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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old male visits the Parkinson's clinic with his spouse, complaining of more...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male visits the Parkinson's clinic with his spouse, complaining of more frequent and longer 'off' periods. The couple finds these episodes highly debilitating and occur up to 10 times a day. The patient was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease 10 years ago. As a relatively young patient on diagnosis, he was started on ropinirole, which he continued for 4 years, before being prescribed Sinemet 5 times a day and entacapone for the following 6 years. Over the last 2 years, the 'off' episodes have gradually increased in frequency, along with the development of very mild involuntary jaw movements. He is feeling very low and has been to the emergency department twice with attempted paracetamol overdoses. He would like a more effective treatment. What treatment plan would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Trihexyl

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous apomorphine

      Explanation:

      Managing off symptoms is crucial for individuals who have been living with Parkinson’s disease for an extended period. Ropinirole would not be effective in addressing off periods.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old nurse collapses at the end of a night shift and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old nurse collapses at the end of a night shift and is admitted to the hospital. Her capillary blood glucose is measured at 1.2mmol/L and she quickly recovers after receiving IV glucose. A CT scan of her abdomen and pelvis reveals a hypervascular lesion in her pancreas that enhances with contrast. What additional finding would provide the strongest evidence for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal serum proinsulin level

      Correct Answer: Elevated C-peptide following administration of IV insulin

      Explanation:

      An elevated C-peptide level after IV insulin administration can confirm the presence of an insulinoma. This is because IV insulin should suppress endogenous insulin secretion, leading to a decrease in C-peptide levels. If C-peptide levels remain high, it suggests that insulin is being secreted from an endogenous source, such as an insulinoma. The CT findings in this case support the suspicion of an insulinoma.

      A low serum C-peptide level is not indicative of an insulinoma in this case, as it would be expected in factitious hypoglycemia related to insulin administration. While the patient’s job may raise suspicion of this, the CT findings suggest an insulinoma is more likely.

      A normal serum proinsulin level is also not indicative of an insulinoma in this case, as elevated proinsulin levels would be expected in an insulinoma, especially after a prolonged fast. Normal proinsulin levels would be expected in factitious hypoglycemia related to insulin or sulfonylurea administration.

      Positive anti-GAD antibodies are not indicative of an insulinoma in this case, as they would be expected in type 1 diabetes mellitus. In the absence of treatment, type 1 diabetes would present with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

      Insulinoma: A Tumour Derived from Pancreatic Cells

      Insulinoma is a type of neuroendocrine tumour that mainly originates from the pancreatic Islets of Langerhans cells. It is the most common pancreatic endocrine tumour, with 10% of cases being malignant and 10% being multiple. Patients with multiple tumours have a 50% chance of having MEN-1.

      The symptoms of hypoglycaemia associated with insulinoma typically occur early in the morning or just before a meal, and may include diplopia and weakness. Rapid weight gain may also be observed. Diagnosis is made through supervised, prolonged fasting for up to 72 hours, as well as CT scans of the pancreas.

      Management of insulinoma involves surgery, but diazoxide and somatostatin may be used if surgery is not an option for the patient. It is important to diagnose and treat insulinoma promptly to prevent complications associated with hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      97
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 U/L (<50)

      The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.

      One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.

      In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presented to the rheumatology clinic for follow-up of her rheumatoid...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented to the rheumatology clinic for follow-up of her rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, she displayed symptoms and signs of active synovitis with elevated inflammatory markers. She had been receiving IM sodium aurothiomalate 50 mg once a week for the past six months and had recently completed a course of diclofenac 50 mg three times a day. Laboratory tests revealed a serum sodium level of 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium level of 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea level of 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine level of 290 µmol/L (60-110). A urine dipstick test showed protein and blood levels of ++, while a 24-hour urine collection revealed a protein level of 0.4 g/24hr (<0.2). Her renal function had been normal during her last clinic visit two months prior. What is the most likely cause of the decline in renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial nephritis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Renal Impairment in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      This patient has longstanding rheumatoid arthritis treated with gold and is currently experiencing an exacerbation of her symptoms. The presence of renal impairment with mild proteinuria and haematuria suggests a potential underlying cause. Amyloidosis is a common complication in patients with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis, which presents with proteinuria often in the nephrotic range. Gold nephropathy is another potential cause of proteinuria, but haematuria is rare. Interstitial nephritis may also account for the changes seen in this patient, especially since she is taking diclofenac, which is known to cause renal impairment.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are another potential cause of renal impairment, which can lead to a reversible reduction in the glomerular filtration rate, acute tubular necrosis, acute interstitial nephritis, renal papillary necrosis, and chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis. Myeloma is also a possibility, but there is no evidence of this in the patient’s presentation. Vasculitis is a rare cause of renal impairment in rheumatoid arthritis, which presents with proteinuria, microscopic haematuria, and renal impairment. However, since this cause is less common than interstitial nephritis associated with NSAIDs, it is not the most likely explanation in this case.

