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Question 1
Correct
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An 82-year-old man with a history of congestive cardiac failure presented to accident and emergency with symptoms of an acute ischaemic stroke. He had slurred speech, left sided facial droop, and some loss of fine motor control in the left hand. Upon admission, his blood pressure was 185/70 mmHg and his heart rate was 95 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. The initial CT scan of his brain revealed evidence of chronic small vessel ischaemia but no acute pathology, including no haemorrhage. What combination of investigations should be conducted during his acute admission?
Your Answer: MRI, transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE), cardiac telemetry and carotid duplex study
Explanation:When a patient is suspected to have ischaemic stroke based on clinical assessment and CT scan results, further investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. The most effective method for identifying an acute ischaemic stroke is through MRI using diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI). However, if MRI is not available or the patient is not eligible, a serial CT scan may be used to show changes consistent with an evolving stroke.
Additional investigations should focus on localizing the source of the thrombus or atheroma that caused the stroke. However, it is important to only request investigations that will lead to a change in management. These may include a carotid duplex study and/or CT carotid angiogram, a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE), and cardiac telemetry. These tests can identify significant stenosis requiring carotid endarterectomy, intraventricular thrombus, valvular pathology, or atrial fibrillation requiring anticoagulation.
It is also recommended to measure fasting lipids, glucose, and/or HbA1c in TIA/stroke patients. While a thrombophilia screen or TOE may be requested in certain cases, they are not routinely required. A CT cerebral angiogram may be necessary in some circumstances, but it is not currently part of the routine investigation for ischaemic stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a history of IV heroin use is brought to the Emergency Department with severe muscle spasms and abdominal pain. He reports difficulty finding clean needles and injection sites in recent weeks. On examination, there is an abscess in his right groin and he exhibits bilateral hyperreflexia and increased tone. When asked to swallow water, he begins to choke. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and CRP, and abnormal liver function tests. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Injection-Related Tetanus
The patient in question presents with increased tone and muscle spasms, along with a history of IV drug abuse, indicating injection-related tetanus. The elevated white count and CRP levels further support this diagnosis. However, the abnormal liver function tests may be related to viral hepatitis. Given the high risk of rapid deterioration, prophylactic intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
The first step in management should be the administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin to prevent further spread of the tetanus toxin. Debridement of any abscess should be delayed until after the immunoglobulin has been given to avoid increasing the toxin load in the peripheral circulation.
IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this case, as it is used for Guillain Barré syndrome, which presents with flaccid paralysis, not the spastic paralysis seen in tetanus. Similarly, IV Methylprednisolone is not recommended due to the underlying tetanus infection. Corticosteroids are also ineffective in managing GBS.
IV Metronidazole may be used to reduce the duration of tetanus symptoms, but it should be used in conjunction with tetanus immunoglobulin and debridement of any abscess. Overall, prompt administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin is crucial in managing this patient with injection-related tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his wife due to increasing vagueness and a headache the day before. He has a history of Parkinson's disease and has been consistent with his medication. He was born in Russia and has been exposed to tuberculosis in his younger years. He immigrated to the UK twenty years ago and has not traveled abroad in the last year. On examination, he is very sleepy and unable to recall his history. His chest is clear, but he has a temperature of 38.2ºC. His blood work shows elevated CRP and WBC levels. A lumbar puncture reveals mononuclear cells. CT head shows no acute intracranial or extracranial bleed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encephalitis
Explanation:Diagnosing a patient can be challenging, especially when they are unable to fully participate in the examination. In this case, the patient is experiencing a fever and a clouded consciousness, which could indicate encephalitis. However, other potential diagnoses such as cerebral abscess or Parkinson’s dementia can be ruled out based on the lack of focal neurology or gradual onset. Additionally, a CT scan would typically reveal an old subdural in the case of subdural empyema.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. In some cases, patients may also experience focal features such as aphasia. While peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis, HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults. The condition typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, doctors may perform a cerebrospinal fluid test to look for lymphocytosis and elevated protein levels. They may also use PCR to test for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses. Neuroimaging can reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, although it may be normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better option, and EEG can show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves starting intravenous aciclovir in all cases of suspected encephalitis. This antiviral medication can help reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the brain. With prompt treatment, many patients can recover from encephalitis without any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fainting episode. He reports feeling fatigued and nauseous. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and HIV infection, but admits to being non-compliant with his medications, including anti-retroviral therapy.
