He reported a gradual increase in difficulty breathing over the past few months and found that sleeping in a chair helped alleviate his symptoms. The following are his oxygen saturation levels and pressure readings at various anatomical sites:

      - Superior vena cava: 76% saturation, no pressure reading
      - Inferior vena cava: 72% saturation, no pressure reading
      - Right atrium (mean): 74% saturation, 9 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 75% saturation, 60/8 mmHg pressure
      - Pulmonary artery: 74% saturation, 58/26 mmHg pressure
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 30 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 98% saturation, 150/25 mmHg pressure
      - Aorta: 97% saturation, 150/44 mmHg pressure

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic incompetence

      Explanation:

      Elevated Left Ventricular End-Diastolic Pressure and Wide Pulse Pressure in the Aorta

      There is a significant difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures in the aorta, which is known as a wide pulse pressure. This is often accompanied by a very high left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP). When the LVEDP exceeds 20 mmHg, it is indicative of irreversible left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to note that all left heart valve diseases can ultimately lead to elevated right heart pressures.

      In summary, a wide pulse pressure in the aorta and elevated LVEDP are concerning signs of left ventricular dysfunction. It is crucial to monitor and manage these conditions to prevent further damage to the heart. Additionally, left heart valve diseases should be closely monitored as they can also contribute to elevated right heart pressures.

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  • Question 141 - A 57 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and type...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus is six hours post right curative hemicolectomy for bowel malignancy. While in the surgical high-dependency unit, he is found to be tachycardic on the monitor.

      Upon examination, the patient appears comfortable. His pulse rate is 200 bpm and his blood pressure is 148/79 mmHg. Oxygen saturations are 98% on 2L/min nasal oxygen, and capillary refill is 2 seconds. The chest is clear to auscultation.

      A 12-lead ECG reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia with a monomorphic waveform at a rate of 200bpm.

      postoperative blood tests reveal:

      Hb 131 g/l
      Platelets 563 * 109/l
      WBC 13.4 * 109/l
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Mg++ 0.87 mmol/l
      Urea 4.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 23 µmol/l
      ALP 109 u/l
      ALT 34 u/l
      Albumin 33 g/l

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone 300mg IV

      Explanation:

      When dealing with ventricular tachycardia, it is recommended to follow the resuscitation council guidelines. If there are no signs of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure, the best course of action is to administer 300mg of amiodarone intravenously as the initial treatment.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. Amiodarone is the preferred drug and should be administered through a central line. Lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment, and verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be needed, especially in patients with significantly impaired LV function. It is important to note that a broad complex tachycardia may result from a supraventricular rhythm with aberrant conduction, so proper diagnosis is crucial.

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  • Question 142 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe, central chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe, central chest pain. An ECG reveals evidence of anterior ST elevation MI and he undergoes primary percutaneous coronary intervention with the deployment of two drug-eluting stents. He has no prior history of coronary artery disease or significant family history, is an ex-smoker, and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol per week. Post-procedure, he is well and is started on aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin therapy. His investigations are unremarkable, and a transthoracic echocardiogram shows mild anterior dyskinesia with overall normal left ventricular systolic function and an ejection fraction of 55-60%. The patient asks about additional strategies to reduce his risk of another heart attack before discharge.

      According to NICE guidance on secondary prevention of myocardial infarction, which intervention is recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediterranean-style diet

      Explanation:

      Abstaining from alcohol

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 143 - A 67-year-old man with a history of occasional chest tightness presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of occasional chest tightness presents to the Emergency Department (ED) of a District General Hospital (DGH) with central chest pain that started five hours ago while walking uphill. The severe pains radiated to his neck, jaw, and left arm and lasted for about an hour. He still has some dull chest pains but these are not very severe.

      On examination, he is alert and distressed with a BP of 110/84 mmHg and a pulse of 76 bpm and regular. Investigations reveal elevated WCC, Cr, and Hb levels. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with inferior ST depression, and his CXR is unremarkable. You administer diamorphine, fondaparinux, and aspirin.

      Which one of the following additional medications would you immediately start this patient on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Ischaemic Cardiac Pain

      When a patient presents with chest pain that is suggestive of ischaemic cardiac pain, it is important to manage them appropriately until a troponin level can be obtained. In this case, fondaparinux, aspirin, and ticagrelor are recommended due to the nature of the pain and ECG changes. Statin therapy is also likely to be initiated if cholesterol levels are elevated.

      While statins are important in this patient population, dual anti-platelet therapy is the most crucial intervention early in treatment. Thrombolytic therapy with TPA is not indicated in the absence of STEMI, and PCI is preferred over thrombolysis for NSTEMI.

      Although beta blockade with bisoprolol can reduce myocardial oxygen demand and improve cardiovascular outcomes, immediate initiation of therapy is not essential. Instead, high-dose PY12 inhibitors like ticagrelor in combination with aspirin have largely replaced IIbIIIa inhibitors such as tirofiban for the treatment of NSTEMI.

      In summary, appropriate management of suspected ischaemic cardiac pain includes dual anti-platelet therapy, statin therapy, and careful consideration of thrombolytic and beta blockade options.

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  • Question 144 - A 67-year-old patient has been experiencing exertional dyspnoea for the past 4 months...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient has been experiencing exertional dyspnoea for the past 4 months and has been referred to the pulmonary hypertension team. After an initial echocardiogram, it was found that the patient had a preserved left ventricular function with a pulmonary arterial pressure of 72 mmHg and an ejection fraction of 65%. The patient underwent a right and left heart catheterization, which revealed the following saturations:

      - Right atrium high 60%
      - Right atrium mid 89%
      - Right atrium low 70%
      - Right ventricle high 70%
      - Right ventricle mid 73%
      - Right ventricle low 72%
      - Pulmonary artery 71%
      - Capillary wedge 96%

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal secundum defect

      Explanation:

      To identify left-to-right shunts in cardiac catheters, it is important to look for a noticeable increase in oxygen saturation between the high and mid right atrium. This is particularly relevant when dealing with questions related to saturations. Primum ASD defects are usually located lower in the septum compared to secundum defects, which are typically found in the mid-atrial region.

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation

      Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.

      Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.

      Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

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  • Question 145 - A 35-year-old man presents to cardiology with complaints of palpitations and fatigue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to cardiology with complaints of palpitations and fatigue. He has no history of chest pain, breathlessness, or syncope. He has no past medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He works in the IT industry and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His father died suddenly at the age of 43. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, and his clinical examination is unremarkable. An ECG shows T wave inversion in leads V1-V3, and a cardiac MRI reveals fatty replacement of the right ventricular myocardium. What is the appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Implantable cardioverter defibrillator

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (AVRC) and a family history of sudden death is an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for primary prevention of sudden cardiac death. This is due to the high-risk category that the patient falls into, as demonstrated by symptoms, family history, typical ECG and cardiac MRI findings. Bisoprolol and amiodarone are less effective options for medical treatment, and radiofrequency ablation is only considered in cases of drug-refractory/intolerance or incessant ventricular tachycardia.

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.

      The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.

      Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.

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  • Question 146 - A 65-year-old man presents with a two-week history of fever, weakness, and night...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a two-week history of fever, weakness, and night sweats. During the initial examination, an early diastolic murmur was detected. Blood cultures grew S. bovis three times, indicating infective endocarditis. Vegetations on the aortic valve were observed on both transthoracic and transoesophageal echocardiograms, but no aortic root abscess was found. Before discharge, which investigation should be arranged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      S.bovis Bacteraemia and its Association with GI Malignancy

      S.bovis bacteraemia is strongly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) malignancy. This type of bacteraemia is most likely to cause infective endocarditis rather than any other cause. The portal of entry for S.bovis is the GI tract, although it can also rarely enter through the urinary tract, hepatobiliary tree, or oropharynx.

      It is important to note that patients with S.bovis bacteraemia should undergo GI investigations as soon as possible. This is because there is a strong correlation between S.bovis bacteraemia, with or without endocarditis, and malignancy or premalignancy within the colon. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate for GI malignancy in patients with S.bovis bacteraemia to ensure early detection and treatment.

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  • Question 147 - A 59-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with hypertension and headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with hypertension and headaches. She denies any history of fever, neck stiffness, limb weakness, seizures, or vision changes. On examination, her pulse rate is 70 beats per minute and blood pressure is 200/110 mmHg. All other physical exam findings are unremarkable, including normal fundoscopy.

      Lab results show Hb 138g/l, platelets 238 * 109/l, WBC 6.2 * 109/l, Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 3.8 mmol/l, urea 6.4 mmol/l, and creatinine 75 µmol/l. ECG and chest x-ray are normal, and CT head and urinalysis are unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral amlodipine

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences hypertensive urgency, their blood pressure rises to a severe level (systolic >180 mmHg or diastolic >110 mmHg) without causing damage to their organs. Symptoms may include nosebleeds, shortness of breath, or headaches. The goal of treatment is to lower blood pressure within 24-48 hours using oral antihypertensive medication, such as a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Hospitalization is typically not necessary. In contrast, hypertensive emergencies require immediate blood pressure reduction, often within minutes to hours, and may involve intravenous antihypertensives like labetalol or glyceryltrinitrate. These emergencies can include conditions like hypertensive encephalopathy or aortic dissection.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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  • Question 148 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypertension during her first pregnancy. At...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypertension during her first pregnancy. At 32 weeks gestation, her blood pressure was recorded as 155/108 mmHg. Two weeks later, her readings were 159/109 mmHg and 150/100 mmHg. Despite this, her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and she has not shown any signs of proteinuria. She has no other medical history and is not taking any regular medication except for folic acid. As her doctor, what medication would you recommend starting at 34 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Management of Gestational Hypertension with Moderate Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a condition that can occur during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure. The severity of gestational hypertension is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the blood pressure readings. Moderate hypertension, which is defined as a blood pressure reading of 150/100-159/109 mmHg, is managed first line with oral labetalol, methyldopa, or nifedipine. The goal of treatment is to keep the blood pressure below 150/80-100 mmHg.