      In summary, there are several potential causes of renal impairment in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, including amyloidosis, gold nephropathy, interstitial nephritis, NSAIDs, myeloma, and vasculitis. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has a medical history of asthma, which was diagnosed during his childhood. As an adult, he has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to asthma exacerbations, which tend to occur during the summer months. He reports experiencing a nocturnal cough up to three times per week, along with rhinorrhoea and dry eyes since the weather became warmer. He works in construction and finds that his symptoms worsen when he is outside. Three weeks ago, he was admitted to the hospital for an asthma exacerbation and was treated with salbutamol nebulisers and a short course of prednisolone. On examination, he has mild end expiratory wheeze in the upper posterior zones bilaterally. His vital signs are normal, and there is no pedal oedema.

      The patient's drug history includes salbutamol metered dose inhaler when required, salmeterol 50 micrograms/fluticasone propionate 500 micrograms - two puffs twice daily, and levetiracetam 500 mg twice daily. His laboratory results show an elevated IgE level of 500 UI/ml (normal range 150-300 UI/ml). Aspergillus precipitins are negative, and his chest x-ray is normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in omalizumab

      Explanation:

      Omalizumab is a suitable treatment for patients with allergic asthma and elevated IgE levels, such as this gentleman who has poorly controlled asthma despite treatment, a history of atopy, and elevated IgE levels. According to GINA guidelines, he is on step 4 of the asthma treatment ladder and may benefit from add-on therapy such as anti-IgE therapy with omalizumab. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to free IgE and prevents its interaction with mast cells, reducing the risk of asthma exacerbations. Other options such as theophylline, additional prednisolone, or voriconazole are not as appropriate for this patient’s presentation and medical history.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is scheduled for her third cycle...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is scheduled for her third cycle of palliative chemotherapy. However, she has experienced vomiting at home on the morning of her previous two treatments. What is the best medication to manage her vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam 0.5 mg orally as needed

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anticipatory Vomiting in Chemotherapy Patients

      Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can be treated with various drugs. However, modern palliative chemotherapy for breast cancer is less likely to cause severe nausea and vomiting. In the case of a patient experiencing anticipatory vomiting, which is likely caused by anxiety about chemotherapy, treating them with a benzodiazepine as an anxiolytic and antiemetic would be the most effective approach.

      Anticipatory vomiting is a common issue among chemotherapy patients, and it can be challenging to manage. It is often caused by anxiety and fear associated with the treatment. In such cases, treating the underlying anxiety can help alleviate the vomiting. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used as anxiolytics and antiemetics. They work by reducing anxiety and calming the patient, which can help prevent anticipatory vomiting.

      In conclusion, when dealing with anticipatory vomiting in chemotherapy patients, it is essential to address the underlying anxiety. Treating the patient with a benzodiazepine as an anxiolytic and antiemetic can be an effective approach to managing this issue. It is important to note that this treatment should only be administered under the supervision of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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  • Question 7 - A 30 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a comatose state. He was discovered by his roommate collapsed on the floor. The roommate reports that the man had been exhibiting strange behavior over the past 24 hours and had been quite agitated and aggressive at times. Upon examination, the man has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 (E 2 V 1 M 5). He has a temperature of 39.4ºC, heart rate of 120/min, blood pressure of 178/89 mmHg, sats of 98% on room air, and respiratory rate of 20/min. His chest is clear and abdomen is soft and non-tender with present bowel sounds. He exhibits globally increased tone in all four limbs.

      Reviewing his electronic medical records, the only information available is a recent admission to a psychiatric hospital where he was diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia.

      CT scan of the brain shows no abnormalities.

