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Question 1
Correct
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A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department with chest injuries after a canister was thrown into a fire and the explosive projectile struck the patient's chest wall. On examination, there is asymmetry of the chest. You observe that the chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during expiration.
What is the term for this clinical sign?Your Answer: Paradoxical breathing
Explanation:The patient in this scenario is exhibiting a clinical sign known as paradoxical breathing. This is characterized by an abnormal movement of the chest wall during respiration. Normally, the chest expands during inhalation and contracts during exhalation. However, in paradoxical breathing, the opposite occurs. The chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation. This can be seen in cases of chest trauma or injury, where there is a disruption in the normal mechanics of breathing.
Further Reading:
Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.
The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.
In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.
Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 58 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing dizziness and fainting. An ECG reveals bradycardia with a pulse rate of 44 bpm. His blood pressure is 90/60. The resident physician administers atropine. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication for giving atropine?
Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Atropine is a medication that slows down the movement of the digestive system and is not recommended for use in individuals with intestinal blockage. It works by blocking the effects of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine, which is responsible for promoting gastrointestinal motility and the emptying of the stomach. Therefore, atropine should not be given to patients with gastrointestinal obstruction as it can further hinder the movement of the intestines.
Further Reading:
Types of Heart Block:
1. Atrioventricular (AV) Blocks:
– Disrupt electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles at the AV node.
– Three degrees of AV block: first degree, second degree (type 1 and type 2), and third degree (complete) AV block.– First degree AV block: PR interval > 0.2 seconds.
– Second degree AV block:
– Type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs.
– Type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant, but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
– Third degree (complete) AV block: no association between the P waves and QRS complexes.Features of complete heart block: syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia (30-50 bpm), wide pulse pressure, JVP (jugular venous pressure) cannon waves in neck, variable intensity of S1.
2. Bundle Branch Blocks:
– Electrical conduction travels from the bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches.
– Diagnosed when the duration of the QRS complex on the ECG exceeds 120 ms.– Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
– Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
– Left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).
– Left posterior fascicular block (LPFB).
– Bifascicular block.
– Trifascicular block.ECG features of bundle branch blocks:
– RBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, RSR’ pattern in V1-3 (M-shaped QRS complex), wide S wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6).
– LBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, dominant S wave in V1, broad, notched (‘M’-shaped) R wave in V6, broad monophasic R wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6), absence of Q waves in lateral leads, prolonged R wave peak time > 60 ms in leads V5-6.WiLLiaM MaRROW is a useful mnemonic for remembering the morphology of the QRS in leads V1 and V6 for LBBB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department by his father with a high temperature. NICE suggests using the traffic light system to evaluate the likelihood of a severe illness in children under 3 with a fever.
Based on the NICE traffic light system, which of the subsequent symptoms or signs are indicative of an intermediate-risk of a severe illness?Your Answer: Dry mucous membranes
Explanation:The traffic light system is a useful tool for evaluating the potential risk of serious illness in children. This system categorizes clinical features into three groups based on severity: red (high-risk), amber (intermediate-risk), and green (low-risk).
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs fall into the high-risk group for serious illness: pale/mottled/ashen/blue skin, lips or tongue; lack of response to social cues; appearing unwell to a healthcare professional; inability to wake or stay awake when roused; weak, high-pitched, or continuous cry; grunting; respiratory rate exceeding 60 breaths per minute; moderate or severe chest indrawing; reduced skin turgor; and bulging fontanelle.
Children exhibiting any of the following symptoms or signs are considered at least intermediate-risk for serious illness: pallor of skin, lips or tongue reported by parent or caregiver; abnormal response to social cues; absence of a smile; waking only with prolonged stimulation; decreased activity; nasal flaring; dry mucous membranes; poor feeding in infants; reduced urine output; and rigors.
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs are classified as low-risk for serious illness: normal color of skin, lips, and tongue; normal response to social cues; contentment and smiles; staying awake or quickly awakening; strong normal cry or absence of crying; normal skin and eyes; and moist mucous membranes.
To summarize, children with fever and any symptoms or signs in the red column are considered high-risk, while those with fever and any symptoms or signs in the amber column (but none in the red column) are considered intermediate-risk. Children with symptoms and signs in the green column (and none in the amber or red columns) are classified as low-risk.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are managing a 32-year-old male patient who leaped off a bridge. There is noticeable bruising and extreme sensitivity over the calcaneus. You are currently waiting for an X-ray to confirm the presence of a calcaneal fracture. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the assessment of the X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The normal angle of Gissane is 120-145°
Explanation:The typical range for the normal angle of Gissane is between 120 and 145 degrees. An increase in this angle suggests that the posterior facet of the subtalar joint is depressed, which may indicate a calcaneal fracture. Similarly, the normal range for Bohler’s angle is between 20 and 40 degrees. For more detailed information and visual representations of these angles, please refer to the accompanying notes.
