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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old man with a history of angina, well-controlled on a combination of aspirin 75 mg, atenolol 50 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg od, and isosorbide mononitrate 20 mg bd, presents with a pulse rate of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg. He also has type II diabetes mellitus, managed with metformin. What is the most effective medication that should be prescribed for optimal secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:Medication Options for Angina and Hypertension
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends considering treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for secondary prevention in patients with stable angina and diabetes mellitus, as long as there are no contraindications. This should also be prescribed where there is co-existing hypertension, left ventricular dysfunction, chronic kidney disease, or previous myocardial infarction (MI).
Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker which could be added to control hypertension; however, this patient’s blood pressure is normal on current therapy.
Diltiazem is a non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker which can be used as an alternative first-line treatment in angina. This patient is already on atenolol and is well controlled.
Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker used in the management of hypertension. This patient’s blood pressure is within normal limits, so it is not currently indicated.
Nicorandil is an anti-anginal medication due to its vasodilatory properties which can be added or used as a monotherapy when symptoms of angina are not controlled with a beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker or these are not tolerated. This patient’s symptoms are controlled on atenolol, so nicorandil is not indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease presents for hypertension management. His blood pressure in the clinic is 150/90 mmHg, and he has been recording an average of 155/84 mmHg for the past month. He has previously refused antihypertensive medication due to concerns about dizziness and falls. What is the appropriate initial antihypertensive to consider in this case?
Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Due to the patient’s moderate-severe aortic stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated and a calcium channel blocker should be prescribed as the first-line treatment for hypertension. Alpha-blockers may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if necessary, typically at step 4 of the guidelines when potassium levels are high. While ACE inhibitors are typically recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes to protect the kidneys, they should not be used in this patient due to their aortic stenosis. Beta-blockers are not the first-line treatment for hypertension and are better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. They may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if needed, typically at step 4 when potassium levels are high.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A GP receives notification from the Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm Screening program that one of his elderly patients has been found to have an aneurysm measuring 6.5cm in diameter. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to Vascular Outpatients
Explanation:If the aortic diameter is within normal range, the patient is discharged from the screening programme. However, if small or medium AAAs are detected, the patient will be scheduled for regular follow-up appointments with a Nurse Specialist from the screening programme and surveillance scans. In the event of a large AAA (measuring over 5.5 cm in diameter), the patient must be referred to Vascular Outpatients and seen within 2 weeks. While the screening programme will initiate the referral process, the GP will also be urgently contacted to provide additional information such as the patient’s medical history. If surgery is deemed necessary, it should be performed within 8 weeks of the referral.
Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is being seen in the hypertension clinic. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him once he starts treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 150/90 mmHg
Explanation:Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Raj is a 50-year-old man who has been prescribed an Antihypertensive medication for his high blood pressure. He visits you with a complaint of persistent bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 weeks, which is causing him concern. Which of the following drugs is the probable cause of his new symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lacidipine
Explanation:Ankle swelling is more commonly associated with dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine than with verapamil. Although ankle oedema is a known side effect of all calcium channel blockers, there are differences in the incidence of ankle oedema between the two classes. Therefore, lacidipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class, is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil.
Factors that increase the risk of developing ankle oedema while taking calcium channel blockers include being female, older age, having heart failure, standing upright, and being in warm environments.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L
Explanation:The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles
Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.
To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart attack. She has been prescribed medications to lower her risk of cardiovascular disease and has made dietary changes to promote healthy living. However, she has recently reported experiencing muscle aches and pains and her CK levels are elevated. Which of the following foods or substances may have contributed to the increased risk of statin-related myotoxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Fruit Juices and Supplements
Grapefruit juice can significantly increase the serum concentrations of certain statins by reducing their first-pass metabolism in the small intestine through the inhibition of CYP3A4. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming large amounts of grapefruit juice while taking atorvastatin or to adjust the dosage accordingly. CYP3A4 is a member of the cytochrome P450 system.
On the other hand, while an interaction between cranberry juice and warfarin has been recognized, there have been no reported interactions with other drugs metabolized via the P450 system. Additionally, there have been no known interactions between statins, carrot juice, garlic, or omega-3 fish oils. However, it is important to note that according to NICE CG172, patients should no longer be advised to take omega-3 supplements to prevent another MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory blood pressure testing.
She has no heart murmurs and her chest is clear. Past medical history includes asthma and chronic lymphoedema of the legs.
