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  • Question 1 - Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease,...

    Correct

    • Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPI should be given for 1 month.

      On the other hand, if endoscopy shows negative reflux disease, a full dose PPI should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.

      Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. Therefore, it is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      119.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of new-onset pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of new-onset pain in his left groin. Upon examination, a large, warm, non-reducible mass located inferolateral to the pubic tubercle is observed, accompanied by erythema of the overlying skin. The patient reports vomiting twice and passing stools with blood mixed in them once. He appears to be in pain and is sweating profusely. His medical history includes peptic ulcer disease, which is managed with omeprazole. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incarcerated inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Strangulated femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      A femoral hernia can lead to the serious complication of strangulation. In this case, the patient has a non-reducible mass located below the pubic tubercle, which is typical of a femoral hernia. However, the accompanying symptoms of vomiting, bloody stools, and a toxic appearance suggest that the hernia has become strangulated, meaning that the blood supply to the herniated tissue has been compromised and may lead to tissue death.

      An incarcerated femoral hernia would also present as a non-reducible mass below the pubic tubercle, but without the symptoms of strangulation.

      In contrast, an incarcerated inguinal hernia would present as a non-reducible mass above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, and would not cause symptoms of strangulation.

      A perforated peptic ulcer would cause pain in the upper abdomen, syncope, and possibly vomiting blood, which is different from the patient’s symptoms.

      Similarly, a strangulated inguinal hernia would cause similar symptoms, but the mass would be located above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, rather than below it.

      Understanding Femoral Hernias

      Femoral hernias occur when a part of the bowel or other abdominal organs pass through the femoral canal, which is a potential space in the anterior thigh. This can result in a lump in the groin area that is mildly painful and typically non-reducible. Femoral hernias are less common than inguinal hernias, accounting for only 5% of abdominal hernias, and are more prevalent in women, especially those who have had multiple pregnancies. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but ultrasound may be used to confirm the presence of a femoral hernia and exclude other possible causes of a lump in the groin area.

      Complications of femoral hernias include incarceration, where the herniated tissue cannot be reduced, and strangulation, which is a surgical emergency. The risk of strangulation is higher with femoral hernias than with inguinal hernias and increases over time. Bowel obstruction and bowel ischaemia may also occur, leading to significant morbidity and mortality for the patient.

      Surgical repair is necessary for femoral hernias, and it can be done laparoscopically or via a laparotomy. Hernia support belts or trusses should not be used for femoral hernias due to the risk of strangulation. In an emergency situation, a laparotomy may be the only option. It is essential to distinguish femoral hernias from inguinal hernias, as they have different locations and require different management approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
      What should be the GP's next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
    Blood tests reveal:
    Bilirubin...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
      Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her local medical practice after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (anti-TGA). What condition is linked to anti-TGA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:

      Coeliac Disease: This disease is caused by gluten sensitivity and results in chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue. It is caused by an autoimmune reaction to glutenin or gliadin, which are gluten proteins found in wheat.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris: This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering to the skin and mucosal surfaces. It is caused by autoantibodies against desmoglein.

      Graves’ Disease: This autoimmune disease of the thyroid results in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): SLE is a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with a wide number of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA, anti-Smith, anti-SSA, anti-ribosomal P, anti-RNP, and anti-histone antibodies.

      Type I Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM): T1DM is an autoimmune disease resulting in destruction of the islet cells. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of autoimmune diseases can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She denies any weight loss, anorexia, dysphagia, vomiting, or alteration in bowel habits. Her abdominal examination is normal. What factor could potentially reduce the reliability of a 13C-urea breath test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Course of amoxicillin stopping 3 weeks ago

      Explanation:

      To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 7 - Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific antibodies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
      Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.

      One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.

      Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.

      It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 4 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2.5 kilograms, which he attributes to a decreased appetite. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the interview, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia along with weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as this is a common characteristic. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. Although achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, patients with oesophageal spasm usually experience pain when swallowing.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He has noticed unusual patterns on his tongue that have been present for a while, but he is worried about tongue cancer as he has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. What is the most suitable initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Geographic Tongue: A Benign Condition Requiring No Medical Intervention

      Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects up to 3% of the general population. While some patients may experience a burning sensation when consuming hot or spicy foods, most are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of geographic tongue can usually be confirmed from history and physical examination alone, and no medical intervention is required.

      Surgical correction is not warranted for geographic tongue, as it is a benign condition of no clinical significance. Aspiration for cytology is also not appropriate, as the diagnosis can be made without further investigation. Excision biopsy may actually cause harm, as histological findings are identical to those seen in pustular psoriasis.

      A full blood count is not necessary for the diagnosis of geographic tongue. Instead, the condition can be identified through the elongation of rete ridges, hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis at the periphery, loss of filiform papillae, and migration and clustering of neutrophils within the epithelium towards the centre of the lesions. The predominant inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria is neutrophils with an admixture of chronic inflammatory cells.

      In summary, geographic tongue is a benign condition that requires no medical intervention. Diagnosis can be made through history and physical examination alone, and further investigation may cause harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/3) 67%
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