      To monitor the condition, blood pressure should be measured at least twice a week. Additionally, proteinuria should be tested at each visit using an automated reagent-strip reading device or urinary protein:creatinine ratio. Kidney function, electrolytes, FBC, transaminases, and bilirubin should also be tested to ensure that the condition is not causing any other complications. By closely monitoring and managing gestational hypertension with moderate hypertension, the risk of complications can be reduced for both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old accountant from New York City presents to the Emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant from New York City presents to the Emergency department with severe chest pain that radiates down both arms. He admits to using cocaine regularly and had snorted two lines shortly before the onset of his symptoms. He also smokes 30 cigarettes per day. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and his pulse is 90 and regular. Bilateral crackles are heard on chest auscultation. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/L (135-177), a white cell count of 7.2 ×109/L (4-11), and a platelet count of 190 ×109/L (150-400). His sodium level is 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level is 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level is 105 µmol/L (79-118). An ECG shows widespread anterior ST elevation. The patient is given aspirin, clopidogrel, and low molecular weight heparin.

      What is the recommended next step before referring the patient to a cardiologist for consideration of primary angioplasty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GTN infusion

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for cocaine-induced chest pain

      In cases of cocaine-induced chest pain, GTN infusion can provide significant vasodilatation and potentially relieve intense coronary vasospasm. Calcium antagonists are also an option, although they were not given as an option in this question. While ECG abnormalities are common in these cases, only a small percentage of patients have confirmed evidence of a myocardial infarction, making intervention with either calcium antagonists or nitrates appropriate. Beta blockers should be avoided as they can worsen coronary vasoconstriction. Diazepam can help with anxiety but will not treat coronary artery vasospasm. Furosemide is only useful in cases of fluid overload and would not be the first choice in treating cocaine-induced chest pain. Overall, GTN infusion and calcium antagonists are the most effective treatment options for this condition.

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  • Question 150 - A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, and fevers. He is currently homeless and has been brought in by a friend. He has vomited three times since arrival but denies having diarrhea.

      What is the underlying cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous drug use

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid valve endocarditis can result in tricuspid regurgitation, which can be identified by the presence of a new pansystolic murmur, large V waves, and symptoms of pulmonary emboli.

      The patient in question is suffering from infective endocarditis, with the cannon V waves and pansystolic murmur indicating that the tricuspid valve is affected. This is a common occurrence in intravenous drug users, as this valve is the first to be reached by venous blood. Despite the patient’s denial, the tracking marks are a clear indication of drug use. Tuberculosis does not typically cause murmurs and usually only affects the pericardium of the heart. Poor dental hygiene can lead to a less severe and more gradual strep endocarditis. An infected orthopaedic plate is a rare cause of endocarditis.

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: Causes and Signs

      Tricuspid regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium due to the incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve. This condition can be identified through various signs, including a pansystolic murmur, prominent or giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse, pulsatile hepatomegaly, and a left parasternal heave.

      There are several causes of tricuspid regurgitation, including right ventricular infarction, pulmonary hypertension (such as in cases of COPD), rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis (especially in intravenous drug users), Ebstein’s anomaly, and carcinoid syndrome. It is important to identify the underlying cause of tricuspid regurgitation in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 151 - A 67-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with a history of cardiomyopathy....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with a history of cardiomyopathy. He reports experiencing increasing exertional dyspnea and is seeking treatment. Upon examination, there are no signs of peripheral edema or chest abnormalities. An echocardiogram reveals a provoked left ventricular outflow gradient of 64 mmHg. What is the recommended medical therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the correct answer for managing symptoms in this case. They can control the heart rate to a level where ventricular outflow obstruction is unlikely to occur. Verapamil can also be helpful in this regard. However, nitrates and ace-inhibitors should be avoided as they can lower blood pressure, which can be dangerous when combined with hypotension caused by outflow obstruction. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and digoxin are not useful in this situation. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors are more commonly used for pulmonary hypertension, while digoxin is typically used to control heart rate in cases of AF when the patient is sedentary or has coexisting heart failure.

      Managing Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is estimated to affect 1 in 500 individuals. The management of HOCM involves various interventions to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.

      One approach is the use of medications such as amiodarone, beta-blockers, or verapamil to manage symptoms. In some cases, a cardioverter defibrillator or dual chamber pacemaker may be necessary to regulate heart rhythm and prevent sudden cardiac death.

      It is important to note that certain drugs should be avoided in individuals with HOCM, including nitrates, ACE-inhibitors, and inotropes. Additionally, endocarditis prophylaxis may be necessary, although the 2008 NICE guidelines on this topic should be consulted.

      Overall, the management of HOCM requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both symptom management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 152 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of intense chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of intense chest pain. His chest x-ray appears normal, and his ECG shows sinus tachycardia without any other abnormalities. The patient is a heavy smoker and has recently returned from a trip to Florida. He is experiencing tachycardia and has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: D-dimers

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Tachycardia and Tachypnea

      When a patient presents with tachycardia and tachypnea after a long journey, it is important to exclude the possibility of a pulmonary embolus. A normal chest x-ray does not necessarily rule out this condition, so a D-dimer test should be performed. Additionally, if there are signs of infection without initial radiographic features, a CRP test may be useful. However, troponin, creatinine kinase, and brain natriuretic peptide tests are not relevant in this case. It is important to consider these diagnostic tests in order to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 153 - A 75-year-old male was referred to the clinic due to experiencing chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male was referred to the clinic due to experiencing chest pain during physical activity that subsided upon resting. The pain was described as crushing and located in the center of the chest. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and systemic lupus erythematosus. A myocardial technetium (99mTc) MIBI scan was conducted and revealed the following results:

      - Normal perfusion at rest
      - Lateral perfusion defect under stress

      What is the most probable explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% stenosis of left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      A reversible defect, such as myocardial ischaemia caused by coronary artery stenosis, may be suggested by a cardiac MIBI scan that shows the defect only during stress and not at rest. This type of scan is used to examine the blood flow to the heart and can differentiate between reversible and fixed areas of ischaemia by comparing rest and stress images. In this case, the defect is present only during stress, indicating a reversible defect, possibly caused by stenosis in the left circumflex artery, which typically supplies the lateral part of the heart.

      Non-Invasive Techniques for Imaging the Heart

      The field of cardiac imaging has rapidly advanced in recent years, with the development of non-invasive techniques such as MRI, CT, and radionuclides. Nuclear imaging techniques use radiotracers like thallium, technetium sestamibi, and fluorodeoxyglucose to assess myocardial perfusion and viability. SPECT scans are used to compare rest and stress images to identify areas of ischaemia, while PET scans are primarily used for research. MUGA, or radionuclide angiography, involves injecting technetium-99m and using a gamma camera to measure left ventricular ejection fraction. Cardiac CT is useful for assessing suspected ischaemic heart disease, with the calcium score and contrast-enhanced CT providing a high negative predictive value. Cardiac MRI has become the gold standard for providing structural images of the heart, particularly for assessing congenital heart disease, ventricular mass, and cardiomyopathy. While these non-invasive techniques exclude echocardiography, they offer valuable insights into the heart’s function and structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 154 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with chest discomfort and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with chest discomfort and palpitations. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and she appears unwell. A rhythm strip reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with a rate of 200 bpm.

      What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment for Hypotension and Arrhythmia

      The patient is experiencing hypotension and is showing symptoms of being unwell. In this situation, the best course of action is to cardiovert the patient immediately. This is considered a medical emergency and cannot be delayed. Other treatment strategies may not be effective in addressing the immediate needs of a patient in shock due to arrhythmia. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize cardioversion as the primary treatment option. Prompt action can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further complications. It is important to recognize the urgency of this situation and act quickly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 155 - A 45-year-old male who is otherwise healthy presents to the clinic with dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male who is otherwise healthy presents to the clinic with dyspnoea on exertion. This symptom has been progressing over the past year to the point where he can only walk half a mile before needing to stop. He denies having a cough or chest pain. He has a history of smoking 15 cigarettes per day for 25 years. Although his father had a myocardial infarction at the age of 54, he reports no other family history of cardiac-related issues. His BMI is 24 kg/m², heart rate is 80/min, blood pressure is 130/77 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18/min, and he is saturating at 97% on air. Chest auscultation reveals occasional expiratory wheeze, and there is no pedal oedema. Auscultation of the heart reveals a fixed split S2, and his jugular venous pressure is not elevated.

      Based on the information provided, what is the most likely cause of this patient's dyspnoea on exertion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      The probable root cause of this condition is an atrial septal defect, which is often discovered incidentally in later life through the detection of RBBB. In infancy, a murmur may not be detectable, leading to a delayed diagnosis. Symptoms typically arise later in life as the right atrium enlarged, resulting in decreased cardiac efficiency. A fixed-split S2 is a typical finding in affected individuals.