As per the latest NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136), what would be the most suitable approach to manage her blood pressure in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise lifestyle changes and repeat in one year
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antihypertensive Treatment for People Over 55 and Black People of African or Caribbean Family Origin
According to the latest NICE guidance, people aged over 55 years and black people of African or Caribbean family origin of any age should be offered step 1 antihypertensive treatment with a CCB. If a CCB is not suitable due to oedema or intolerance, or if there is evidence of heart failure or a high risk of heart failure, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered instead.
This guidance aims to provide effective treatment options for hypertension in these specific populations, taking into account individual circumstances and potential side effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past 3 months but is having difficulty controlling his INR levels. He wonders if his diet could be a contributing factor.
What is the one food that is most likely to affect his INR levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinach
Explanation:Foods and Factors that Affect Warfarin and Vitamin K Levels
Warfarin is a medication used to prevent blood clots, but its effectiveness can be reduced by consuming foods high in vitamin K. These foods include liver, broccoli, cabbage, Brussels sprouts, green leafy vegetables (such as spinach, kale, and lettuce), peas, celery, and asparagus. It is important for patients to maintain a consistent intake of these foods to avoid fluctuations in vitamin K levels.
Contrary to popular belief, tomatoes have relatively low levels of vitamin K, although concentrated tomato paste contains higher levels. Alcohol consumption can also affect vitamin K levels, so patients should avoid heavy or binge drinking while taking warfarin.
Antibiotics can also impact warfarin effectiveness by killing off gut bacteria responsible for synthesizing vitamin K. Additionally, cranberry juice may inhibit warfarin metabolism, leading to an increase in INR levels.
Overall, patients taking warfarin should be mindful of their diet and avoid excessive consumption of vitamin K-rich foods, alcohol, and cranberry juice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Digoxin Toxicity and its Management
Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.
In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.
To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril
Explanation:The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.
He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.
What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset of dyspnea. During the examination, the patient exhibits an S3 gallop rhythm, bibasal crackles, and pitting edema up to both knees. An electrocardiogram reveals indications of left ventricular hypertrophy, and a chest X-ray shows small bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomegaly, and upper lobe diversion.
Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following medications has been demonstrated to enhance long-term survival?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:The patient exhibits symptoms of congestive heart failure, which can be managed with loop diuretics and nitrates in acute or decompensated cases. However, these medications do not improve long-term survival. To reduce mortality in patients with left ventricular failure, ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin receptor blockers, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine with nitrates have all been proven effective. Digoxin can reduce hospital admissions but not mortality, and is typically used in patients with worsening heart failure despite initial treatments or those with co-existing atrial fibrillation.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.
He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:
Aspirin 75 mg daily
Ramipril 10 mg daily
Bisoprolol 10 mg daily
Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and
Tadalafil 5 mg daily.
He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.
Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates
Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.
For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Despite reducing caffeine, increasing exercise and losing 4 kg, his BP has not reduced. Investigations reveal:
- Hb 131 g/L (135 - 180)
- WCC 5.4 ×109/L (4 - 10)
- PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
- Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)
- Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60 - 120)
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Antihypertensive Therapy Guidelines
Guidelines for Antihypertensive therapy recommend different treatments based on age and ethnicity. For individuals under 55 years old, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is the first line of treatment. If an ACE inhibitor is not tolerated, a low-cost angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) can be offered. However, ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be combined to treat hypertension.
For individuals over 55 years old, or of African or Caribbean origin of any age, a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) is recommended. If a CCB is not suitable, a thiazide-like diuretic can be offered. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be routinely prescribed to pregnant women.
Overall, it is important to establish whether or not a patient is diabetic before determining the appropriate Antihypertensive therapy. Following these guidelines can help effectively manage hypertension and reduce the risk of associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:
Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.
Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).
Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.
Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has suffered three episodes of transient right monocular blindness.
Her rate is 88 beats per minute (regular) and she is in sinus rhythm.
Which is the single most appropriate investigation that would diagnose the condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis
Whilst carotid duplex ultrasonography may not be arranged directly from primary care, it is important for healthcare professionals to have an understanding of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and to be able to discuss this in more general terms with their patients, including indications. This is particularly relevant for patients who have experienced amaurosis fugax caused by internal carotid artery atherosclerotic stenosis, which may also present with temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. The investigation to identify the significant stenosis or occlusive lesion usually greater than 70% is carotid duplex ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kippers
Explanation:Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack
Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.