      Lab results show:
      - Hemoglobin: 15.4 g/dL
      - Platelets: 232 * 10^9/L
      - White blood cells: 11.5 * 10^9/L
      - Sodium: 143 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.1 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 101 µmol/L
      - Bilirubin: 14 µmol/L
      - ALP: 63 U/L
      - ALT: 28 U/L
      - Calcium: 2.64 mmol/L
      - Albumin: 41 g/L
      - Creatine kinase: 21,000 IU/L
      - Serum glucose: 6.4 mmol/L

      A lumbar puncture was performed with the following results:
      - Glucose: 4.9 mmol/L
      - Protein: 0.3 g/L
      - Culture: no organisms found
      - Opening pressure: 21 mmHg

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is the correct answer. It is characterized by a combination of altered consciousness, hyperpyrexia, and elevated CK levels in individuals taking neuroleptic medications. This potentially fatal complication is more common in young males who have recently started taking high doses of high-potency antipsychotics. Autonomic instability is also a common feature of NMS.

      Serotonin syndrome shares many clinical features with NMS, but it typically presents with additional gastrointestinal and cerebellar symptoms. Rigidity and hyperthermia are usually less severe in serotonin syndrome. Furthermore, this condition is typically associated with antidepressant medication. Therefore, it is less likely to be the correct diagnosis in an individual who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.

      Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old female visits her GP complaining of non-itchy rashes on her face,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female visits her GP complaining of non-itchy rashes on her face, neck, and bilateral upper limbs that have been present for four days. She enjoys gardening and has a medical history of asthma and a previous myocardial infarction. During her last visit to the cardiology outpatient clinic, she was prescribed a new medication for arrhythmias. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The rash’s distribution indicates phototoxicity, which is only associated with amiodarone and flecainide among the listed medications. However, it should be noted that flecainide is not recommended for patients with a history of myocardial infarction.

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.

      Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.

      On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.

      It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a history of watery...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a history of watery diarrhoea for the past 6 months, with 4-6 bowel movements per day. She has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, Type 2 diabetes, and depression.

      Lab results show Hb 11.5 g/l, Na+ 139 mmol/l, Bilirubin 12 µmol/l, Platelets 207 * 109/l, K+ 3.9 mmol/l, ALP 95 u/l, WBC 8.9 * 109/l, Urea 7.2 mmol/l, ALT 23 u/l, Neuts 5.6 * 109/l, Creatinine 100 µmol/l, γGT 56 u/l, Lymphs 1.8 * 109/l, Albumin 38 g/l, and Eosin 0.5 * 109/l.

      During colonoscopy, mild mucosal oedema is observed, and biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for her colonoscopy findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman with mild type 1 von Willebrand disease has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with mild type 1 von Willebrand disease has been referred to you for elective dental extractions. What recommendations would you make regarding her optimal haemostatic options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DDAVP (desmopressin) and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Mild von Willebrand Disease

      In mild von Willebrand disease, the goal of treatment is to ensure adequate haemostasis while minimizing the use of extrinsic coagulation factors. Desmopressin infusion is a suitable option for this case as it can increase vWF levels by three to five times. Additionally, anti-fibrinolytic drugs like tranexamic acid can be used in conjunction with desmopressin. Therefore, the correct answer is DDAVP (desmopressin) and tranexamic acid.

      Type I von Willebrand disease is the mild form of the condition, and it is crucial to avoid exposing patients to plasma-derived products when desmopressin can provide effective haemostasis. By using desmopressin and anti-fibrinolytic drugs, patients with mild von Willebrand disease can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing their exposure to extrinsic coagulation factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man collapsed while playing tennis and was found to be in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapsed while playing tennis and was found to be in cardiorespiratory arrest with ventricular fibrillation. He was successfully resuscitated with one biphasic DC shock of 150 J but experienced mild confusion upon regaining consciousness. The patient has a history of diabetes mellitus and was recently prescribed a new medication by his GP for leg pains, insomnia, and feeling down. He is unsure of the medication's purpose. An ECG revealed QT interval prolongation. What is the most likely medication responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      A prolonged QT interval can increase the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias, including torsades de pointes and ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by underlying genetic abnormalities or acquired factors such as electrolyte imbalances and certain medications. Drugs that can lead to QT prolongation include classes Ia, Ic and III anti-arrhythmic agents, tricyclic antidepressants, erythromycin, haloperidol and azole antifungals. Sodium valproate use can lead to liver dysfunction, pancreatitis, and teratogenicity in women of child-bearing potential. Diclofenac does not cause QT prolongation but can worsen blood pressure control and fluid retention, as well as cause gastric irritation. Clavulanic acid and penicillins, such as co-amoxiclav, do not impact the QT interval, and there is no indication of recent infection. Paroxetine is associated with episodes of sinus tachycardia and bradycardia but does not pose a significant risk of QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with symptoms of nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with symptoms of nausea and vomiting, which were suspected to be caused by a viral gastroenteritis. The on-call team treated her with IV fluids and intravenous anti-emetics. However, the nursing staff on the ward reported that she is now experiencing seizures.

