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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.

      Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.

      Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.

      On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood

      Explanation:

      Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis

      Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital three days ago. She underwent a cholecystectomy but had to stay longer due to a chest infection that required treatment. She is now experiencing watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramping pain, and mild lower abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salmonella infection

      Correct Answer: Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile-Associated Colitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with diarrhoea who have received antibiotics within the previous three months, have recently been in hospital, and/or have an occurrence of diarrhoea 48 hours or more after discharge from the hospital. Although cases can also occur in the community without a history of hospitalisation, the primary risk factor is a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon by exposure to antibiotics. The release of toxins causes mucosal inflammation and damage, leading to diarrhoea. While most patients develop diarrhoea during or shortly after starting antibiotics, some may not become symptomatic for up to ten weeks after antibiotics.

      Therapy for non-severe infection consists of oral vancomycin or fidaxomcyin as a second-line option. Ceasing the causative antibiotic (if possible) will result in resolution in approximately three days in about 20% of patients. However, more severe diseases will require hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal pain that comes on in the evening and also wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. His symptoms are relieved by food and milk.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer: Reflux oesophagitis

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Disorders and their Symptoms

      Peptic ulcer disease, chronic pancreatitis, cirrhosis, gallstones, and reflux oesophagitis are some of the most common gastrointestinal disorders. Peptic ulcers are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol, tobacco consumption, and Helicobacter pylori. The main symptom is epigastric pain, which is characterised by a gnawing or burning sensation and occurs after meals. Relief by food and alkalis is typical of duodenal ulcers, while food and alkalis provide only minimal relief in gastric ulcers.

      Chronic pancreatitis causes intermittent attacks of severe pain, often in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, and may be accompanied by diarrhoea and weight loss. Cirrhosis is often asymptomatic until there are obvious complications of liver disease, such as coagulopathy, ascites, variceal bleeding, or hepatic encephalopathy. Gallstones cause biliary colic, which is characterised by sporadic and unpredictable episodes of pain localised to the epigastrium or right upper quadrant. Obstructive jaundice may occur, and localising signs may be absent unless cholecystitis complicates the situation.

      Reflux oesophagitis typically presents with heartburn, upper abdominal discomfort, regurgitation, and chest pain. There is no clear evidence to suggest that the stress of modern life or a steady diet of fast food causes ulcers. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
      What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 50 year old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of increasing dyspepsia, dysphagia, and fatigue. She reports a prolonged history of dark brown stools, but no recent occurrence of fresh blood. She denies any significant weight loss and has a past surgical history of peptic ulcer disease. Upon investigation, she is found to have H. pylori infection.

      What should be the subsequent course of action?

      Your Answer: 2 week referral to endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: A 22-year-old man with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. He has no evidence of current liver disease

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed diarrhoea while he was there and it has persisted for 10 days after his return. He has not vomited and doesn't have a raised temperature.
      Select from the list the single most likely cause of his diarrhoea.

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Treating Giardia: Symptoms and Treatment

      Giardia is a parasitic infection that should be suspected if symptoms of traveller’s diarrhoea persist for more than 10 days or if symptoms begin after returning home. Weight loss may also be present. However, if diarrhoea lasts for less than a week, it is likely caused by something else, such as norovirus. Vomiting is a common symptom of most diarrhoeal illnesses, except for shigella and giardia. Both Salmonella and Shigella infections may also cause high fever. Treatment for Giardia involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old man has just relocated to the area and asks about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man has just relocated to the area and asks about a screening test he thinks he should have. He was last invited to the hospital for this screening test 2 years ago. He has no medical conditions, takes no medications, and has no family history.

      Which screening program is he inquiring about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer - 3 yearly mammogram aged 50-70

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer screening is available to women aged 50-70 years, with a mammogram offered every 3 years. Women over 70 can self-refer. Bowel cancer screening, on the other hand, involves a home test kit every 2 years for individuals aged 60 to 74. It is important to note that breast cancer screening is not recommended for women aged 48-72, and the correct screening interval is every 3 years.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.

      Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators

      Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for 18 years. She has been in remission for the past six years, but has been experiencing abdominal pain and passing bloody stools for the past week. She is seeking treatment.

      She is generally healthy and takes the combined contraceptive pill and ibuprofen as needed for back pain. She smokes five cigarettes daily but doesn't consume alcohol.

      What is the accurate statement regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking increases the risk of Crohn's disease relapse

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications

      Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
      What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis

      Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - You are evaluating a 45-year-old man with pancreatic cancer who is receiving palliative...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 45-year-old man with pancreatic cancer who is receiving palliative care. He presents with jaundice and liver function tests indicate an obstructive pattern. Despite the use of basic emollients, he is experiencing pruritus that is causing discomfort. What would be the most effective approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care and Pruritus Treatment

      Pruritus is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by medication such as morphine. However, in cases of obstructive jaundice, simple approaches like topical emollients may not be enough. Cholestyramine is the preferred drug for pruritus palliation, given at a daily dose of 4-8 g. This anion-exchange resin forms an insoluble complex with bile acids, the cause of pruritus, in the intestine. To avoid any interaction and inhibition of absorption, other drugs should be taken at least one hour before or four to six hours after cholestyramine use. In summary, pruritus in palliative care can be effectively managed with cholestyramine, providing relief for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting an increase in breast size over...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting an increase in breast size over the past few years. He has alcoholic cirrhosis and continues to consume one bottle of vodka daily. He is prescribed furosemide for oedema but takes no other medications.
      What is the probable reason for this patient's gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Altered oestrogen metabolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Gynaecomastia in Cirrhosis

      Gynaecomastia in cirrhosis is a complex condition with various potential causes. One of the most likely culprits is the disordered metabolism of sex steroids, which can result in excess levels of oestrogens. As liver function decreases, plasma testosterone concentrations also decrease, often leading to associated symptoms such as testicular atrophy and loss of body hair.

