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Question 1
Correct
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A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
How would you explain it to her?Your Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.
Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.
In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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In patients with carcinoma of the prostate, which laboratory test is the most effective for screening and monitoring therapy?
Your Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumor Markers: Understanding Their Role in Cancer Diagnosis and Therapy Control
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used in the diagnosis and therapy control of various types of cancer. However, it is important to note that tumor markers are non-specific and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a commonly used tumor marker for prostate cancer. It should be offered to those who request testing or for those who have symptoms suggestive of prostate cancer. PSA levels increase with age, so interpretation should take into account the age of the patient. However, PSA levels can also be elevated in benign prostatic enlargement and prostate inflammation, and can be normal in prostate carcinoma.
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma. However, AFP levels can also be normal in this type of cancer. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 isoenzyme levels can be elevated in testicular germ cell tumors, while alkaline phosphatase levels can be raised in cholestasis and Paget’s disease.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is non-specific. The introduction of the PSA test has led to earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer, before metastases into lymph nodes or bone are evident. Bone scans are unnecessary in patients with a PSA <20 ng/ml, and repeated scans during treatment are unnecessary in the absence of clinical indications. In summary, tumor markers can be useful in cancer diagnosis and therapy control, but their interpretation should take into account the patient’s age and other non-cancerous conditions that can elevate their levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer: Thrombectomy alone
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Explanation:Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.
Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.
Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.
Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for two weeks. Upon examination of an endocervical swab sample, Gram-negative diplococci are observed, while other pathogen tests are negative. The patient has no allergies or comorbidities. Which antibiotic option is the most suitable?
Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Vascular Clinic. He has been found to have a left internal carotid dissection incidentally while having cross-sectional neck imaging. He is asymptomatic, there are no intracranial or extracranial haematomas and he has not had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack in the past.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?Your Answer: Endovascular stenting procedure
Correct Answer: Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents
Explanation:Treatment and Surveillance Options for Carotid Artery Dissection
Carotid artery dissection is a condition that requires careful management and surveillance to prevent stroke and other complications. The treatment approach depends on various factors, including the cause of the dissection, the location, and the presence of bleeding. Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents is often used to minimize the risk of stroke. Endovascular stenting may be an option for some patients, particularly those who cannot tolerate anticoagulation or have failed medical management.
Surveillance is also crucial for patients with carotid artery dissection, particularly those who are asymptomatic. Yearly surveillance with carotid ultrasound Doppler is a non-invasive and cost-effective option that can be used for follow-up monitoring. However, it has some limitations, including difficulty scanning the distal-internal carotid artery and detecting emboli. Computed tomography (CT) angiography has high sensitivity in diagnosis and follow-up reviews of carotid-artery dissections, but it has no role in treatment. Magnetic resonance (MR) angiography and MR imaging can also be used for follow-up monitoring and diagnostic purposes, but they are not appropriate for treatment. Overall, a comprehensive approach that considers the individual patient’s needs and circumstances is essential for managing carotid artery dissection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner a week after experiencing an upper-respiratory tract infection. He reports developing erythema around his left eye and pain on eye movement since waking up this morning.
Upon examination of his left eye, the boy displays proptosis, restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). However, his right eye appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Eye Infections and Inflammations: Symptoms and Differences
Eye infections and inflammations can cause a range of symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between them to ensure appropriate treatment. Here are some common eye conditions and their distinguishing features:
Orbital Cellulitis: This is a serious condition that can cause erythema (redness) around the eye, pain on eye movements, restricted eye movements, proptosis (bulging of the eye), reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). It is usually caused by the spread of infection from sinuses or trauma to the orbit. Treatment involves antibiotics and surgery if there is an orbital collection.
Conjunctivitis: This is a common condition that can accompany upper respiratory tract infections. It causes redness and discharge from the eye, but does not usually cause proptosis, restricted eye movements, or a RAPD.
Anterior Uveitis: This is an inflammation of the iris and ciliary body that causes a painful red eye, photophobia, increased lacrimation, and blurred vision. It does not usually cause erythema or proptosis.
Preseptal Cellulitis: This is a less serious condition that causes swelling and erythema of the eyelid, but does not cause proptosis, visual changes, or a RAPD. It is often confused with orbital cellulitis, but can be differentiated by the absence of these symptoms.
Blepharitis: This is an inflammation of the eyelid that causes swelling, erythema, and flakiness or scaliness of the eyelids. It does not usually cause proptosis or visual changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What is the most frequent complication that may arise when considering long-term peritoneal dialysis for this patient?