Upon examination, the patient's pulse is regular at 65 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 14.0 g/dL (13.0-18.0)
- White cell count: 4 x 10^9/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 150 x 10^9/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 130 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Creatinine: 80µmol/L (60-110)
- Glucose: 4.0 mmol/L (4.0-7.8)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone
Explanation:Hypoadrenalism is a common complication in patients with HIV, often caused by necrotising adrenalitis related to cytomegalovirus (CMV). The weakened adaptive immune system in HIV and AIDS patients increases their vulnerability to CMV infection, which in turn increases the risk of adrenal failure.
The first step in managing hypoadrenalism is to quickly replace steroids, while also prioritizing fluid resuscitation.
There is no conclusive evidence to suggest a bacterial infection, and addressing the hypoadrenalism should resolve the hyperkalaemia.
Understanding Addisonian Crisis and Its Management
Addisonian crisis is a medical emergency that occurs when the adrenal glands suddenly stop functioning properly. This can be caused by various factors such as sepsis, surgery, adrenal haemorrhage, or steroid withdrawal. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as severe weakness, low blood pressure, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.
To manage Addisonian crisis, immediate medical attention is required. The first step is to administer hydrocortisone, either intravenously or intramuscularly, at a dose of 100 mg. This should be followed by the infusion of normal saline or dextrose if the patient is hypoglycaemic. Hydrocortisone should be continued every 6 hours until the patient is stable. Fludrocortisone is not required as high cortisol levels exert weak mineralocorticoid action.
After 24 hours, oral replacement therapy may begin and gradually reduced to maintenance over 3-4 days. It is important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels and blood pressure during this time. With prompt and appropriate management, most patients with Addisonian crisis can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male with non-hodgkin's lymphoma is on his fourth cycle of R-CHOP chemotherapy. He has experienced nausea in the past but is now two days following the most recent cycle and has been admitted to the hospital due to uncontrollable vomiting.
He is vomiting more than 20 times a day and the fluid is green to clear. He has no appetite and has difficulty swallowing water. He is not experiencing diarrhea. He takes indapamide regularly and ondansetron as needed, but this has not helped him, even though his oncologist suggested doubling his dose of ondansetron.
During the examination, he appears pale and has dry mucous membranes. He is alert, has a clear chest, and a soft abdomen, but he begins to retch when he sits forward. He last urinated six hours ago, and his vital signs show a heart rate of 115 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/65 mmHg. The emergency department starts him on intravenous fluids.
What is the most effective medical intervention for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:When a patient experiences refractory vomiting despite ondansetron, dexamethasone can be an effective second line antiemetic in chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. In this case, cyclizine is not the best option as it binds histamine receptors and is more useful in treating labyrinthitis and motion sickness. Potassium salt replacement may exacerbate vomiting, and delaying chemotherapy may be considered as a last resort. Surgery is not a viable solution in this scenario. Dexamethasone has been proven to be effective in preventing tumor lysis syndrome in lymphoma patients. Ensuring the patient can maintain fluids is crucial.
Managing Nausea and Vomiting as Side-Effects of Chemotherapy
Chemotherapy is a common treatment for cancer, but it often comes with side-effects such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including anxiety, age, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy used. Patients who are at low-risk of developing these symptoms may be prescribed drugs like metoclopramide as a first-line treatment. However, for high-risk patients, 5HT3 receptor antagonists like ondansetron are often more effective, especially when combined with dexamethasone.