      While furosemide is not typically associated with gynaecomastia, spironolactone therapy used in cirrhosis treatment can be a contributing factor. Excess energy intake from alcohol is also a common issue in alcohol-related cirrhosis, as patients may substitute alcohol for food and suffer from nutritional deficiencies.

      Although bodybuilders taking anabolic steroids may report gynaecomastia, there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as a cause. Additionally, it is important to note that low testosterone levels, rather than excess levels, are typically associated with gynaecomastia. By understanding the various potential causes of this condition, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat gynaecomastia in cirrhosis patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.

      The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.

      On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants

      Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.

      Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.

      The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A quarter of patients diagnosed with bowel cancer will survive for at least 10 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Colorectal Cancer

      A basic understanding of the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is important for general practitioners to consider when treating their patients. It is worth noting that 95% of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals over the age of 50.

      In terms of incorrect answer options, it is important to note that bowel cancer incidence rates have not increased by 6% over the last 10 years. Additionally, bowel cancer is not the second most common cause of cancer death in the UK overall, but rather in men alone it is second to prostate cancer and in women alone it is second to breast cancer.

      Finally, while almost 42,000 people were diagnosed with bowel cancer in the UK in 2011, it is not accurate to say that half of patients diagnosed with colorectal cancer will survive their disease for 10 years or more. It is important for general practitioners to have accurate information about colorectal cancer in order to provide the best care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with faecal incontinence and diarrhoea, which he finds embarrassing. He has a history of irregular bowel movements but has never experienced this before. He was recently prescribed codeine for knee osteoarthritis. What is the most probable cause of his faecal incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation with overflow

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Faecal Incontinence

      Faecal incontinence, or the inability to control bowel movements, can have various underlying causes. One of the strongest predictors of faecal incontinence is chronic diarrhoea, which can be caused by conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, lactose intolerance, and others. Another possible cause is constipation with overflow, where the patient is prone to constipation and may experience incontinence due to the addition of certain medications like codeine.

      Laxative abuse, although it can lead to diarrhoea, is not necessarily a direct cause of faecal incontinence. Cerebrovascular disease may also contribute to incontinence, but there is no indication of this in the given scenario. Haemorrhoids, which can result from chronic constipation, typically cause rectal bleeding and pain but are not commonly associated with faecal incontinence. Prostatic disease may contribute to constipation but is less likely to cause faecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What is the most common symptom of Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing epigastric pain after eating for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing epigastric pain after eating for the past month. She has a history of intermittent heartburn and epigastric burning for over a year, which was previously managed with regular alginate. Three months ago, she reported no weight loss or vomiting, and her H. pylori status was checked. On her return visit, it was found that she is H. pylori positive and has experienced a reduced appetite, mild nausea, and some weight loss. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole 20 mg/day and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Upper GI Cancer in H. pylori Positive Patient

      This patient is showing red flag symptoms and signs that suggest upper GI cancer, including weight loss and poor appetite. Despite being Helicobacter pylori positive, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy or to a specialist in upper GI cancer should not be delayed. An ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and prescribing a PPI should be avoided as it can mask underlying disease. It is important to prioritize urgent referral over prescribing eradication therapy for H. pylori, as the latter may delay the diagnosis of underlying pathology. By promptly referring the patient for further evaluation, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential upper GI cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV and HCV RNA.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about hepatitis C.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-infection with HIV results in more rapid progression of liver disease

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C: A Silent Threat to Liver Health

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes unnoticed in its acute phase, with only a minority of patients presenting with symptoms such as jaundice or abnormal liver enzymes. Unfortunately, the majority of patients do not clear the infection and go on to develop chronic disease, which can remain undetected for decades. The primary mode of transmission is through intravenous drug use and sharing needles, although sexual transmission is possible, especially in those co-infected with HIV. Needle-stick injuries and exposure to infected blood also pose a risk of transmission. Unfortunately, there is no post-exposure vaccine or effective preventative treatment. Factors that increase the risk of rapid progression of liver disease include male sex, age over 40, alcohol consumption, and co-infection with HIV or hepatitis B. With the increased survival of HIV patients, end-stage liver disease due to HCV infection has become a significant problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.

      You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.

      The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.

      Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.

      Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.

      You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.

      Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment

      A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.

    He was found...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.

      He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.

      What is the most appropriate method of retesting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saliva assay

      Explanation:

      Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy

      The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.

      If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it is found that she has positive anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following food items should she avoid, except for one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maize

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.

      He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.

      Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whiskey

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol

      Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.

      On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/7) 14%
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