      Upon arrival, the patient appears distressed and has a blood pressure of 148/88 mmHg. She has a GCS of 15 but is staring upwards with a stiff neck and jaw muscle spasms. Her limb tone, power, and reflexes are normal, and she has flexor plantar responses.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous benzatropine

      Explanation:

      Acute Dystonic-Dyskinetic Reactions Caused by Excess Metoclopramide Dose

      Acute dystonic-dyskinetic reactions are more common in children and young adults, with females accounting for about 70% of cases. These reactions are usually caused by an excess of the recommended dose of metoclopramide. Symptoms include oculogyric crisis, opisthotonus, torticollis, trismus, and tetanus-like reactions. In some cases, a blue discolouration of the tongue may also occur. The effects of the reaction can occur within 30 minutes to 72 hours of starting treatment. Although the reaction is generally self-limiting, it can be reversed by administering an anticholinergic such as benzatropine or procyclidine, or an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine.

      Overall, it is important to be cautious when administering metoclopramide and to follow the recommended dosage guidelines to avoid the occurrence of acute dystonic-dyskinetic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of multiple small bowel resections presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of multiple small bowel resections presents with chronic diarrhoea and difficulty maintaining weight. She has a healed laparotomy scar on her abdomen and was unsuccessfully weaned off total parenteral nutrition. On examination, her BMI is 19 and her blood pressure is 103/80 mmHg with a pulse of 80 bpm. Her lab results show low haemoglobin, albumin, and potassium levels, as well as elevated C-reactive protein. What is the most effective next intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teduglutide

      Explanation:

      Teduglutide for the Treatment of Short Bowel Syndrome

      Teduglutide is a medication that acts as a glucagon-like peptide 2 agonist, promoting the growth of the small bowel mucosa. This makes it a valuable treatment option for individuals with short bowel syndrome resulting from multiple resections for Crohn’s disease. After six months of treatment, patients who require total parenteral nutrition (TPN) top-ups have been shown to experience a reduction in their TPN requirements ranging from 20 to 100%. While medications such as loperamide hydrochloride and codeine phosphate may improve diarrhea symptoms, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on malabsorption symptoms. Liraglutide and vildagliptin are medications used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes and are not effective in promoting small intestinal mucosal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of Grave's disease is seen on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of Grave's disease is seen on the medical floor 24 hours after parathyroidectomy. She is experiencing episodes of carpopedal spasm and tingling sensations around her mouth and hands. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and her pulse is 90 beats per minute. Her serum calcium level is measured at 1.9 mmol/l.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous calcium

      Explanation:

      One liter of normal saline or 5% solution is used to dilute calcium gluconate.

      Understanding Hypocalcaemia: Causes and Management

      Hypocalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. The majority of cases can be diagnosed by combining the clinical history with parathyroid hormone levels. The causes of hypocalcaemia include vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, rhabdomyolysis, magnesium deficiency, massive blood transfusion, and acute pancreatitis. It is important to note that contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also lead to falsely low calcium levels.

      Severe hypocalcaemia can lead to carpopedal spasm, tetany, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, and requires immediate IV calcium replacement. The preferred method is with intravenous calcium gluconate, administered as 10 ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes. It is important to monitor the patient’s ECG during this process. Intravenous calcium chloride is not recommended as it is more likely to cause local irritation. Further management of hypocalcaemia depends on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old man has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and orthopnoea over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and orthopnoea over the past few years. He finally went to his GP after a severe episode of breathlessness while wading in the sea on holiday. He also reported morning headaches and an increasing tendency to fall asleep during the day. On examination, reduced breath sounds and percussion note bi-basally were noted. What is the most probable diagnosis based on the given information and test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral diaphragmatic weakness

      Explanation:

      Bilateral diaphragmatic weakness is a condition where patients experience breathlessness when exerting themselves or lying flat. It can also lead to sleep apnea, causing daytime sleepiness and headaches. This condition occurs due to the paradoxical movement of the diaphragm during inspiration. Symptoms can worsen when standing in water up to the waist, as it counteracts the effects of gravity and prevents outward movement of the abdomen during inspiration. Diagnosis can be made through a chest X-ray, SNIF test, and lung function tests. Treatment involves non-invasive ventilation. Other conditions, such as obstructive sleep apnea, nocturnal asthma, left ventricular failure, and multiple sclerosis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old man who recently moved to the UK from Ethiopia presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who recently moved to the UK from Ethiopia presents with a chronic cough and night sweats that have persisted for five weeks. He also reports coughing up small amounts of bright red blood on a few occasions, which is particularly concerning to him as his father died from lung-related issues following chronic coughing.