      Understanding Atrial Septal Defects

      Atrial septal defects (ASDs) are a type of congenital heart defect that can be found in adulthood. They are associated with a high mortality rate, with 50% of patients dying by the age of 50. There are two types of ASDs: ostium secundum and ostium primum. Ostium secundum is the most common type, accounting for 70% of all ASDs.

      ASDs can be identified by certain features, such as an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of S2. They can also lead to embolisms passing from the venous system to the left side of the heart, which can cause a stroke.

      Ostium secundum ASDs are often associated with Holt-Oram syndrome, which is characterized by tri-phalangeal thumbs. On an ECG, ostium secundum ASDs are typically identified by RBBB with RAD.

      Ostium primum ASDs, on the other hand, present earlier than ostium secundum defects and are often associated with abnormal AV valves. On an ECG, they are typically identified by RBBB with LAD and a prolonged PR interval.

      Understanding the different types of ASDs and their associated features can help with early identification and treatment, potentially improving outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 156 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a history of up...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a history of up to two migraines per month. She currently manages her migraines with sumatriptan during acute episodes. Recently, she was diagnosed with a patent foramen ovale after an echocardiogram, but remains asymptomatic and continues to play professional hockey. She has a past medical history of asthma, which is managed with a low dose salmeterol fluticasone combination inhaler. On physical examination, there are no notable findings except for a mildly elevated body mass index. What is the most effective prophylactic measure to prevent future migraines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate 50mg twice a day

      Explanation:

      Closing a PFO in patients with migraine does not provide symptom relief, as shown by the PRIMA and PREMIUM studies. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention for this patient with PFO and migraine is topiramate, which is effective for prophylaxis and may also promote weight loss. Beta-blockers are typically used for migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Atenolol at a low dose of 25mg may be considered, although propranolol is also commonly used. Indomethacin is used for paroxysmal hemicrania, while sodium valproate is a second or third line option for migraine prophylaxis.

      Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale

      Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.

      Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.

      The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 157 - A 57-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease and mitral stenosis presents for her annual check-up. She reports being able to walk 100 meters before experiencing shortness of breath and occasionally experiences chest pain after eating rich meals. She is a non-smoker and takes aspirin, ramipril, and a statin while engaging in regular daily walks. During examination, a loud S1 heart sound and mid-diastolic murmur are heard, and her face has a red flush in the cheeks. No JVP is visible, and there is no edema.

      Lab results show a hemoglobin level of 104 g/l, platelets at 450 * 109/l, and a CRP of 14 mg/l. The ECG shows sinus rhythm and left ventricular hypertrophy, while the chest X-ray reveals an enlarged cardiac shadow with loss of the aorto-pulmonary window. The most recent ECHO shows a mitral valve cross-sectional area of 0.8cm2 and an LV ejection fraction of 60%, compared to 1.1cm2 and 62% respectively from one year ago.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to cardiothoracic surgery

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention is necessary for a patient with mitral stenosis and a valve cross sectional area of less than 1cm2. Therefore, this woman should be referred for immediate surgery. Furosemide is not recommended as there are no signs of overload. Continuing ECHO surveillance would not alter her condition. The patient’s chest pains do not appear to be cardiac-related, and it may be beneficial to try omeprazole.

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy for mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 158 - A 35-year-old man is referred by his primary care physician to the Cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by his primary care physician to the Cardiology Department after experiencing an episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF). During his physical exam, his physician noted a mid-systolic murmur that was loudest in the pulmonary area and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. Additionally, a chest X-ray (CXR) showed an enlarged pulmonary arterial tree. An electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed right bundle-branch block and right-axis deviation. Routine blood work was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Adult Congenital Heart Disease: Atrial Septal Defect

      Atrial septal defect (ASD) is a common type of adult congenital heart disease, accounting for one-third of cases. It is more prevalent in women than men and often goes undiagnosed until adulthood. ASD causes communication between the atria, leading to left-to-right shunting of blood and increased right heart output, eventually resulting in pulmonary hypertension. Patients may present with atrial fibrillation, fixed splitting of S2 on auscultation, and a mid-systolic murmur in the pulmonary area. Chest X-rays may reveal pulmonary plethora, and electrocardiograms show right bundle-branch block. Repair of significant ASDs is recommended before the age of 10 or as soon as possible if diagnosed in adulthood. Other conditions, such as subacute bacterial endocarditis, mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and ventricular septal defect, have different presentations and are less likely to be the underlying diagnosis.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 159 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after collapsing. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) after collapsing. He has experienced three episodes of syncope in the past three months. During his previous episode, an electrocardiogram (ECG) showed Mobitz type 2 heart block. The patient has a medical history of inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, bisoprolol 2.5mg, and indapamide.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure (BP) is 80/60 mmHg, and his pulse is 35 beats per minute and regular. He is not experiencing cardiac failure. An ECG is performed, which reveals complete heart block with broad QRS complexes.

      What is the most appropriate next step for this 72-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 0.5 mg of atropine IV

      Explanation:

      Management of Complete Heart Block with Broad QRS Complexes

      When faced with a patient who has had multiple collapses and is now in complete heart block with broad QRS complexes, it is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for bradycardia. The immediate first step management options include administering 0.5 mg of atropine IV, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg if repetition is needed, temporary pacing, or alternative drugs such as isoprenaline or adrenaline. These measures should also be considered in patients who are at risk of asystole.

      Stopping bisoprolol and reviewing in 4 weeks as an outpatient is not appropriate management for this patient. Discharging the patient home and listing for outpatient pacemaker insertion represents a significant mortality risk, given the three collapses over the course of 12 weeks. Admitting for permanent pacing as an inpatient will be required, but this is not the most important next step in the patient’s management.

      It is important to administer the correct dose of medication, and a bolus of 500 mcg adrenaline IV is not appropriate. Adrenaline would be a valid drug choice in this situation, but the dose would be 2-10 mcg IV. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in cases of complete heart block with broad QRS complexes.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 160 - A 75-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain that started two hours ago. An ECG confirms an inferolateral myocardial infarction. His blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and heart rate is regular at 110 bpm. Upon examination, he has widespread inspiratory crepitations and his heart sounds are difficult to hear. The attending physician suspects a pansystolic murmur. What diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An echocardiogram to assess the heart valves

      Explanation:

      Importance of Echocardiogram in Evaluating New Murmur in Acute Infarction

      The presence of a new murmur in a patient with acute infarction and clinical shock warrants urgent evaluation. While an ECG may not be sufficient to exclude acute mitral regurgitation, a suggestion of a new murmur should not be ignored. Additionally, a standard 12 lead ECG is not suitable for locating a RV infarct. Therefore, an echocardiogram is mandatory to rule out acute mitral regurgitation and assess for any other cardiac abnormalities.

      In this clinical scenario, a BNP or troponin would not provide further management guidance. Similarly, a stress echocardiogram should not be performed acutely as it would not aid in the diagnosis. It is crucial to prioritize an echocardiogram to evaluate the new murmur and ensure appropriate management of the patient’s condition.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 161 - You are jogging in the nearby park when a 56-year-old man exercising beside...

    Incorrect

    • You are jogging in the nearby park when a 56-year-old man exercising beside you suddenly grasps his chest and sits down. He reports experiencing central crushing chest pain. As you converse with him, he collapses. He is unresponsive, without a pulse, and not breathing. The park is deserted except for the two of you. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shout for help/call 999

      Explanation:

      Basic Life Support Guidelines: Key Steps for Saving Lives

      Basic life support (BLS) guidelines are crucial in saving lives during emergency situations. The first step is to shout for help or call 999 to ensure that someone dials for emergency services or looks for an automated external defibrillator (AED). Early recognition and call for help is the first key step in the Resuscitation Council chain of survival.

      Giving a precordial thump is no longer recommended as it has a low success rate and needs to be delivered within 2-3 seconds of the onset of ventricular fibrillation (VF) or ventricular tachycardia (VT). Instead, the next step is to start chest compressions immediately after seeking help. Look for a defibrillator, which will be a priority once help has arrived.

