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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis B. His blood tests show positive results for hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies. However, he tests negative for IgM anti Hbc and anti-hepatitis B surface antibody. What is the man's current disease status?

      Your Answer: Susceptible to infection

      Correct Answer: Chronically infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and sweaty state in her bedroom. She is unable to provide a clear medical history. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.3°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and appears to be short of breath with a respiratory rate of 30. There is no stiffness in her neck, and her chest sounds clear upon auscultation. An arterial blood gas test taken with 15 l/min oxygen shows a pH of 7.29 (7.35-7.45), Pa O2 of 37 kPa (11-14), PaCO2 of 2.1 kPa (4.5-6), and lactate of 2.4 mmol/L (0.1-2.5). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cocaine use

      Correct Answer: Aspirin overdose

      Explanation:

      Signs of Aspirin Toxicity

      Aspirin toxicity can be identified through several symptoms such as fever, sweating, tachypnoea, and acidosis. These signs indicate that the body is experiencing an overdose of aspirin. The presence of confusion is a clear indication of severe overdose. On the other hand, hypoxia is expected in severe asthma and Legionella pneumonia.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and malaise. She recently returned from a holiday in southern Spain and has since developed a non-productive cough with chills that have worsened. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes per day but no other medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 40°C, blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, and a pulse of 106 bpm. Chest examination reveals inspiratory crackles at the left base only, with a respiratory rate of 28/min. Baseline investigations show haziness at the left base on CXR, Hb 128 g/L (115-165), WCC 5.5 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60-110), Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Legionnaires disease

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: A Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      This patient’s medical history and symptoms suggest that they have contracted a community-acquired pneumonia. However, despite the obvious infection, their white cell count appears relatively normal, indicating that they may have an atypical pneumonia. Further investigation reveals that the patient recently traveled to Spain and is experiencing hyponatremia, which are both indicative of Legionnaires disease. This disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism and is typically spread through infected water supplies, such as air conditioning systems.

      To diagnose Legionnaires disease, doctors typically look for the presence of urinary antigen before any rise in serum antibody titres. Fortunately, the organism is sensitive to macrolides and ciprofloxacin, which can be used to treat the disease. Overall, it is important for doctors to consider Legionnaire’s disease as a potential cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in patients with a recent history of travel and hyponatremia.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal blood results. His test results show Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, IgG Anti-HBc antibody positive, IgM Anti-HBc antibody negative, and Anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody negative. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immunity due to hepatitis B vaccine

      Correct Answer: Chronically infected with hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host’s cells, whether it is an acute or chronic infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and will no longer be present in chronic infection. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen develop in vaccinated individuals, providing natural immunity once the infection has cleared. If a patient has developed antibodies to HBsAg, they would be HBsAg negative and would not be a hepatitis B chronic carrier. the presence and absence of these antigens and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A known case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A known case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency department, distressed and cyanosed. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 8.3 kPa (11.3-12.6 kPa), PaCO2 10 kPa (4.7-6.0 kPa). The patient, who is in his 60s, is given high concentration oxygen together with a salbutamol nebuliser and intravenous hydrocortisone. Despite these interventions, the patient's breathing effort worsens, although pulse oximetry showed SaO2 of 93%. What could be the reason for the patient's deterioration?

      Your Answer: High concentration oxygen administration

      Explanation:

      The Dangers of High Concentration Oxygen for COPD Patients

      The patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD had led to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Due to the nature of his condition, his respiratory centre was only stimulated by hypoxia. As a result, when he was given high concentration oxygen, his respiratory effort decreased and his condition worsened. This is because the high concentration of oxygen deprived him of the hypoxic drive that was necessary to stimulate his respiratory centre. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when administering oxygen to COPD patients, as high concentrations can have dangerous consequences. Proper monitoring and management of oxygen levels can help prevent exacerbations and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky trail during a hike. He has scrapes on both shins and a heavily soiled deep wound on his right palm. An x-ray of his hand reveals the existence of a foreign object. The patient reports being up-to-date on his tetanus immunization (last vaccination 5 years ago). What measures should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: An immediate dose of tetanus immunoglobulin should be given

      Correct Answer: Both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Tetanus-Prone Wounds

      When a patient presents with a wound that is prone to tetanus, such as one that has come into contact with soil and has a foreign body, immediate treatment is necessary. According to guidance, a fully immunised patient with a tetanus-prone wound should receive both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. This treatment should be administered as soon as possible to prevent the development of tetanus, a serious and potentially fatal condition. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being referred by her GP due to a two-day history of increasing pain and swelling in the right groin area. Upon examination, there is a firm and red swelling that extends from the pubic tubercle downwards and outwards. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hernias and their Characteristics

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of hernia in adults, while femoral hernias are more commonly seen in elderly females. The femoral canal is formed by several ligaments and opens at the femoral ring, which is located inferolaterally to the pubic tubercle. On the other hand, inguinal hernias open at the superficial inguinal ring, which is found superolateral to the pubic tubercle. Therefore, options A and D are incorrect.

      Incisional hernias occur at a previous site of surgery where the underlying tissue has been weakened. This type of hernia can occur anywhere on the abdomen where surgery has taken place. However, in the absence of any previous surgery or scar, it is not the correct answer.

      Spigelian hernias occur in the abdominal wall within the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally. They do not present with a groin swelling.

      In summary, there are different types of hernias, each with its own characteristics and location. It is important to correctly identify the type of hernia to determine the appropriate treatment.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?

      Your Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 9 - As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse...

    Correct

    • As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?

      Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients

      In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.

      D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.

      In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old individual is brought to the medical team on call due to fever, neck stiffness, and altered Glasgow coma scale. The medical team suspects acute bacterial meningitis.

      What would be the most suitable antibiotic option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Empirical Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bacterial Meningitis

      Patients aged 16-50 years presenting with acute bacterial meningitis are most likely infected with Neisseria meningitidis or Streptococcus pneumoniae. The most appropriate empirical antibiotic choice for this age group is cefotaxime alone. However, if the patient has been outside the UK recently or has had multiple courses of antibiotics in the last 3 months, vancomycin may be added due to the increase in penicillin-resistant pneumococci worldwide.

      For infants over 3 months old up to adults of 50 years old, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic. If the patient is under 3 months or over 50 years old, amoxicillin is added to cover for Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, although this is rare. Ceftriaxone can be used instead of cefotaxime.

      Once the results of culture and sensitivity are available, the antibiotic choice can be modified for optimal treatment. Benzylpenicillin is usually first line, but it is not an option in this case. It is important to choose the appropriate antibiotic treatment to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Emergency Medicine
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Emergency Medicine (5/10) 50%
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