To manage nausea and vomiting, it is important to identify the risk factors and choose the appropriate medication. Patients should also be advised to eat small, frequent meals and avoid foods that trigger their symptoms. Additionally, relaxation techniques such as deep breathing and meditation may help reduce anxiety and prevent nausea and vomiting. With proper management, patients can minimize the impact of these side-effects and focus on their recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient visited the genitourinary medicine clinic with a complaint of vaginal discharge. She had previously consulted her GP who prescribed clotrimazole pessaries, but she did not experience any relief. The patient reported no itching but mentioned a foul odor, particularly after intercourse. During the examination, a thin white vaginal discharge with a pH of 5.9 was observed, and microscopy revealed Lactobacilli with Gram variable rods. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options
Bacterial vaginosis is a common condition among women of childbearing age. It is characterized by a thin, milky white discharge with a distinct fishy odor that is not accompanied by itching. The odor can be intensified by adding 10% potassium hydroxide to the discharge, and the vaginal pH is typically higher than 4.5. Risk factors for bacterial vaginosis include the use of intrauterine coil devices, vaginal douching, and having multiple sexual partners.
If left untreated, bacterial vaginosis can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, which can cause serious complications. While some patients may not experience any symptoms, those who do should seek treatment. In the UK, the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg taken twice daily for seven days. Alternatively, a single dose of oral metronidazole 2 g may be given if adherence is a concern.
In the US, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) updated their treatment recommendations for bacterial vaginosis in 2010. The recommended therapy is metronidazole 500 mg taken orally twice a day for seven days. Other options include several tinidazole regimens or clindamycin (oral or intravaginal). Additional regimens include metronidazole (750 mg extended-release tablets once daily for seven days) or a single dose of clindamycin intravaginal cream, although data on the effectiveness of these alternative treatments are limited. It is important for patients to seek medical attention if they suspect they have bacterial vaginosis to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic seeking advice. She works as a teacher, maintains a healthy weight, and does not smoke. She is concerned because her mother and aunt both had heart attacks in their early thirties.
During the examination, her weight is normal with a BMI of 22 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.
Her fasting blood test results are as follows:
LDL cholesterol 5.5 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
Triglycerides 2.8 mmol/l < 1.5 mmol/l
HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Glucose 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
TSH 1.2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Familial Combined Hyperlipidaemia
Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is a common genetic disorder that increases the risk of premature cardiovascular disease. The first-line treatment for this condition is a statin, which can reduce LDL cholesterol levels and lower the risk of cardiovascular events. However, if triglyceride levels remain high, fenofibrate may be added to the treatment regimen. Dietary modifications may not have a significant impact on lipid parameters in individuals who already lead a healthy lifestyle. Ezetimibe is an option for individuals who cannot tolerate statin therapy or require additional lipid-lowering therapy. It is recommended to use ezetimibe in combination with a statin when serum cholesterol levels are not adequately controlled with the maximum tolerated dose of statin. It is important to identify and treat familial combined hyperlipidaemia early to prevent cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in a car accident. During the primary survey, it is discovered that she has a haemothorax on the right side of her body, but her vital signs are stable. She is only responsive to verbal stimuli. A CT scan of her head (with contrast) is conducted:
What is the result of the scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:The CT scan indicates the presence of a biconvex collection outside the brain, which is likely an extradural hematoma, and is associated with a fracture.
There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with chest pain and persistent cold symptoms for the past few weeks. The pain is located behind the breastbone, feels dull, has an intensity of around 3/10, and does not spread to other areas. Upon further questioning, the patient reports coughing up white phlegm with small traces of blood, which has worsened over the last two weeks.
The patient has been working with a group of geologists in the Mississippi river basin for the past two years. She has never smoked, does not own any pets, and has not traveled anywhere else.
During the examination, the patient has a fever of 38ºC, and there are crackling sounds in both lungs with increased vocal resonance and dullness when tapped at the bottom.
Troponin levels are at 3 ng/L (<14), and a chest x-ray shows airspace shadowing with consolidation affecting multiple lung segments.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Itraconazole
Explanation:Understanding Histoplasmosis
Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.
To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a six-month history of malaise, anorexia, and weight loss. Additionally, he reports experiencing diarrhea for the past four weeks. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic and has white frond-like patches on both lateral margins of his tongue. Scraping off the patches proves to be unsuccessful. What is the organism responsible for this abnormality on the patient's tongue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation:Oral Hairy Leukoplakia and Other Related Conditions
Oral hairy leukoplakia is a condition that is commonly seen in individuals who are infected with HIV and have a CD4 count between 200 and 500/mm3. Unlike Candida, the lesions associated with this condition cannot be scraped off the tongue. Although it is painless, it is important to note that the diagnosis is a clinical one. As such, treatment is rarely required, especially since the condition is asymptomatic. However, it is worth noting that highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) can be used to manage the condition.