Further Reading:
calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a left sided, painful groin swelling. You suspect that it is an inguinal hernia.
Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Indirect inguinal hernias have an elliptical shape, unlike direct hernias which are round. They are not easily reducible and do not reduce spontaneously when reclining. Unlike direct hernias that appear immediately, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing. They are reduced superiorly and then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring helps control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She complains of nausea, extreme fatigue, and overall feeling unwell.
What is the indication for using DigiFab in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).
DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.
The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:
Acute digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Potassium level >5 mmol/l
– Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
– Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
– Digoxin level >12 ng/mlChronic digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
– Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. You examine his cardiovascular system and discover a slow-rising, low-volume pulse. His apex beat is sustained, and you can auscultate an ejection systolic murmur that is loudest in the aortic area that radiates to the carotids.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is a common condition where the valve in the heart becomes narrowed due to the progressive calcification that occurs with age. This typically occurs around the age of 70. Other causes of aortic stenosis include calcification of a congenital bicuspid aortic valve and rheumatic fever.
The symptoms of aortic stenosis can vary but commonly include difficulty breathing during physical activity, fainting, dizziness, chest pain (angina), and in severe cases, sudden death. However, it is also possible for aortic stenosis to be asymptomatic, meaning that there are no noticeable symptoms.
When examining a patient with aortic stenosis, there are several signs that may be present. These include a slow-rising and low-volume pulse, a narrow pulse pressure, a sustained apex beat, a thrill (a vibrating sensation) in the area of the aorta, and an ejection click if the valve is pliable. Additionally, there is typically an ejection systolic murmur, which is a specific type of heart murmur, that can be heard loudest in the aortic area (located at the right sternal edge, 2nd intercostal space) and may radiate to the carotid arteries.
It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from aortic sclerosis, which is a degeneration of the aortic valve but does not cause obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. Aortic sclerosis can be distinguished by the presence of a normal pulse character and the absence of radiation of the murmur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with right-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic hematuria. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
Which of the following stone types is the least frequently seen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystine stones
Explanation:Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.
The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.
Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.
Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.
By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 62-year-old man with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain began this morning and is described as the most severe pain he has ever experienced. It has progressively worsened over the past 8 hours. He is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to come to the appointment in open-toe sandals. The skin over the affected area appears red and shiny.
His only significant medical history is hypertension, which has been challenging to control. He is currently prescribed amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 10 mg daily for this condition and is awaiting a medication review for his antihypertensive treatment. His blood pressure reading today is 165/94 mmHg.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence colchicine
Explanation:The diagnosis in this case is clearly gout. According to the guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR), the development of sudden joint pain accompanied by swelling, tenderness, and redness, which worsens over a period of 6-12 hours, strongly suggests crystal arthropathy.
Checking serum urate levels to confirm high levels of uric acid before starting treatment for acute gout attacks has little benefit and should not delay treatment. While these levels can be useful for monitoring treatment response, they often decrease during an acute attack and can even be within the normal range. If levels are checked and found to be normal during the attack, they should be rechecked once the attack has resolved.
The first-line treatment for acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. However, caution should be exercised when using NSAIDs in patients with a history of hypertension. Since this patient has had difficulty controlling their blood pressure and remains hypertensive, it would be wise to avoid NSAIDs in this case.
Colchicine is an effective alternative for treating gout, although it may take longer to take effect. It is often used in patients who cannot take NSAIDs due to contraindications such as hypertension or a history of peptic ulcer disease. Therefore, it is the most suitable choice for this patient.
During an acute gout attack, allopurinol should not be used as it can prolong the attack and even trigger another acute episode. However, if a patient is already taking allopurinol for chronic gout management, it should be continued, and the acute attack should be treated with NSAIDs or colchicine as appropriate.
Febuxostat (Uloric) is an alternative to allopurinol for managing chronic gout. Like allopurinol, it should not be used for treating acute gout episodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide. How long would it take for the ipratropium bromide to have its maximum effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30-60 minutes
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.
According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.
For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.
The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.
For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.
Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhoea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She usually weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardia and tachypnoeic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
What volume of fluid would you administer for your initial fluid bolus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 600 ml
Explanation:Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. When we say 5% dehydration, it means that the body has lost 5 grams per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a fluid loss of 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid.
In the case of this child, they are 10% dehydrated, which means they have lost 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Considering their weight of 30 kilograms, their estimated fluid loss amounts to 100 multiplied by 30, which equals 3000 milliliters.
Since this child is also in shock, they should receive a fluid bolus of 20 milliliters per kilogram. Therefore, the initial volume of fluid to administer would be 20 multiplied by 30 milliliters, resulting in 600 milliliters.
To summarize the clinical features of dehydration and shock, please refer below:
Dehydration (5%):
– The child appears unwell
– Normal heart rate or tachycardia
– Normal respiratory rate or tachypnea
– Normal peripheral pulses
– Normal or mildly prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
– Normal blood pressure
– Warm extremities
– Decreased urine output
– Reduced skin turgor
– Sunken eyes
– Depressed fontanelle
– Dry mucous membranesClinical shock (10%):
– Pale, lethargic, mottled appearance
– Tachycardia
– Tachypnea
– Weak peripheral pulses
– Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
– Hypotension
– Cold extremities
– Decreased urine output
– Decreased level of consciousness -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with her husband. She is extremely concerned about his frequent headaches and recent changes in his behavior. He complains of experiencing intense pain behind his left eye in the late evenings for the past two weeks. The pain typically lasts for about half an hour, and his wife mentions that he occasionally bangs his head against the wall due to the severity of the pain. Additionally, his left eye becomes watery during these episodes. A thorough neurological examination reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is commonly seen in young men in their 20s. The male to female ratio for this condition is 6:1. Smoking is also known to increase the risk of developing cluster headaches. These headaches occur in clusters, usually lasting for a few weeks every year or two. The pain experienced is severe and typically affects one side of the head, often around or behind the eye. It tends to occur at the same time each day and can cause the patient to become agitated, sometimes resorting to hitting their head against a wall or the floor in an attempt to distract from the pain.
In addition to the intense pain, cluster headaches are also associated with autonomic involvement. This can manifest as various symptoms on the same side as the headache, including conjunctival injection (redness of the eye), rhinorrhea (runny nose), lacrimation (tearing of the eye), miosis (constriction of the pupil), and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid).
On the other hand, migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances, such as hemianopia (loss of vision in half of the visual field) or scintillating scotoma (a visual aura that appears as a shimmering or flashing area of distorted vision). Migraine without aura, on the other hand, needs to meet specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include having at least five headache attacks lasting between 4 to 72 hours, with the headache having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity.
During a migraine headache, the patient may also experience symptoms such as nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia). It is important to note that these symptoms should not be attributed to another underlying disorder.
If a patient over the age of 50 presents with a new-onset headache, it raises the possibility of giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis). Other symptoms and signs that may be associated with this condition include jaw claudication (pain in the jaw when chewing), systemic upset, scalp tenderness, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Medication overuse headache is a condition that is suspected when a patient is using multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic blood in the urine. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
What is the most frequently occurring type of kidney stone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium containing stones
Explanation:Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.
The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.
Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.
Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.
By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual presents with a swollen and painful left knee. The symptoms started three days ago. There is no history of any injury, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory analysis. The aspirate reveals the presence of pus cells, positively birefringent crystals, and no organisms.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male arrives at the emergency department about 1 hour after completing a SCUBA dive. The patient reports experiencing a headache, dizziness, and discomfort in the shoulders and knees. You inform the patient that you suspect he is suffering from 'the bends' and proceed to explain how gas bubbles expand in size as divers ascend and water pressure decreases. Which scientific principle describes the correlation between gas volume and absolute pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Boyle's law
Explanation:Boyle’s law states that when the temperature remains constant, the volume of a gas is inversely related to its pressure. This means that as the pressure of a gas increases, its volume decreases, and vice versa. Mathematically, this relationship can be expressed as P1V1 = P2V2.
Further Reading:
Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.
Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.
Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.
Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.
Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.
Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder and self-harming behavior. She is accompanied by the Police and has cut her arm with a sharp object. They would like you to assess her arm injuries and are concerned about her risk of future self-harm.