      Mouth-to-mouth will occur in combination with chest compressions, but chest compressions should be prioritized over mouth-to-mouth. The guidelines recommend 30 compressions to every two breaths. Remember the four key steps of the chain of survival: early recognition and call for help, early bystander CPR, early defibrillation, and early advanced life support and standardized post-resuscitation care. By following these guidelines, you can help save a life.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 162 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing. While in the restroom, he collapses and is found unresponsive. He has no significant medical history. The patient is immediately transferred to the resuscitation area and advanced life support is initiated. Despite efforts, there is no respiratory effort and the monitor shows sinus tachycardia with no palpable pulse. The patient's wife reports that he recently returned from a business trip to Hong Kong and had been experiencing pain and swelling in his left leg. After 10 minutes of unsuccessful resuscitation, the patient remains in pulseless electrical activity (PEA). What is the appropriate next step in managing this cardiac arrest scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thrombolysis followed by CPR for 90 minutes

      Explanation:

      Thromboembolic Disease and Cardiac Arrest

      Thromboembolic disease is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with thrombolysis. In cases of suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), thrombolysis is indicated but can take up to 90 minutes to be effective. Therefore, it should only be used if it is appropriate to continue CPR for this duration. A brief echo may be appropriate in cardiac arrest, but it is unlikely to demonstrate right ventricular abnormalities that may support the diagnosis. The FAST scan is not specifically indicated in this scenario, and intra-arterial thrombolysis is not recommended. Overall, thromboembolic disease should be considered as a potential cause of cardiac arrest and appropriate treatment should be administered promptly.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 163 - A 55-year-old man presents with dizziness and general malaise for the past three...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with dizziness and general malaise for the past three days. He denies any chest pain, cough, or fever but reports increased fatigue and shortness of breath. His medical history includes ischemic heart disease, a heart transplant, hypertension, and diabetes. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, simvastatin, amlodipine, and various immunosuppressive agents. On examination, his heart sounds are normal, and his chest is clear with mild leg edema. His vital signs show a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/40, SaO2 of 95% on air, T of 36.5ºC, and respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. His ECG shows sinus bradycardia, and his CXR is clear. Blood tests reveal Hb of 10.5 g/dl, platelets of 190 * 109/l, WBC of 10.4 * 109/l, Na+ of 135 mmol/l, K+ of 3.6 mmol/l, urea of 8 mmol/l, creatinine of 100 µmol/l, and CRP of 15 mg/l. What is the best next management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Theophylline intravenous

      Explanation:

      It is important to assess any case of bradycardia using the ABCDE principle, as per ALS protocol. If the patient is experiencing shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure, immediate treatment is necessary. Atropine is typically the first line of treatment, but it should not be used in patients with heart transplants as their denervated hearts do not respond to vagal blockade and may result in paradoxical sinus arrest of high-grade block. In such cases, intravenous theophylline is recommended. If the bradycardia is caused by beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers, glucagon is indicated. Adrenaline may be an option, but it should only be used with expert help and intramuscularly in the case of anaphylaxis.

      Managing Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      Bradycardia is a peri-arrest rhythm that requires prompt management. According to the 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines, the approach to managing bradycardia depends on two factors. The first is identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first-line treatment in this situation. If there is no satisfactory response, up to 3mg of atropine, transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      The second factor is identifying the potential risk of asystole. Risk factors for asystole include complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Therefore, prompt recognition of adverse signs and risk factors for asystole is crucial in managing bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 164 - A 77-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset rapid, irregular...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset rapid, irregular palpitations and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of left ventricular dysfunction due to ischemic heart disease. Upon arrival, he is connected to a monitor, given venous access, and a 12 lead ECG is performed. On examination, he appears unwell, with elevated venous pressure, sweating, and crackles in his lungs. His blood pressure is 75/42 mmHg and his pulse is irregularly irregular at 195 beats per minute with absent P waves on the ECG. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct current cardioversion (DCCV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Tachyarrhythmias

      The management of tachyarrhythmias depends on the presence of adverse features such as myocardial ischaemia, shock, syncope, and heart failure. If these features are present, the treatment of choice is synchronised DCCV under GA or conscious sedation. In the absence of adverse features, drugs may be tried first.

      For patients with AF complicated by heart failure, digoxin or amiodarone are indicated. However, if signs of heart failure are present, DCCV is the most appropriate management. This involves the use of direct current cardioversion to restore the heart’s normal rhythm.

      In summary, the management of tachyarrhythmias depends on the presence of adverse features. If adverse features are present, DCCV is the treatment of choice. If adverse features are not present, drugs may be tried first. For AF complicated by heart failure, digoxin or amiodarone may be used, but if signs of heart failure are present, DCCV is the most appropriate management.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 165 - A 65-year-old male presents with worsening chest pain on exertion over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents with worsening chest pain on exertion over the past 2 weeks, preventing him from carrying out his daily activities. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, sick sinus syndrome, and stable angina. He had a history of excessive alcohol consumption but has been abstinent for the past 9 months after an episode of acute liver decompensation. He previously tried isosorbide mononitrate but experienced significant headaches and facial flushing. He has not had a myocardial infarction before, and a recent echocardiogram showed an ejection fraction of 70%. An ECG shows first-degree heart block with normal QRS complexes at 50 beats/minute, and his blood pressure is 140/76 mmHg. He is currently taking bisoprolol 5mg OD alone and has been using his GTN spray more frequently without relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with stable angina should be prescribed a short-acting nitrate as a first step, followed by a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker if symptoms are not adequately controlled. If further treatment is needed, a combination of both beta blockers and calcium channel blockers may be recommended. However, if a patient requires more than two antianginals, they should be considered for reperfusion therapies, and a third drug should only be added if they are not eligible for PCI or CABG.

      In the case of a patient with first-degree heart block and relative bradycardia, calcium channel blockers would not be suitable. Instead, NICE suggests adding ranolazine, nicorandil, ivabradine, or a long-acting nitrate. However, ivabradine and calcium channel blockers should be avoided in patients with sick sinus syndrome. It is also important to note that liver dysfunction, which may result from alcohol excess or recent decompensation despite abstinence, is an absolute contraindication to ranolazine.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 166 - A 47-year-old man is admitted with a STEMI and is recovering from his...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is admitted with a STEMI and is recovering from his percutaneous coronary intervention. He suddenly experiences severe chest pain on the ward, which worsens with breathing. He denies cough or fever, and his vital signs are stable. On examination, he has tenderness over the chest wall, but his heart sounds are normal, and his chest is clear. Laboratory results show elevated CRP levels, but his electrolytes and renal function are within normal limits. His ECG shows sinus rhythm with T wave inversion in V1-V3, and his chest x-ray is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences pleuritic chest pain within 48 hours of having a heart attack, it is likely due to pericarditis. Hospital-acquired pneumonia usually takes longer to develop, while a coronary artery dissection is a possible complication of PCI but would typically show ischemic changes on an ECG.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 167 - An 80-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department following a syncopal episode at...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department following a syncopal episode at home. Although he regained consciousness on his own, his wife insisted on taking him to the hospital. The patient recalls feeling light-headed before passing out, but he did not experience chest pain or shortness of breath. He had suffered an anterior myocardial infarction three months prior. On examination, he appeared healthy, with a regular pulse of 80 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The heart sounds were normal, and there were no added sounds or murmurs. The 12-lead ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads V3 to V6 and frequent ventricular extrasystoles. A serum troponin-T, taken twelve hours after the episode, was normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm with secondary ventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Left Ventricular Aneurysm Formation with Secondary Ventricular Tachycardia

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is the formation of a left ventricular (LV) aneurysm with secondary ventricular tachycardia (VT). The ECG reveals ST elevation three months after an acute MI, which is indicative of LV aneurysm formation. Although heart failure with VT should always be considered, the patient’s medical history does not suggest it. An acute lateral myocardial infarction or intermittent complete heart block post-MI is also not indicated. Postural hypotension has a distinct clinical presentation and is therefore less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Overall, the diagnosis of LV aneurysm formation with secondary VT is the most likely explanation for the patient’s condition.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 168 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that feels like crushing pressure in the center of his chest. He also reports feeling nauseous. The pain started suddenly while he was at rest. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      Upon examination, an ECG is performed:

      P waves - Normal morphology
      PR interval - 120 ms
      QRS - 115ms
      T waves - Deeply inverted T waves in V2-V3
      ST segments - No elevation or depression

      Based on the patient's symptoms and ECG results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Critical stenosis of the left anterior descending artery (LAD)

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s multiple major risk factors for cardiovascular disease, an acute coronary syndrome is a likely possibility. The presence of deeply inverted T waves in V2-V3 strongly suggests Wellens’ syndrome, which is highly specific for critical stenosis of the left anterior descending artery (LAD). Urgent angiography and revascularization should be pursued as if it were a STEMI.

      If the pathology is related to the right coronary artery, ECG changes in the inferior leads (II, III, and AVF) are typically observed. On the other hand, left main stem coronary artery occlusion usually results in widespread ECG changes, including horizontal ST depression (most prominent in leads I, II, and V4-6) and ST elevation in aVR.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

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  • Question 169 - A 75-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation has been admitted after...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation has been admitted after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. He underwent percutaneous coronary intervention and was taking warfarin, co-codamol, and allopurinol prior to admission. What antithrombotic therapy should be prescribed for him in the immediate aftermath of the event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue warfarin with the addition of 2 antiplatelets

      Explanation:

      After an ACS/PCI, patients with AF typically receive a combination of two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant during the initial phase.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

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  • Question 170 - A 77-year-old woman presents with worsening heart failure symptoms, specifically complaining of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman presents with worsening heart failure symptoms, specifically complaining of increasing edema in her legs. She has a history of congestive heart failure secondary to hypertension and is housebound due to severe osteoarthritis in her knees. Additionally, she is diabetic. Last year, she was hospitalized for pulmonary edema, which was successfully treated with diuretics and an increased dose of her ACE inhibitor. However, attempts to further increase the ACE inhibitor dose resulted in a troublesome dry cough. Her current medication regimen includes bumetanide, carvedilol, enalapril, glibenclamide, metformin, potassium chloride, and paracetamol as needed. On examination, there is pitting edema up to her knees, and she reports sleeping on three pillows or in an armchair. What evidence-based treatment options are available to reduce this patient's mortality risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop potassium supplements and add spironolactone 25 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Option for Heart Failure Patient

      Adding spironolactone is the most logical course of action for the heart failure patient. This treatment option effectively addresses the patient’s primary concern of oedema while also reducing mortality rates in patients with NYHA 3 or 4. It is important to note that although the patient does not report experiencing shortness of breath, her limited mobility suggests the severity of her heart failure. This is further evidenced by her need to sleep in an increasingly upright position.