However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years ago and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, indapamide 2.5mg od, and spironolactone 25 mg od. A trial of doxazosin was discontinued due to dizziness. Despite these medications, his blood pressure in clinic today is 160/100 mmHg, which is confirmed with a 24-hour blood pressure reading averaging 156/98 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:Due to the significantly elevated blood pressure of this relatively young patient, despite being on four antihypertensive medications, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a secondary cause. Therefore, referral to secondary care is recommended for further investigation. As per NICE guidelines, if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after using the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four medications, it is advisable to seek expert advice if it has not already been obtained.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During his annual health review, a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, and hypertension is taking metformin, gliclazide, atorvastatin, and ramipril. His recent test results show a Na+ level of 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ level of 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (55 - 120), estimated GFR of 80 mL/min/1.73m² (>90), HbA1c level of 59 mmol/mol (<42), and urine albumin: creatinine ratio of <3 mg/mmol (<3). What is the recommended target clinic blood pressure (in mmHg)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For patients with type 2 diabetes who do not have chronic kidney disease, the recommended blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without diabetes. This means a clinic reading of less than 140/90 mmHg and an ambulatory or home blood pressure reading of less than 135/85 mmHg if the patient is under 80 years old. It’s important to note that even if the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is below 90, this doesn’t necessarily mean they have CKD unless there is also evidence of microalbuminuria.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see you regarding his erectile dysfunction. He reports a gradual decline in his ability to achieve and maintain erections over the past 6 months. After reviewing his medications and discussing treatment options, you suggest he try a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor and prescribe him sildenafil.
What advice should you give this patient regarding taking a PDE-5 inhibitor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sexual stimulation is required to facilitate an erection
Explanation:PDE-5 inhibitors do not cause an erection on their own, but rather require sexual stimulation to assist in achieving an erection. They are typically the first choice for treating erectile dysfunction, as long as there are no contraindications.
The primary cause of ED is often vasculogenic, such as cardiovascular disease, which means that the same lifestyle and risk factors that apply to CVD also apply to ED. Treatment for ED typically involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication. It is important to advise patients to lose weight, quit smoking, reduce alcohol consumption, and increase exercise. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should be implemented before or alongside treatment.
Generic sildenafil is available on the NHS without restrictions. Additionally, other PDE-5 inhibitors may be prescribed on the NHS for certain medical conditions, such as diabetes.
For most men, as-needed treatment with a PDE-5 inhibitor is appropriate. The frequency of treatment will depend on the individual.
Sildenafil should be taken one hour before sexual activity and requires sexual stimulation to facilitate an erection.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India to visit his relatives. He has been discharged recently from the local district general hospital after suffering an inferior myocardial infarction. He had an exercise test prior to discharge and has made a good recovery. He looks well wants to return to his family home to Mumbai to recuperate.
According to the UK Civil Aviation Authority, what is the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that he would be OK to fly home?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Travel Restrictions After Myocardial Infarction
After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, patients may wonder when it is safe to travel by air. The minimum time for flying after an uncomplicated MI is generally accepted to be seven days, although some authorities suggest waiting up to three weeks. It is important to note that this question specifically asks for the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that would be safe for air travel.
Consensus national guidance in the UK, including advice from the Civil Aviation Authority and British Airways, supports the seven-day minimum for uncomplicated MI. Patients who have had a complicated MI should wait four to six weeks before flying. Patients with severe angina may require oxygen during the flight and should pre-book a supply with the airline. Patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) or suffered a stroke should not travel for ten days. Decompensated heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to flying.
In summary, patients who have experienced an uncomplicated MI may fly after seven days without requiring an exercise test. It is important to follow national guidance and consult with a healthcare provider before making any travel plans after a heart attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.
It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents as a new patient at your clinic for his first appointment. He has had no major health issues and has never been hospitalised. He mentions that his father passed away from sudden cardiac death at the age of 35, and an autopsy revealed that he had hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the likelihood that this patient has inherited the same condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50 percent chance of passing on the mutated gene to their child.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is being evaluated for his hypertension. He has been taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg od for the past 8 years. His current blood pressure is 152/96 mmHg. Upon clinical examination, no significant findings were noted. An echocardiogram from three months ago revealed an ejection fraction of 40% and mild left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add ramipril 1.25 mg od
Explanation:The echocardiogram indicates that there is some level of left ventricular dysfunction. To manage this condition, it is crucial to initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor. This medication will not only regulate the patient’s blood pressure but also decelerate the decline in her heart’s performance. Additionally, a beta-blocker is recommended as there is evidence of heart failure.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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