In addition to oral hairy leukoplakia, there are other conditions that are worth noting. For instance, Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV8). On the other hand, tinea rubrum is responsible for causing fungal skin and nail infections. these conditions is important, especially for individuals who are at risk of developing them. By seeking medical attention early enough, it is possible to manage these conditions and prevent them from causing further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old factory worker presents after an accident at work. He suffered a crush injury when a heavy machine fell on his leg, and he was trapped for over an hour. The orthopaedic team cleared him of any fractures, but fasciotomies were performed due to concerns about compartment syndrome. However, his urine output over the last four hours was only 35 mL, despite a mean arterial pressure of 70 mmHg. His blood results showed elevated levels of creatine kinase, potassium, urea, and creatinine, with a normal haemoglobin level and pH of 7.35. What is the most important management plan to initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Early Fluid Resuscitation for Prevention of Acute Kidney Injury in Rhabdomyolysis
Acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to rhabdomyolysis can be prevented by early fluid resuscitation. This is because injured muscles sequester water, leading to large volume depletion. To prevent this, volumes of up to 10 liters in 24 hours may be required. The target urine output is 3 ml per kilogram per hour or >300 ml per hour.
Furosemide is not appropriate for AKI prevention as fluid resuscitation is the only proven benefit. Mannitol has theoretical benefits but has not been shown to improve outcomes in AKI. Renal replacement therapy is not biochemically indicated at this stage. Urinary alkalisation can be used alongside aggressive fluid resuscitation, but there is no level 1-3 evidence to support its use.
In summary, early fluid resuscitation is crucial in preventing AKI secondary to rhabdomyolysis. Other interventions such as furosemide, mannitol, renal replacement therapy, and urinary alkalisation may not be effective or indicated at this stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and a medical history of stage III chronic kidney disease, aspergillosis, type two diabetes mellitus, and peripheral vascular disease. The surgical team orders a contrast CT scan, but the patient is currently taking aspirin, clopidogrel, metformin, paracetamol, amphotericin B, and insulin. His capillary blood glucose level is 8.2mmol/L, and he is given IV 0.9% saline before and after contrast administration. To prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury, his metformin is discontinued. His blood tests reveal Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 5.2 mmol/l, and creatinine 145 µmol/l.
What is the most effective additional measure to prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop amphotericin
Explanation:Stopping amphotericin is the best course of action to prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury (CI-AKI). Although stopping metformin is also appropriate, it is done to avoid lactic acidosis when renal function is deteriorating. While n-acetylcysteine is still frequently prescribed, it is not currently recommended by guidelines, although this may change. There is no need to initiate an insulin sliding scale unless the patient is unable to eat or drink.
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain localized at the top of her abdomen that radiates through to her back. She describes the pain as sharp and excruciating. On examination, she has epigastric tenderness but is haemodynamically stable. Her medical history includes ulcerative colitis and osteoarthritis, and she reports taking an oral medication for inflammatory bowel disease and an over-the-counter medication for arthritis, but cannot recall the specific drugs.
The following blood results were obtained:
- Hb: 136 g/l
- Platelets: 582 * 109/l
- WBC: 18.2 * 109/l
- Neuts: 14.2 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 2.2 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.2 * 109/l
- Na+: 138 mmol/l
- K+: 3.6 mmol/l
- Urea: 8.6 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 62 µmol/l
- CRP: 52 mg/l
- Amylase: 800 U/L (normal < 160)
Which medication is most likely responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Mesalazine and sulfasalazine are both known to cause drug-induced pancreatitis, but mesalazine carries a higher risk. Therefore, sulfasalazine may be the safer option. On the other hand, NSAIDs like naproxen and ibuprofen can increase the likelihood of gastric ulceration, but the patient’s symptoms are more indicative of pancreatitis rather than peptic ulcer disease.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of intense pain in his right ear for the past three days. He also reports experiencing drooping of the right side of his face for the past 24 hours.