      In summary, spironolactone is a rational treatment option for this heart failure patient. It not only addresses her current symptoms but also has the potential to improve her overall prognosis. It is crucial to consider all indications of the severity of her condition, even if they are not explicitly stated by the patient. Proper treatment and management can greatly improve the quality of life for those living with heart failure.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 171 - A 75-year-old woman has a history of hypertension. She develops atrial fibrillation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman has a history of hypertension. She develops atrial fibrillation. She has no other medical problems. What is the optimal approach for preventing stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin only

      Explanation:

      CHADS2-VASc Score and Anticoagulation Indication

      The CHADS2-VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. In this case, the patient has two main risk factors: age above 75 and hypertension, which score 2 and 1 points, respectively. This results in a total score of 3. However, the patient does not have congestive cardiac failure, diabetes, or a history of stroke or TIA, which would have added to the score.

      According to the CHADS2-VASc score, a score of two or above indicates the need for anticoagulation with warfarin, provided there are no contraindications to anticoagulation. Therefore, in this case, warfarin is indicated for the patient. It is important to use this tool to assess the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 172 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe acute dyspnoea and progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the hospital with severe acute dyspnoea and progressive breathlessness over the past three months. She denies any chest pain. On examination, her pulse is 120 beats per minute and regular, blood pressure is 95/55 mmHg, and jugular venous pressure is elevated to the angle of the jaw. Bilateral fine inspiratory crackles to the mid zones are heard on chest auscultation, and haemorrhages are observed in both fundi. Her laboratory results show low haemoglobin, haematocrit, MCV, MCH, white cell count, and platelets. The ECG shows left bundle branch block, which had been documented previously. Intravenous furosemide results in an excellent diuresis. What is the most appropriate immediate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      Immediate Management for Severe Megaloblastic Anaemia with Cardiac Failure

      The clinical presentation of severe megaloblastic anaemia with cardiac failure requires immediate management. Although the anaemia has developed slowly, the patient has become acutely haemodynamically compromised. The most appropriate course of action would be to transfuse the patient, but this must be done cautiously with diuretic cover due to the risk of severe congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      While the patient will require an intensive course of intramuscular vitamin B12 and oral folic acid, this is less important in the hyperacute situation where the risk of death from anaemia is high. Giving oral folic acid without vitamin B12 could be hazardous and may precipitate subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

      In summary, immediate management for severe megaloblastic anaemia with cardiac failure involves cautious transfusion with diuretic cover. While vitamin B12 and folic acid are necessary for long-term treatment, they are less important in the hyperacute situation. It is crucial to avoid giving oral folic acid without vitamin B12 to prevent further complications.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 173 - A 25-year-old female presents to cardiology outpatient clinic with recurrent episodes of drowsiness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to cardiology outpatient clinic with recurrent episodes of drowsiness, somnolence, and occasional syncope. She has been diagnosed with sinus bradycardia and is scheduled for pacemaker insertion. Two weeks after the procedure, she reports persistent symptoms of dizziness and occasional palpitations with pulsation in the neck. On examination, her vital signs show a heart rate of 40/min regular, blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 99% on air. An ECG reveals 1:1 AV block and bradycardia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pacemaker syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pacemaker syndrome or AV dyssynchronisation is a condition that affects people with pacemakers who have inadequate AV synchronisation. Symptoms include syncope, dizziness, hypotension, and peripheral oedema. Patients at risk are those with hypotension, low sinus rate, or low compliance ventricles. ECG changes show AV dyssynchronisation with small p waves. This condition is different from carotid artery stenosis and first degree heart block. Papillary muscle rupture and PE have different symptoms.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 174 - A 70-year-old man with a history of previous myocardial infarctions and coronary stents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of previous myocardial infarctions and coronary stents presents with an increase in leg swelling over the past two weeks. He denies shortness of breath but has a nighttime cough. He is currently taking aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, atorvastatin, and citalopram. He admits to feeling cold and low in energy. On examination, he has bilateral pitting leg edema, a pansystolic murmur over the sternum, and a tender hepatomegaly. His JVP is raised with a double flicker pattern. His blood pressure is 145/86 mmHg. Lab results show low Hb, elevated creatinine, and elevated liver enzymes. Chest x-ray shows an enlarged cardiac shadow. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The presence of prominent V waves on JVP is indicative of tricuspid regurgitation in this case. The patient is experiencing right-sided heart failure, as evidenced by leg swelling and a raised JVP. While nephrotic syndrome and hypothyroidism can also cause swollen legs, they would not result in a raised JVP. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy is a possibility, but there is no history of hypertension provided. Cirrhosis can also cause a raised JVP, but the absence of liver disease symptoms and normal clotting rules this out. It is likely that the patient developed tricuspid regurgitation following a posterior myocardial infarction, as the giant V waves on JVP are a classic sign.

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: Causes and Signs

      Tricuspid regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium due to the incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve. This condition can be identified through various signs, including a pan-systolic murmur, prominent or giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse, pulsatile hepatomegaly, and a left parasternal heave.

      There are several causes of tricuspid regurgitation, including right ventricular infarction, pulmonary hypertension (such as in cases of COPD), rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis (especially in intravenous drug users), Ebstein’s anomaly, and carcinoid syndrome. It is important to identify the underlying cause of tricuspid regurgitation in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 175 - A 50-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus underwent bare metal stent...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus underwent bare metal stent placement following an inferior myocardial infarction. He presents to the ED three months later with chest pain, but his troponin at 12 hours is negative. On examination, his BP is 140/82 mmHg, pulse is 72 bpm and regular, and he is not in heart failure. An exercise test shows inferolateral ST depression. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In-stent re-stenosis

      Explanation:

      In-stent re-stenosis is more common in patients with diabetes mellitus, and coated or drug-eluting stents are recommended for these patients. However, coated stents may still lead to re-stenosis if clopidogrel is discontinued. Dual anti-platelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel should be continued for at least a year after the procedure. Coronary artery emboli are more common in atrial fibrillation and have a lower prevalence of traditional cardiac risk factors. In-stent thrombosis is more common in diabetic patients with bare metal stents and tends to occur after anti-platelet medication is stopped. New coronary artery disease distal to the stent is unlikely in the short term, but long-term risk may increase due to inflammatory changes in the vessel wall. Coronary artery vasospasm, or Prinzmetal angina, causes cycles of spasming contraction of coronary vessel wall smooth muscle and can result in ST elevation on ECG and elevated cardiac enzymes.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 176 - A 55-year-old man with no current medication use has been found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no current medication use has been found to have three high blood pressure readings: 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension: Essential vs. Secondary

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects a significant portion of the population. In fact, 95% of patients who present with hypertension have what is known as essential hypertension. This type of hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to high blood pressure. On the other hand, 5% of patients have secondary hypertension, which is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      Essential hypertension is a complex condition that can be influenced by a variety of factors, including age, race, family history, diet, and lifestyle. While the exact cause of essential hypertension is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to an increase in blood pressure. In contrast, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific underlying condition, such as kidney disease, hormonal imbalances, or obstructive sleep apnea.

      It is important to distinguish between essential and secondary hypertension, as the treatment and management of these conditions can vary significantly. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension often requires treatment of the underlying condition in order to effectively manage high blood pressure. By the differences between these two types of hypertension, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an appropriate treatment plan that addresses the unique needs of each individual.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 177 - A 76-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism and generally good health presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism and generally good health presents to the acute medical take after experiencing two episodes of syncope. He reports passing out without any prior dizziness while sitting at the dinner table. Normally, he is able to walk 100 meters at a time.

      During the examination, a loud systolic murmur is heard over the 2nd intercostal space on the left side, which radiates to the carotid. The patient has a slow rising pulse, and his chest is clear. No JVP is observed, and there is no ankle edema.

      The chest x-ray reveals an enlarged heart with calcification of the aortic knuckle. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. The ECHO reveals an aortic valve cross-sectional area of 0.8mm² with a pressure gradient of 42 mmHg. The cusps appear calcified and poorly mobile.

      What other investigations should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      As per the ECHO criteria, this patient has severe aortic stenosis and requires immediate aortic valve replacement (AVR). Since there is a known association between aortic stenosis and atherosclerotic disease, it is advisable to conduct an angiogram before the surgical intervention. This will not only help in identifying any co-existing coronary artery disease but also provide an opportunity to perform coronary artery bypass grafting during the AVR procedure. As the patient is currently stable and not showing any signs of haemodynamic compromise, it is an opportune time to perform both procedures together. However, if the patient had respiratory disease, a CT chest would be necessary.

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.

      Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 178 - A 36-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing that started while she was watching TV four hours ago. She describes the pain as severe, located in the center of her chest, and not radiating. She denies coughing or coughing up blood. She has no significant medical history except for taking oral contraceptives.

      Upon examination, the patient is overweight, has a heart rate of 114 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 101/63 mmHg. Her respiratory rate is 22, and her oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is 5 cm, but there is no swelling in her extremities. Scattered crepitations are heard upon chest auscultation. Her heart sounds are dual, with no audible murmurs. A portable chest x-ray shows clear lung fields.

      Shortly after, the patient's blood pressure drops to 90/59 mmHg. A bedside echocardiogram reveals elevated right ventricular filling pressures with evidence of strain. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia, which, combined with a history of obesity and exogenous estrogen, suggests a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE). It is important to note that not all cases of PE present with pleuritic chest pain, and auscultation may reveal crepitations and wheezing.