When assessing this patient, which of the following features should your examination room have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An internal inspection window
Explanation:When evaluating a disturbed or violent patient, your own safety should be the top priority. It is essential that the room you use for the examination has certain features to ensure your well-being. Firstly, there should be an internal inspection window that allows the staff to regularly check on both you and the patient. Additionally, the room should have an unimpeded exit, preferably with an outward opening door that is easy to exit through. It is also crucial to choose a room that is close to well-staffed areas, as this can provide immediate assistance if needed.
It is highly recommended to avoid examining patients in isolated areas, as it significantly increases the risk of harm to the assessor. While the room should be comfortable, it is unnecessary to have excessive furnishings. In fact, having too much furniture and unnecessary equipment can pose a threat, as they can be used as weapons by the patient. Therefore, it is ideal to remove any excess furniture and unnecessary equipment from the room. In this case, an examination couch is not required and should be avoided, as it could potentially be used as a weapon.
A secure locking mechanism is not necessary for the room, and it should be easily accessible to other staff members during the assessment. It is important to note that the room should not be used as a detainment area for the patient, and they should never be locked inside. By following these guidelines and ensuring the room has the recommended features, you can prioritize your safety while examining disturbed or violent patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 48 hours. The discomfort intensifies with deep breaths and when lying flat, but eases when she sits upright. Additionally, the discomfort radiates to both of her shoulders. Her ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression. You strongly suspect a diagnosis of pericarditis.
Which nerve is accountable for the pattern of her discomfort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uraemia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.
The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic in nature. This pain is typically relieved by sitting forwards and worsened when lying flat. It may also radiate to the shoulders. Other symptoms may include shortness of breath, tachycardia, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.
The pericardium receives sensory supply from the phrenic nerve, which also provides sensory innervation to the diaphragm, various mediastinal structures, and certain abdominal structures such as the superior peritoneum, liver, and gallbladder. Since the phrenic nerve originates from the 4th cervical nerve, which also provides cutaneous innervation to the front of the shoulder girdle, pain from pericarditis can also radiate to the shoulders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on head injuries & increased intracranial pressure. What is the intracranial volume of a typical adult?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1400ml
Explanation:On average, the intracranial volume in adults is around 1400ml.
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rash
Explanation:Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.
Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.
During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.
Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.
Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.
Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous heart attack experiences urinary incontinence and a sudden decline in his cognitive function. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or discomfort while urinating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) can be difficult to detect in elderly patients, especially those with dementia. Common signs like painful urination and abdominal discomfort may be absent. Instead, these patients often experience increased confusion, restlessness, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, if an elderly patient suddenly develops urinary incontinence and experiences a rapid deterioration in cognitive function, it is highly likely that they have a UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient.
Which of the following symptoms is MOST LIKELY to be observed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxia
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. The majority of cases also experience peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.
The condition is marked by acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (increase in the number of astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her husband following a fall. The patient seems unsure about how the fall occurred. The patient's husband takes you aside to express his growing concern about the patient's memory and overall functioning in the past year. He has previously suggested visiting the doctor about it, but the patient has consistently refused, claiming to be perfectly fine. The patient's husband is worried that the patient might be suffering from dementia. What is the leading cause of dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:Dementia is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive abilities, such as memory, thinking, and reasoning, that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning. There are several different causes of dementia, but the leading cause is Alzheimer’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60-80% of cases.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You review a 72-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer. You can see from her notes that she has an advanced decision in place.
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding an advanced decision?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be used by Jehovah’s witnesses to refuse blood transfusions
Explanation:An advance decision, also known as an advance directive in Scotland, is a statement made by a patient expressing their desire to refuse certain types of medical treatment or care in the event that they become unable to make or communicate decisions for themselves. These statements serve as a means of effectively communicating the patient’s wishes to healthcare professionals and family members, helping to avoid any confusion that may arise. If a patient reaches a point where they are no longer capable of making informed decisions about their care, an advance decision can provide clarity and guidance.
An advance decision can typically be utilized in the following situations: making decisions regarding CPR, determining the use of IV fluids and parenteral nutrition, deciding on specific procedures, and addressing the use of blood products for Jehovah’s Witnesses. However, it is important to note that advance decisions have their limitations and cannot be used to grant a relative lasting power of attorney, appoint a spokesperson to make decisions on the patient’s behalf, request a specific medical treatment, advocate for something illegal (such as assisted suicide), refuse treatment for a mental health condition, or authorize treatments that are not in the patient’s best interests.