Upon examination, his blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 80 bpm. Neurological examination does not reveal any weakness in his limbs. He has drooping of the right side of his face and is unable to close his right eye or raise his right eyebrow. Local examination of his right ear shows vesicular lesions on an erythematous base in his external ear canal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir and prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment options for Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which can lead to facial paralysis and other symptoms. Early treatment is crucial for a better recovery. The recommended treatment for patients presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset is a combination of oral antiviral agent (aciclovir/valaciclovir) and glucocorticoid (oral prednisolone 1 mg/kg body weight). Physiotherapy and facial nerve stimulation may have a role in rehabilitation, but the primary focus should be on early initiation of antiviral and glucocorticoid therapy. Monotherapy with either antiviral or prednisolone is not as effective as combination therapy. Topical antiviral therapy is also not as effective as oral therapy. Therefore, early initiation of combination therapy is the best approach for the management of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his doctor with recurrent severe pain behind his right eye that has been occurring at night for the past week. He has experienced approximately eight attacks and reports that the pain lasts for about 90 minutes each time. During an attack, his right eye becomes watery and red, and he has vomited several times due to the pain. He is a smoker and drinks alcohol regularly. On examination, he appears flushed and in distress, with a right ptosis and miosis and some right conjunctival injection. His blood pressure is elevated, and his arteries are pulsatile but non-tender. Laboratory tests reveal no significant abnormalities. What is the best treatment to give during an acute episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:Nocturnal Retro-Orbital Pain with Autonomic Features: Cluster Headache
This patient is experiencing episodes of retro-orbital pain at night accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as tearing, Horner’s syndrome, and facial flushing. These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of cluster headache, which is more common in males with a male-to-female ratio of 9:1 and an average onset age of 30 years. The attacks often occur at night and are associated with increased parasympathetic activity.
The recommended treatment for acute attacks includes subcutaneous or intranasal sumatriptan and high-flow oxygen. Prophylactic treatment options include lithium, verapamil, sodium valproate, prednisolone, and ergotamines. There is no indication of temporal arteritis or optic neuritis based on the patient’s history and clinical findings, so further investigations are not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with an acute increase in serum creatinine. She has a medical history of Type 2 diabetes and is currently taking lisinopril, amlodipine, and indapamide, as well as metformin and simvastatin. Recently, she was prescribed trimethoprim for a UTI. Her blood pressure is 148/84 mmHg, and there are no signs of fluid overload.
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Urea 5.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 162 µmol/l
Creatinine (one month ago) 112 µmol/l
What is the most probable cause of the rise in creatinine levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents to a neurologist with involuntary movements affecting her arms and legs, described as a 'shock wave'. She reports these movements occurring frequently throughout the day but not causing pain. Additionally, she has experienced cognitive decline and poor memory. The patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures and was recently diagnosed with impaired glucose tolerance, for which she takes carbamazepine. There is a family history of early onset dementia on her mother's side. On examination, the patient appears to have slow mentation and exhibits impaired recall. Fundoscopy reveals bilateral optic atrophy, and there is some slight weakness of shoulder abduction. Investigations show normal serum electrolytes and renal function, with a slightly elevated serum carbamazepine level within the therapeutic range. A lumbar puncture reveals elevated CSF opening pressure and lactate, with normal protein and white cell count. EEG shows generalised slow waves, and MRI brain scan is normal. Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MERRF syndrome (myoclonic epilepsy and red ragged fibres)
Explanation:A Case of MERRF Syndrome
This patient exhibits a range of symptoms and signs that are consistent with MERRF syndrome, which stands for myoclonic epilepsy and red ragged fibers. She experiences generalised myoclonus, ataxia, cognitive decline, and encephalopathy, as well as epilepsy. Additionally, she has short stature, optic atrophy, right sensorineural hearing loss, and impaired glucose tolerance. The patient’s EEG findings show generalised slow waves.
It is important to differentiate MERRF syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, Huntington’s disease typically presents in middle age with dementia and choreiform movement disorder. Neuronal ceroid-lipofuscinosis is a lysosomal storage disorder that typically presents in infancy and childhood, and can present with epilepsy and ataxia. Patients with this condition may also develop lipomata and retinal degeneration. Genetic testing is available for this condition.