      The management of PE depends on its severity. Intermediate risk PE, characterized by myocardial injury or right ventricular dysfunction, is treated with low molecular weight heparin. High risk PE, characterized by shock or hypotension, is best treated with thrombolysis. As the patient in this case has become hypotensive, thrombolytic therapy is recommended.

      Surgical embolectomy is an effective treatment for massive PE, but it is only available at a few specialized centers. Therefore, thrombolysis remains the preferred first-line treatment for massive PE.

      Acute myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock is a possible differential diagnosis, but the clear lung fields on chest x-ray and lack of peripheral edema make this less likely. As a result, treatment with aspirin and clopidogrel would not be beneficial.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

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  • Question 179 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with complaints of palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with complaints of palpitations. She reports occasional palpitations in the past year, but this episode has been ongoing for about 30 minutes. She also reports worsening shortness of breath. She was diagnosed with WPW syndrome a year ago when she presented with similar symptoms.

      Upon examination, she appears anxious. Her pulse is 120 bpm and her BP is 90/60 mmHg. Crackles are heard on auscultation at both lung bases.

      The following investigations are conducted:
      - Urea and electrolytes (U&Es): Normal
      - Full blood count (FBC): Normal
      - Chest X-ray (CXR): Normal
      - Electrocardiogram (ECG): Narrow complex regular tachycardia with heart rate of 140 bpm

      What is the next appropriate immediate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tachycardia with Haemodynamic Compromise

      When faced with tachycardia causing haemodynamic compromise, DC cardioversion should be used early. This is especially true if the patient has a low systolic blood pressure and bibasal crackles on auscultation. Infusion of amiodarone is slightly less effective than flecainide in achieving cardioversion and should be avoided given the systolic blood pressure. Digoxin should also be avoided as it may accelerate conduction down the accessory pathway, potentially leading to further cardiovascular compromise. Intravenous flecainide or disopyramide can be used for chemical cardioversion, but it is not the treatment of choice if there is haemodynamic compromise. Finally, IV verapamil should be avoided as it may accelerate conduction down the accessory pathway, leading to an increase in pulse rate, risk of ventricular tachycardia, and cardiac arrest.

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  • Question 180 - A 75-year-old male presents to the hospital 2 weeks after undergoing a primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to the hospital 2 weeks after undergoing a primary percutaneous coronary intervention for anterior STEMI. He complains of shortness of breath, fever over 39 degrees, and pleuritic chest pain that started 24 hours ago. The chest pain is different from the pain he experienced during his initial presentation with ischaemic chest pain. Upon examination, his calves are soft, heart sounds are normal with no added sounds, and lungs are clear on auscultation. Serum tests reveal a mildly elevated troponin and ECG shows ST elevation in V2 to V4 but no reciprocal change. Angiography shows good radiological flow with no evidence of stent thrombosis. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals a mild to moderate pericardial effusion without tamponade. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s syndrome is a condition that occurs after a cardiac injury and is characterized by inflammation. Symptoms include chest pain, fever, and elevated inflammatory markers. Unlike acute reperfusion injury, which occurs shortly after a heart attack, Dressler’s syndrome typically presents later. It is believed to be caused by an immune response. Treatment typically involves NSAIDs, but some patients may require corticosteroids if symptoms persist.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

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  • Question 181 - A 35-year-old female patient with a history of tetralogy of Fallot repair presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient with a history of tetralogy of Fallot repair presents with a diastolic murmur heard loudest at the upper left sternal edge. She has a saturation level of 98% on room air. What is the probable cause of the diastolic murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Residual Lesions in Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect that affects the flow of blood through the heart. It is characterized by four abnormalities, including a ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. While surgical repair can correct these abnormalities, residual lesions may still occur.

      One of the most common residual lesions in repaired tetralogy of Fallot is pulmonary regurgitation. This occurs when blood flows back from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle during diastole. Aortic regurgitation can also occur, although it is less common. Tricuspid and mitral stenosis are rarely associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

      It is important to note that a VSD is a systolic murmur, not a diastolic murmur as stated in some sources. these residual lesions can help healthcare professionals monitor and manage patients with repaired tetralogy of Fallot.

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  • Question 182 - A 49-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations and difficulty breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations and difficulty breathing that started one day ago. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 150/90 mmHg, pulse at 190/min, respiratory rate at 21/min, and oxygen saturation at 99% on air. An ECG reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm with intermittent delta waves. What medication is recommended to manage the heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flecainide

      Explanation:

      The presence of delta waves indicates that the patient has Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome along with atrial fibrillation. As per the NICE guidelines, flecainide can be considered as a substitute for electrical cardioversion in such cases for attempting pharmacological cardioversion. However, drugs that block the atrioventricular node like digoxin, diltiazem or verapamil should be avoided.

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

      Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval, wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke known as a delta wave, and left or right axis deviation depending on the location of the accessory pathway. WPW is associated with various conditions such as HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD.

      The definitive treatment for WPW is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation. WPW can be differentiated into type A and type B based on the presence or absence of a dominant R wave in V1. It is important to understand WPW and its associations to provide appropriate management and prevent potential complications.

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  • Question 183 - A 16-year-old female presented to her general practitioner with complaints of slight breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to her general practitioner with complaints of slight breathlessness on exertion for the past six months. During examination, a soft systolic murmur was heard at the left sternal edge. An echocardiogram was ordered and she was referred to a cardiologist for further evaluation. The results of her cardiac catheterization are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 74 -
      Inferior vena cava 70 -
      Right atrium (high) 72 7 (mean)
      Right atrium (mid) 71 7 (mean)
      Right atrium (low) 82 7 (mean)
      Right ventricle 79 44/12
      Pulmonary artery 81 42/15
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left ventricle 96 125/9
      Aorta 97 120/70

      What are the expected abnormalities on her electrocardiogram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Connection between Right and Left Sides of the Heart

      The oxygen saturation in the right atrium (RA) and superior vena cava (SVC) should be equal, but there is a rise in oxygen saturation at the low RA level. This can only occur due to the addition of oxygenated blood to the deoxygenated blood in the right heart circulation, indicating an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart. The location of the rise suggests a primum atrial septal defect (ASD), which affects the function of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve, leading to mitral regurgitation. Primum ASDs are more likely to cause high right ventricular pressures.

      In ostium primum ASDs, the atrioventricular (AV) node is displaced posteriorly and inferiorly, and atrial and/or AV nodal conduction is often delayed. This can cause prolongation of the PR interval, leading to first-degree heart block. The QRS pattern is typically an rSr’ or rsR’, resulting from dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricular outflow tract due to volume overload of the right heart. Left axis deviation with Q waves in leads I and aVL is also observed. On the other hand, secundum ASDs cause right axis deviation and RBBB.

      Overall, an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart can lead to various complications, including mitral regurgitation, high right ventricular pressures, and delayed conduction through the AV node. The location and type of ASD can also affect the QRS pattern and axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 184 - A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with systemic sclerosis and is now experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with systemic sclerosis and is now experiencing headaches and blurred vision. She has a history of asthma. During examination, her blood pressure is found to be 230/120 mmHg, and there are bilateral papilloedema and fundal haemorrhages. What medication should be prescribed immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral enalapril

      Explanation:

      Sclerodema Renal Crisis: A Case of Abrupt Onset Hypertension

      Sclerodema renal crisis is a serious complication of systemic sclerosis that affects 10-15% of patients. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, often accompanied by grade III or IV retinopathy, rapid deterioration of renal function, and heart failure. Patients may also experience thrombocytopenia and/or microangiopathic hemolysis. The clinical presentation is similar to malignant hypertension, with symptoms such as headaches, blurred vision, fits, and heart failure.

      Treatment for sclerodema renal crisis involves the use of ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers. While older ACE inhibitors like captopril were initially used, newer agents are now preferred. Renal dialysis may also be necessary. It is important to avoid excessive reduction in blood pressure or hypovolemia, as both can further decrease renal perfusion and lead to acute tubular necrosis. Therefore, parenteral antihypertensive agents like intravenous nitroprusside or labetalol should be avoided.

      In summary, sclerodema renal crisis is a serious complication of systemic sclerosis that requires prompt treatment with ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers. Careful management of blood pressure is crucial to prevent further damage to the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 185 - A 67-year-old overweight woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old overweight woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in with unstable angina that has been ongoing for a week. Despite having no dynamic ECG changes, her troponin levels were negative. She undergoes an angiogram and receives a drug-eluting stent for a 90% stenosis in her LAD. Upon discharge, what antithrombotic regimen should she follow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin and prasugrel for 1 year, followed by lifelong aspirin

      Explanation:

      Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets

      Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines regarding antiplatelets recommend different first and second-line treatments depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with clopidogrel as an alternative if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line options. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with aspirin as a second-line option. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the most effective treatment for each diagnosis.

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  • Question 186 - A 23-year-old male presents to the cardiology clinic with recurrent episodes of loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to the cardiology clinic with recurrent episodes of loss of consciousness, which tend to occur in the late morning or late afternoon. These episodes have been increasing in frequency over the past six months and now occur several times a week. Prior to the episodes, the patient experiences tremors and sweating, and eating chocolate has sometimes prevented or relieved the symptoms. The patient has also noticed these problems occurring during exercise. After the episodes, there is no confusion, disorientation, or residual weakness. On examination, the patient has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 and reports gaining 3 kg in the past three months. The patient has a pulse rate of 70/min−1, blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg lying and 130/80 mmHg standing, and heart sounds S1 and S2 are audible with no added sounds or murmurs. The patient is clinically euthyroid, and there is no evidence of clinical neurological deficit.