A doctor is legally obligated to adhere to an advance decision unless certain circumstances arise. These circumstances include changes that invalidate the decision, advances or changes in treatment that alter the circumstances, ambiguity in the wording of the decision, or if the decision is unsigned or its authenticity is in doubt. If there are any doubts about the validity of an advance decision, it is advisable to seek legal advice. Unfortunately, there have been instances where advance decisions have been forged or signed under duress, and any suspicions of this nature should be raised.
It is important to note that there is no specific time period for which an advance decision remains valid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45 year old presents to the emergency department due to increasing fatigue and occasional confusion over the past few days. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus. A capillary blood glucose is taken at triage and reads 'hi'. Bloods are collected and sent for analysis. The results are as follows:
Na+ 146 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Urea 21 mmol/l
Creatinine 138 µmol/l
Glucose 38 mmol/l
pH 7.35
Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
What is the calculated plasma osmolality for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 351 mOsm/kg
Explanation:The plasma osmolality for this patient can be calculated by multiplying the sodium concentration by 2, adding the glucose concentration, and then adding the urea concentration. In this case, the calculation would be (2 x 146) + 38 + 21.
Further Reading:
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a syndrome that occurs in people with type 2 diabetes and is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels, dehydration, and hyperosmolarity without significant ketosis. It can develop over days or weeks and has a mortality rate of 5-20%, which is higher than that of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). HHS is often precipitated by factors such as infection, inadequate diabetic treatment, physiological stress, or certain medications.
Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, signs of dehydration (hypotension, tachycardia, poor skin turgor), lethargy, confusion, and weakness. Initial investigations for HHS include measuring capillary blood glucose, venous blood gas, urinalysis, and an ECG to assess for any potential complications such as myocardial infarction. Osmolality should also be calculated to monitor the severity of the condition.
The management of HHS aims to correct dehydration, hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte disturbances, as well as identify and treat any underlying causes. Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution is the principal fluid used to restore circulating volume and reverse dehydration. If the osmolality does not decline despite adequate fluid balance, a switch to 0.45% sodium chloride solution may be considered. Care must be taken in correcting plasma sodium and osmolality to avoid complications such as cerebral edema and osmotic demyelination syndrome.
The rate of fall of plasma sodium should not exceed 10 mmol/L in 24 hours, and the fall in blood glucose should be no more than 5 mmol/L per hour. Low-dose intravenous insulin may be initiated if the blood glucose is not falling with fluids alone or if there is significant ketonaemia. Potassium replacement should be guided by the potassium level, and the patient should be encouraged to drink as soon as it is safe to do so.
Complications of treatment, such as fluid overload, cerebral edema, or central pontine myelinolysis, should be assessed for, and underlying precipitating factors should be identified and treated. Prophylactic anticoagulation is required in most patients, and all patients should be assumed to be at high risk of foot ulceration, necessitating appropriate foot protection and daily foot checks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
- LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.
The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.
The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.
What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endocervical swab
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix. The most common culprits are sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia being the most prevalent infection seen in UK genitourinary medicine clinics.
PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms do occur, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It’s important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be mistaken for PID, so a pregnancy test should always be conducted in patients with suspicious symptoms.
To investigate a potential case of PID, endocervical swabs are taken to test for chlamydia and gonorrhea using nucleic acid amplification tests. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic treatment as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made, without waiting for swab results.
Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings. However, patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.
The current recommended treatment for outpatient cases of PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.
For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment consists of intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. Afterward, the treatment is switched to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day course.
If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old individual presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. They are also experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. The urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
What is a reason for immediate hospital admission in a patient with ureteric colic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Signs of systemic infection
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the flank or loin area and radiating to the groin or testicle in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever felt, with many women comparing it to the pain of childbirth. Restlessness and an inability to find relief by lying still are common signs, which can help differentiate renal colic from peritonitis. Previous episodes of similar pain may also be reported by the individual. In cases where there is a concomitant urinary infection, fever and sweating may be present. Additionally, the person may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
It is important to seek urgent medical attention if certain conditions are met. These include signs of systemic infection or sepsis, such as fever or sweating, or if the person is at a higher risk of acute kidney injury, such as having pre-existing chronic kidney disease, a solitary or transplanted kidney, or suspected bilateral obstructing stones. Hospital admission is also necessary if the person is dehydrated and unable to consume fluids orally due to nausea and/or vomiting. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, it is recommended to consult further resources, such as the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old carpenter presents with shoulder pain that worsens during repetitive overhead work. The patient also reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising the arm. There is no history of any injury.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacromial impingement
Explanation:The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.
Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.
Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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