NvCJD, on the other hand, typically presents with psychiatric and sensory disturbances. Sporadic CJD presents later in life, typically in the 60s, with dementia, myoclonus, and cerebellar dysfunction. By the unique characteristics of each condition, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has a coeliac disease and follows a gluten-free diet. Her usual HbA1c is 53 mmol/mol. On examination, she appears dehydrated and tanned, which she attributes to spending time in the garden after her exams. Her blood pressure is 100/80 mmHg with a postural drop of 20 mmHg, and her pulse is 88 beats per minute and regular. Laboratory investigations reveal abnormal levels of Hb, Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, CRP, and eosin.
What is the most crucial intervention for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone
Explanation:It is highly unusual for a patient with type 1 diabetes to have such tight control of their blood sugar levels while experiencing hypoglycemia. Additionally, the patient’s symptoms of easy tanning, nausea, vomiting, and a drop in blood pressure upon standing strongly suggest the possibility of Addison’s disease. The slight increase in eosinophil count, anemia, hyponatremia, and high potassium levels also support this diagnosis.
In order to effectively treat this condition, corticosteroid replacement is essential. Simply administering normal saline will not address the hypotension or hyponatremia. Anti-emetics may also be necessary.
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old, previously healthy man experiences an infero-posterior myocardial infarction (MI) and undergoes primary angioplasty. He initially stabilizes, but the nursing staff expresses concerns about his condition the following day. On examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, his pulse is 50 bpm and regular, and his JVP is elevated at 6 cm. A creatinine level taken that morning is elevated at 140 µmol/l. Despite administering 2 mg of atropine, there is no significant improvement in his pulse or BP. A CVP line is inserted, which measures a CVP of 10. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inotropic support
Explanation:The patient is experiencing right heart failure due to an infero-posterior infarct, resulting in poor cardiac output despite adequate filling. Inotropic support, such as β1 agonists, dopamine, or dobutamine, is the appropriate next step instead of further crystalloid loading. Urgent cardiological consultation should be sought to consider acute mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle rupture. Intravenous furosemide is not recommended due to the patient’s current blood pressure. Normal saline is not necessary as the patient is not underfilled. Atropine is the first-line treatment for bradycardia, but given the lack of response and clinical features of cardiogenic shock, vasopressors are the optimal next treatment. Digoxin toxicity is unlikely given the regular pulse rate, lack of response to atropine, and absence of a history of heart failure. Treatment for digoxin toxicity includes withdrawing its use, treating underlying electrolyte imbalances, administering Digibind, and cardiac pacing if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of experiencing difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids for the past month. He is uncertain if he has lost any weight. The patient has no prior medical history but is a smoker and does not regularly consume alcohol. During the examination, he appears thin and pale, and there are no palpable masses in his soft abdomen.
What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Oesophageal Stricture
When a patient presents with rapidly progressive dysphagia symptoms, a likely diagnosis is a malignant oesophageal stricture. Endoscopy is the best investigation for this case as it allows tissue diagnosis through biopsies and brushings with a 98% detection rate in oesophageal carcinoma. Additionally, endoscopy permits dilatation and/or stent placement where dysphagia is severe or the stricture is impassable. It also allows for the diagnosis of many of the differential causes of dysphagia. On the other hand, a barium swallow may be the initial investigation where dysphagia is not severe or if the patient has previously been diagnosed with a stricture and the site is known. It is also likely to be more helpful where a motility disorder is suspected. However, it does not have the benefit of allowing a histological diagnosis which is key in this case. A chest x-ray is helpful in identifying mediastinal lymphadenopathy or aspiration, but endoscopy is the investigation of choice in making the diagnosis. An air-fluid level may also be seen on chest x-ray, but its presence indicates obstruction rather than a specific underlying cause. After the diagnosis is made, a staging CT scan will be required, with endoscopy being more important in obtaining histology. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is better than CT or MRI for assessing lymphadenopathy, staging mural invasion, and assessing suitability for surgery in patients with oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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