      Initial investigations show:
      - Haemoglobin 140 g/L (115-165)
      - WCC 5.0 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelet count 180 ×109/L (140-400)
      - Serum sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Serum potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine 80 μmol/L (60-110)
      - Serum corrected calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      - Serum phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Glucose 5.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - TSH 2.0 mU/L (0.4-5)
      - Free T4 18.0 pmol/L (10-22)
      - Free T3 5.5 pmol/L (5-10)

      The ECG shows sinus rhythm, and the chest x-ray reveals a normal cardiac silhouette and clear lung fields. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admission for prolonged fast

      Explanation:

      Suspected Insulinoma in Patient with Recurrent Episodes of Collapse

      The patient in question has a history that strongly suggests the presence of an insulinoma. The episodes of collapse are preceded by an increase in adrenergic activity, occur several hours after eating, and are relieved by the administration of carbohydrates, all of which are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, recent weight gain supports this suspicion.

      There is no evidence of structural cardiac abnormalities, and the ECG shows normal sinus rhythm without any signs of arrhythmia. Furthermore, there are no clinical indications of neurological disease. The patient’s blood pressure is normal, and there are no signs of flushing or other symptoms that would suggest phaeochromocytoma.

      To confirm the diagnosis, the recommended course of action is to admit the patient to the hospital for a prolonged fast in an attempt to trigger an episode of hypoglycemia. If this occurs, laboratory tests should be conducted to measure blood glucose, insulin, and C peptide levels.

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  • Question 187 - A 75-year-old man presents to the medical take with a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the medical take with a 3-month history of thoracic back pain. Over the last week, he had been having episodes of sweats and shivers, particularly at night.

      He was admitted and blood tests were taken.

      Haemoglobin 87 g/L
      White cells 11.6x10^9/L
      Platelets 214 x10^9/L
      MCV 70 fl
      MCH 20 pg
      Blood cultures Streptococcus gallolyticus

      MRI showed a discitis at thoracic disks 8/9.
      ECHO: No vegetation seen

      What is the next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer is often associated with Streptococcus bovis endocarditis.

      Streptococcus gallolyticus is a specific type of Streptococcus bovis. When patients present with Streptococcus bovis bacteraemia, it is important to investigate for underlying colonic malignancies as approximately 10 to 25 percent of cases are associated with this condition. The most reliable investigation for this is a colonoscopy.

      If a malignancy is detected during colonoscopy, a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis may be necessary to check for metastases. However, this imaging technique is not as effective as colonoscopy in detecting colonic malignancies. Similarly, an ultrasound of the abdomen is also less sensitive than colonoscopy for diagnosing colonic malignancies.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

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  • Question 188 - A 79-year-old man presented with sudden onset shortness of breath and palpitations while...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presented with sudden onset shortness of breath and palpitations while watching TV. He had a sedentary lifestyle and had been bedridden due to an upper respiratory tract infection. He also reported increased swelling in his ankles and legs, particularly the left leg, and the need for an extra pillow to sleep. His medical history included hypertension, hypothyroidism, asthma, and known coronary artery disease.

      On examination, his pulse was irregularly irregular, and the jugular venous pressure was 6 cm above the manubriosternal angle. Lung fields had coarse crepitations at both bases, and there was bilateral pitting edema to the knees, more marked on the left. The circumference of the left leg was 2 cm greater than the right. His heart rate was 128 beats per minute, and SaO2 was 92% on room air. The 12-lead electrocardiogram showed atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response and left ventricular hypertrophy. The chest X-ray revealed cardiomegaly, Kerley B lines, small bilateral pleural effusions, and pulmonary edema. The echocardiogram showed poor biventricular function with an ejection fraction of 35%. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram revealed a small segmental pulmonary embolus.

      The patient was appropriately anticoagulated and improved clinically but remained in atrial fibrillation. Given this clinical information, what is the most appropriate long-term drug to control his heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a suitable option for this patient due to the presence of congestive cardiac failure, which may also benefit from digoxin treatment. However, it is essential to note that NICE advises against using digoxin in patients with an active lifestyle and only recommends it for sedentary individuals.

      As for metoprolol, a beta blocker, it is not a suitable choice for this patient due to their history of asthma.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

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  • Question 189 - A 75-year-old female has been admitted for investigation of elevated pulmonary arterial pressures...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female has been admitted for investigation of elevated pulmonary arterial pressures (50 mmHg) found on a transthoracic echocardiogram, which showed normal left ventricular function and chamber sizes. No valve abnormalities were detected. The patient's right heart catheter saturations are as follows:

      - SVC 76%
      - IVC 74%
      - Right atrium (high) 73.5%
      - Right atrium (mid) 73%
      - Right atrium (low) 72.7%
      - Right ventricle 72%
      - Pulmonary artery 70.8%
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge 95%

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage to SVC

      Explanation:

      When analyzing data from a right heart catheter, it is important to note that the saturation levels should gradually decrease as venous blood reaches the pulmonary capillary wedge saturation, which should be equivalent to arterial blood. Additionally, it is normal for oxygenation in the superior vena cava to be lower than in the inferior vena cava due to the brain’s high oxygen demands. In this study, there were no sudden increases in oxygen saturations, indicating no left to right shunt. However, the SVC saturation was significantly higher than the IVC, indicating anomalous pulmonary venous drainage of more highly oxygenated blood into the SVC.

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation

      Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.

      Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.

      Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

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  • Question 190 - A 68-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of severe diarrhea. He passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of severe diarrhea. He passed watery stool with blood up to 12 times per day. He also complained of cramping abdominal pain, a low-grade fever, and increased fatigue. He had recently finished a course of amoxicillin for a sinus infection.
      During examination, his temperature was 38.2 °C. His abdomen was tender, especially in the lower portion.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 20.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Urea 14.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Rigid sigmoidoscopy Raised, yellowish white plaques throughout sigmoid
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV sodium nitroprusside

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with markedly elevated blood pressure and evidence of decompensation with LVF, immediate intervention is necessary. The ideal choice for intervention is IV sodium nitroprusside, which can be titrated for gradual BP reduction. This medication leads to significant vasodilatation and not only reduces blood pressure but also has a positive impact on the mild LVF seen in the patient.Oral atenolol is not the preferred option as it has a long half-life and may exacerbate cardiac failure. Sublingual nifedipine can reduce BP rapidly, but its short half-life can lead to rapid rebound in blood pressure. Similarly, oral captopril has a relatively short half-life, making nitroprusside as a titratable infusion the better option.Reassurance alone is inappropriate as the patient is at risk of worsening left ventricular failure and/or an acute stroke due to hypertension. Therefore, close monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary to manage the hypertensive emergency with LVF.

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  • Question 191 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with a history of syncope...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with a history of syncope during his morning walk. He has hypercholesterolaemia and is taking simvastatin 20 mg daily. He has no family history of coronary artery disease and is a non-smoker. On examination, his BP is 110/90 mmHg, and he has a slow rising carotid pulse and an ejection systolic murmur. Investigations reveal left ventricular hypertrophy, a mean aortic valve area of 0.5 cm2, and a peak transvalvular gradient of 80 mmHg. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Aortic Stenosis

      Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis (AS) requires prompt management to improve prognosis. Aortic valve replacement is the recommended treatment for all symptomatic patients with severe AS. However, it is important to assess for concomitant coronary artery disease (CAD) before surgery. Cardiac angiography should be performed to determine the need for revascularization at the time of surgery, in the form of coronary artery bypass grafting.

      A treadmill stress test should be avoided in patients with severe AS as it may precipitate a syncopal episode. Balloon valvulotomy may be considered as a bridge to surgery in unstable patients, but surgical valve replacement is the preferred treatment option.

      Before proceeding with aortic valve replacement, significant CAD should be ruled out. If present, CABG may be required at the same time as valve replacement. Starting an ACE inhibitor in a patient with severe AS risks a significant reduction in ventricular filling pressure and increases the risk of collapse.

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  • Question 192 - A 59-year-old man presents to cardiology clinic with retrosternal chest pain during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to cardiology clinic with retrosternal chest pain during physical activity. He reports experiencing symptoms when walking more than 50 meters on flat ground or playing with his grandchildren on the floor. The patient has been experiencing these symptoms for at least the past 9 months, but denies any episodes of pain at rest. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolemia and was previously treated with bisoprolol and amlodipine, but discontinued due to unwanted effects. He is currently taking aspirin 75 mg daily and pravastatin 10 mg daily, with nitrate spray and sildenafil used as required. The patient quit smoking the previous year.

      On examination, there is no evidence of cardiac failure and blood pressure is 102/72 mmHg. Previous investigations include an electrocardiogram showing sinus rhythm at 58 beats per minute, borderline left axis deviation, non-specific lateral ST segment abnormalities, and normal T waves. Transthoracic echocardiogram shows normal valvular function, no regional wall motion abnormality, and an ejection fraction of 55-60%. Cardiac stress magnetic resonance imaging reveals significant evidence of ischemia in the region of the lateral left ventricle, with an estimated 20% of LV myocardium affected.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient's chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

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  • Question 193 - Which medications can lead to an increase in troponin I levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medications can lead to an increase in troponin I levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herceptin

      Explanation:

      Causes of Elevated Troponin Levels

      Elevated troponin levels can be caused by various factors, including trauma, cardioversion, rhabdomyolysis, pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, hypertension, hypotension, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, sepsis, burns, subarachnoid hemorrhage, stroke, infiltrative/autoimmune disorders, and certain drugs.