Your Answer: Congestive heart failure
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Chronic dialysis patients may experience median nerve compression, which can be caused by oedema or vascular insufficiency related to a dialysis shunt or fistula. Amyloid disease, which can infiltrate the synovium within the carpal tunnel, may also contribute to nerve compression in patients with renal failure. Anaemia is a common complication of chronic kidney disease, resulting from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. This type of anaemia is normochromic normocytic and can lead to the development of new-onset heart failure. However, the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents has reduced the incidence of congestive heart failure due to anaemia. Squamous cell skin cancer is a type of skin cancer that is strongly associated with high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Individuals who have received solid organ transplants and are taking chronic immunosuppressive medication are at a significantly increased risk of developing this type of cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma. There is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term haemodialysis. Immunosuppression, such as in the case of kidney transplant recipients, is associated with an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her clinical team to discuss her ongoing care. The team notes that she has been experiencing weight loss and increased fatigue. The patient reports struggling with chewing and swallowing food, even when it has been mashed or pureed. What is the most suitable long-term management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Insert a nasogastric tube
Correct Answer: Insert a percutaneous gastrostomy tube
Explanation:The most appropriate way to provide nutritional support for patients with motor neuron disease is through the insertion of a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube. If a patient is struggling to feed themselves, they may initially benefit from smaller, more liquid-like meals, but if this is not sufficient, a PEG tube is a definitive long-term management option. Continuing with their current diet regimen is not recommended as it may lead to poor nutrition and a risk of aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is only used as a last resort when there is impaired nutrient absorption. Inserting a nasogastric tube is not a suitable option as it must be removed after a few weeks to avoid adverse effects. A percutaneous jejunostomy tube is also not recommended as it is less commonly used and harder to maintain than a PEG tube.
Managing Motor Neuron Disease
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The cause of the disease is unknown.
One medication used in the management of motor neuron disease is riluzole, which works by preventing the stimulation of glutamate receptors. It is mainly used in cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by approximately three months.
Respiratory care is also an important aspect of managing motor neuron disease. Non-invasive ventilation, usually in the form of BIPAP, is used at night and has been associated with a survival benefit of around seven months.
Nutrition support is also crucial in managing motor neuron disease. The preferred method is percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG), which has been linked to prolonged survival.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for motor neuron disease is poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy is brought into accident and emergency by one of the staff at the nursery that he attends. He suddenly developed facial grimacing and carpopedal spasm that morning, after a minor viral gastrointestinal infection over the past few days. On examination he also has abnormal ears, a shortened philtrum, hypertelorism, micrognathia and a heart murmur.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Rare Genetic Disorders: DiGeorge’s Syndrome and Associated Features
DiGeorge’s syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the development of various organs in the body. One of the primary features of this syndrome is a decreased production and function of T-cells due to an absent or poorly developed thymus, leading to susceptibility to infections. Additionally, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may experience hypocalcaemic tetany due to a failure of parathyroid development, which can be exacerbated by gastrointestinal infections.
Other features of DiGeorge’s syndrome include congenital cardiac defects, particularly those involving the great vessels, and the absence of a normal thymus. Serum immunoglobulin concentrations are often normal, but antibody responses may be impaired. T-cell levels are reduced, whereas B-cell levels are normal.
In addition to these medical features, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may have characteristic facial features such as retrognathia or micrognathia, a long face, high and broad nasal bridge, narrow palpebral fissures, small teeth, asymmetrical crying face, downturned mouth, short philtrum, low-set and malformed ears, hypertelorism, and a dimple on the tip of the nose.
Overall, understanding the features and implications of rare genetic disorders like DiGeorge’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with a two week history of diarrhoea. He reports that his bowel movements have not been normal for the past few months and he frequently experiences urgency to use the toilet. However, these symptoms had been improving until two weeks ago. He has also noticed blood in his stool for the past week and feels like he hasn't fully emptied his bowels after going. Despite these symptoms, he has not experienced any weight loss and has a good appetite. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen but no guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum, which then spreads continuously but never beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are usually insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain, particularly in the left lower quadrant. In addition, patients may experience extra-intestinal features such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To diagnose ulcerative colitis, a colonoscopy with biopsy is generally done, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings of ulcerative colitis include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa that has the appearance of polyps, inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria, neutrophils migrating through the walls of glands to form crypt abscesses, depletion of goblet cells and mucin from gland epithelium, and infrequent granulomas.
A barium enema may also be used to diagnose ulcerative colitis, which shows a loss of haustrations, superficial ulceration, and pseudopolyps. Long-standing disease may cause the colon to become narrow and short, leading to a drainpipe colon appearance. It is important to note that while some features are present in both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, some are much more common in one of the conditions, such as colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic methods for ulcerative colitis can help with early detection and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statement regarding the 1977 Abortion Act is true?
Your Answer: It states that an abortion cannot be performed after 22 weeks
Correct Answer: It states that an abortion may be performed if the pregnancy presents a risk to the physical or mental health of any existing children
Explanation:Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progestogen) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?Your Answer: Iron deficiency
Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy
β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.
If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.
In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options listed below, which drug is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Muscle Effects of Common Medications
Many medications can have effects on muscles, including statins, metoclopramide, amitriptyline, cyclizine, and venlafaxine. Statins can increase the risk of muscle toxicity, especially in patients with a history of muscular disorders, high alcohol intake, renal impairment, or hypothyroidism. Metoclopramide is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and acute dystonic reactions, but not generalised myositis. Amitriptyline and cyclizine are rarely associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and tremor, and amitriptyline may cause myalgia on drug withdrawal. Venlafaxine commonly causes hypertonia and tremor, and more rarely myoclonus, but not generalised myositis. It is important to be aware of these potential muscle effects when prescribing and monitoring these medications.
Muscle Effects of Commonly Prescribed Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.
Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.
Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.
Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the GP with concerns regarding menstruation, as she has not yet started her periods. She has no past medical history.
On examination, there is little to no axillary or pubic hair, and she has a tall stature. Bilateral lower pelvic masses are noted. Her BMI is 19 kg/m².
Investigations are performed:
Hb 130 g/L (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
FSH 9 IU/L (1 - 12)
LH 7 IU/L (1 - 9)
Testosterone 100 ng/dL (15-70)
Estradiol 30 pg/mL (30 - 400)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). This is because she has not started menstruating by the age of 15, has little to no axillary or pubic hair, and elevated testosterone levels. These symptoms are all indicative of AIS, which is a genetic condition where individuals with male chromosomes (46XY) have a female appearance due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. The lower pelvic masses seen on examination are likely to be undescended testes.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes excess male-pattern hair growth, including axillary and pubic hair, which is not seen in this patient. Additionally, CAH would not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea is also unlikely as this condition is typically associated with low body weight, which is not the case for this patient. Furthermore, her FSH and LH levels are within the normal range, indicating that there is no hypothalamic dysfunction.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes irregular periods rather than a complete absence of menstruation. Additionally, patients with PCOS often have excessive hair growth, which is not seen in this patient. PCOS would also not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. The main features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little or no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in affected individuals are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.
Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
In summary, androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the development of individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype. Early diagnosis and management can help affected individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Her rheumatologist initiates treatment with hydroxychloroquine. What is the most crucial parameter to monitor during her treatment?
Your Answer: QT interval on ECG
Correct Answer: Visual acuity
Explanation:The use of hydroxychloroquine can lead to a serious and irreversible retinopathy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia and an endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer. A CLO test confirms H. pylori infection and she is treated with eradication therapy. However, at her follow-up appointment six weeks later, her symptoms persist. What is the best test to confirm H. pylori eradication?
Your Answer: Hydrogen breath test
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. In such cases, a stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable alternative.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has just been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. What is the most efficient way to slow down the advancement of this condition?
Your Answer: Diet rich in omega-3 fatty acids
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been identified as a risk factor for macular degeneration, while consuming a well-balanced diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables may help to slow down its progression. Ongoing studies are exploring the potential benefits of additional antioxidants in this regard.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about a genetic disorder. Her granddaughter, who is three years old, has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. She reports that no one else in the family has the condition.
What is the likelihood of her being a carrier of the sickle cell allele?Your Answer: 1 in 16
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that for a child to be affected, they must inherit two mutated alleles – one from each parent. If one grandparent is a carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance that they passed the gene on to their offspring, who is the parent of the affected child.
When both parents are carriers, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their child will be affected by cystic fibrosis. However, the chance of inheriting the condition is always 1 in 2 for boys and girls.
Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis often occurs before the age of two, with up to 75% of patients being diagnosed at this age. It is important to note that carriers of cystic fibrosis are relatively common, with an estimated 1 in 25 people in the UK being carriers.
Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance is crucial for families with a history of the condition, as it can help them make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?
Your Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?
Your Answer: Continue taking omeprazole 20mg until day of gastroscopy
Correct Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
Which of the following is the best treatment option?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left eye, along with redness and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, her intraocular pressure was found to be elevated at 30 mmHg, and her pupil was mid-dilated. After diagnosing her with acute angle closure glaucoma, you promptly administered IV acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Topical beta blockers in both eyes
Correct Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy in both eyes
Explanation:The definitive treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates an additional pathway in the iris for aqueous to flow from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and be drained into the angle. While topical beta blockers, alpha agonists, prostaglandin analogues, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can all help control intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients, they are not considered definitive treatments for AACG.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Correct
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You are clerking a 26-year-old in the emergency department. He reports experiencing painful prolonged erection of the penis for the third time. What could be the probable cause of his recurrent presentations?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Recurrent priapism is a common occurrence in individuals with sickle cell disease, while alcohol and drug abuse may also lead to this condition. Balanitis, on the other hand, is an inflammation that affects the head of the penis and is not associated with priapism. Paraphimosis, however, can be caused by the inability to retract the foreskin.
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean’s are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.
The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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