      Trauma, cardioversion, and rhabdomyolysis are physical causes that can lead to elevated troponin levels. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, hypertension, and hypotension, especially with arrhythmias, are cardiovascular causes that can also contribute to elevated troponin levels. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy and myocarditis, including Kawasaki’s disease, are other cardiac conditions that can cause elevated troponin levels.

      Sepsis, burns, subarachnoid hemorrhage, stroke, and infiltrative/autoimmune disorders such as sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, and scleroderma are non-cardiac causes that can also lead to elevated troponin levels. Additionally, certain drugs such as Adriamycin, Herceptin, and 5-fluorouracil can cause elevated troponin levels.

      In summary, elevated troponin levels can be caused by a variety of factors, both cardiac and non-cardiac. It is important to identify the underlying cause of elevated troponin levels in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 194 - A 77-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a loss of consciousness. Upon further questioning, she reports increasing difficulty with shortness of breath on exertion, making everyday tasks like shopping and cleaning challenging. Her medical history includes a right hip fracture six years ago, which required a total hip replacement. She has no known drug allergies and takes no regular medication.

      During examination, her pulse is 80 beats per minute, blood pressure is 104/89 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. An ejection systolic murmur is heard loudest at the aortic area and radiates to the carotid arteries. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy. A chest x-ray reveals clear lung fields.

      Given these findings, a diagnosis of aortic stenosis is made, and the patient opts for open surgical valve replacement. However, before proceeding with the procedure, what additional investigation is warranted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of severe aortic stenosis is confirmed when the valve area is less than 1 cm² and the transvalvular gradient is greater than 50 mmHg on transthoracic echocardiogram. The patient has chosen to undergo open surgical valve replacement, which requires prior coronary angiography to rule out any coronary stenosis that may require bypass grafting.

      Additional ECG or echocardiogram studies are typically not needed after the initial 12 lead ECG and transthoracic echocardiogram have been performed.

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.

      Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.

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  • Question 195 - A 58-year-old former user of intravenous drugs is in cardiac arrest and you...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old former user of intravenous drugs is in cardiac arrest and you are part of the cardiac arrest team called urgently to the Emergency department to assist. Upon arrival, the patient is already intubated and receiving chest compressions from the nurse. Despite two shocks for VF, the patient remains unresponsive. The paramedics and Emergency department team have made several attempts to gain venous access but have been unsuccessful. Adrenaline is now indicated for the next cycle. What is the recommended next step to administer adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain intraosseous access

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Methods of Administering Drugs in Cardiac Arrest

      Endotracheal tube administration of drugs is no longer recommended in the recent UK Resuscitation Council guidelines due to its unreliability in providing plasma drug levels and potential impairment of gaseous exchange. In children, intraosseous access has been traditionally used, but it has also been found to be a safe and effective method of administering drugs in cardiac arrest. It allows for adequate plasma levels of drugs and equivalent flow rates to IV access. If IV access cannot be gained within two minutes, IO access should be attempted, preferably at the tibial or humeral sites.

      Central venous access is also recommended, as long as it does not interfere with chest compressions. These methods ensure that drugs are administered effectively and safely during cardiac arrest, improving the chances of successful resuscitation. Proper training and knowledge of these methods are crucial for healthcare professionals to provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 196 - An 84-year-old male complains of ischaemic-sounding chest pain that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old male complains of ischaemic-sounding chest pain that has been ongoing for the past hour. A 12-lead ECG is conducted and reveals significant T wave inversion in leads V1 and V2.

      What is the most probable coronary artery involved in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The presence of ischaemic changes in leads V1-V4, specifically in the form of deep T wave inversions, is indicative of a critical blockage in the proximal left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery. This is commonly observed in patients with unstable angina and is known as Wellens’ syndrome.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal ECG changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

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  • Question 197 - An 80-year-old man is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for a total...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for a total hip replacement surgery in a week. He had a heart attack eight months ago and underwent angioplasty with a drug-eluting stent placement. The patient is currently on a daily dose of clopidogrel 75 mg and aspirin 75 mg. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpone surgery for a year from the date of insertion of the stent

      Explanation:

      Managing Antiplatelet Therapy in Patients with Drug-Eluting Stents

      Thrombosis of a drug-eluting stent can lead to high morbidity and mortality rates. To prevent this, patients are typically prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy, which includes aspirin and clopidogrel, for at least twelve months after the stent is inserted. However, the risk of stent thrombosis increases during the perioperative period, especially if antiplatelet drugs are discontinued. Therefore, it is important to balance the risk of ST with the risk of bleeding when deciding whether to continue antiplatelet therapy during elective surgery.

      Ideally, elective surgery should be postponed until it is safe to stop clopidogrel and continue with aspirin. This is typically after twelve months of dual antiplatelet therapy. However, in some cases, surgery cannot be postponed. In these situations, a multidisciplinary discussion between the surgeon, anaesthetist, and cardiologist is necessary to determine the best course of action. They will need to consider the patient’s individual risk factors for ST and bleeding, as well as the type of surgery being performed.

      In summary, managing antiplatelet therapy in patients with drug-eluting stents requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits of continuing or discontinuing these drugs during elective surgery. A collaborative approach between healthcare professionals is essential to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 198 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) for evaluation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) for evaluation. She reports experiencing rapid heartbeats that lasted for up to 20 minutes before returning to normal, and she felt dizzy and almost fainted during the episodes. This has happened four times in the past three months, with each episode lasting for about two to three minutes. She is a long-distance runner who exercises for up to two hours a day and drinks three cups of coffee daily.
      During the examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 100/65 mmHg, and her pulse is 55 beats per minute (bpm) and regular. There are no murmurs, and her chest is clear.
      The following investigations are conducted:
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 120–160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Glucose 4.8 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal function, with a ventricular rate of 58 bpm. A chest X-ray (CXR) is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      A patient with a history of long-distance running presents with symptoms of presyncope and relative bradycardia on clinical examination. A normal ECG and CXR suggest a diagnosis of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation related to a runner’s heart. To confirm the diagnosis, a 24-hour cardiac monitor is necessary. An echocardiogram should also be performed to exclude any structural cardiac abnormality. Sinus tachycardia is unlikely due to the resting bradycardia, while atrial and ventricular ectopics may cause short palpitations but not prolonged palpitations or presyncope. Ventricular tachycardia is also unlikely given the patient’s age and fitness level, but should still be investigated with a 24-hour Holter monitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 199 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with seven days of fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with seven days of fever. She was previously seen six days ago and advised to return if the fever persisted. Despite taking paracetamol, there has been no improvement. She has no past medical history.

      Observations:

      Heart rate 88 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 102/72 mmHg
      Temperature 39.5C

      During examination, her conjunctivae appear red. She has red, cracked lips and a 'strawberry tongue'. There is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. The palms of her hands and soles of her feet are red. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.

      Urinalysis and a chest x-ray show no abnormalities.

      Blood tests:

      Hb 140 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 195 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 4.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 38 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 12 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 42 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      Apart from aspirin, what other treatment has the strongest evidence for effectiveness in managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is the appropriate treatment for the child’s condition, which is Kawasaki disease. This is a medium-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects children and can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Along with aspirin, IVIG is administered to prevent this complication. Antibiotic treatment is not necessary as Kawasaki disease is an inflammatory rather than infective condition. Cyclophosphamide is not the first-line treatment for this condition due to its potential side effects, and corticosteroids may be considered as an adjunctive treatment in certain high-risk groups or in the presence of specific blood test abnormalities or cardiac involvement.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 200 - A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of diarrhoea, dyspnoea, and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of diarrhoea, dyspnoea, and weight loss. He used to be quite active and fit prior to the onset of his symptoms. He reports having up to 10 episodes of diarrhoea daily and experiencing wheezing and breathlessness during flushes that occur at any time of the day. On examination, his pulse is regular at 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, and saturations are 98% on air. He has an elevated jugular venous pressure of approximately 8 cm above the sternal angle, a soft pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge, and 8 cm hepatomegaly.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Serum total bilirubin: 17 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Serum alkaline phosphatase: 720 U/L (45-105)
      - Serum aspartate aminotransferase: 50 U/L (1-31)
      - Serum alanine aminotransferase: 62 U/L (5-35)
      - 24-hour urine HIAA: 750 µmol/L (<70)
      - Echocardiography: marked tricuspid regurgitation and mild pulmonary stenosis

      Which of the following features has the worst prognosis in this patient's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid Syndrome and its Prognosis

      Carcinoid syndrome is confirmed by the presence of symptoms and elevated urinary HIAA concentration. Despite heavy hepatic infiltration, liver function is usually normal, while mild derangement of AST/ALT and elevated alkaline phosphatase are common. Wheezing is a typical symptom due to the release of vasoactive compounds. Treatment with somatostatin analogues usually improves symptoms, and younger patients tend to have a better prognosis.

      However, patients with carcinoid heart disease have a poor prognosis, with most dying of progressive right heart failure within a year of symptom onset. Although the prognosis has improved over the past two decades, valve replacement surgery is often necessary and cardiac lesions are not reversible with treatment. Therefore, early recognition and management of carcinoid syndrome is crucial for improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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