      After undergoing a chest X-ray and blood tests, he is diagnosed with TB and contact tracing is initiated. His 26-year-old male partner lives with him and is identified as being at high risk of contracting TB. The partner undergoes Mantoux testing and has a 2mm area of induration. He has never received BCG vaccination to his knowledge and has no vaccination scar. What is the most appropriate management that should be offered to the partner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV testing and if negative then BCG vaccination

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action is to conduct an HIV test first, and if the result is negative, administer BCG vaccination. The patient’s low response to the Mantoux test suggests that they are unlikely to have TB and have not been vaccinated. However, it is important to note that the test may yield a false negative result in an immunocompromised patient. Given the partner’s increased risk of HIV, NICE recommends conducting an HIV test before administering the vaccination. BCG vaccination is a live vaccine and is therefore not recommended for immunocompromised patients. It is also worth noting that prior vaccination may lead to a false positive result.

      If a diagnosis of pulmonary TB is confirmed, NICE recommends the following management for close contacts: test for latent TB if asymptomatic and under 65 years of age. If the Mantoux test is negative and the individual has not been vaccinated, offer vaccination. If the individual is at risk of HIV, conduct an HIV test before proceeding. If asymptomatic and over 65 years of age, assess with a chest X-ray.

      It is important to note that TB treatment should only be considered if TB is confirmed and not used prophylactically. Repeat screening is generally not recommended.

      Tuberculosis can be screened for using the Mantoux test, which involves injecting a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and reading the results a few days later. A positive result indicates hypersensitivity to the tuberculin protein, which may be due to previous TB infection or BCG vaccination. False negative results can occur in certain situations, such as in very young children or individuals with certain medical conditions. The Heaf test, which was previously used in the UK, has since been discontinued.

      To diagnose active tuberculosis, a chest x-ray may reveal upper lobe cavitation or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum smear tests involve examining three specimens for the presence of acid-fast bacilli using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. While this test is rapid and inexpensive, its sensitivity is between 50-80% and is decreased in individuals with HIV. Sputum culture is considered the gold standard investigation, as it is more sensitive than a smear and can assess drug sensitivities. However, it can take 1-3 weeks to obtain results. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) allow for rapid diagnosis within 24-48 hours, but are less sensitive than culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old woman presented to the clinic complaining of breathlessness, wheezing, and fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presented to the clinic complaining of breathlessness, wheezing, and fatigue that had been ongoing for the past 6 months. She had recently returned to the United Kingdom after spending 8 months in rural areas of Zanzibar, where she swam in lakes and walked around barefoot. During her trip, she experienced vague abdominal discomfort for 2 months, which resolved after taking a prescribed tablet. On examination, her pulse was 80 bpm, and her respiratory rate was 20 breaths/min at rest, increasing to 28 breaths/min on walking 40 m. She appeared pale, and auscultation of the chest revealed scattered wheezing. Further investigations showed a low haemoglobin level, low mean corpuscular volume, and elevated platelet count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hookworm infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abdominal Pain, Breathlessness, and Anaemia

      When a patient presents with abdominal pain, breathlessness, and anaemia, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s history of walking around barefoot suggests a possible hookworm infection. Hookworms can cause non-specific abdominal pain in the early stages of infection, as well as wheeze, dry cough, and breathlessness as they migrate to the lungs. Ongoing gastrointestinal blood loss can lead to iron deficiency anaemia, which can explain the patient’s symptoms.

      Left ventricular failure is another possible diagnosis for the patient’s breathlessness, but there is no underlying pathology to explain its development. A duodenal ulcer could explain the abdominal pain, but it cannot account for the respiratory symptoms or anaemia. Pulmonary embolism is unlikely given the patient’s age and lack of risk factors, and schistosomiasis typically presents with urinary or intestinal pathology.

      Overall, hookworm infection is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation. Treatment with albendazole or mebendazole is highly successful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic for a review of his medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic for a review of his medical condition. He has a past medical history of ischemic heart disease and was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus about a year ago. His HbA1c at the time of diagnosis was 7.6% (60 mmol/mol), and he was started on metformin, which was gradually increased to a dose of 1g bd. His most recent blood test shows an HbA1c of 6.8% (51 mmol/mol). He has recently retired from his job in the IT industry, and his current BMI is 28 kg/m². He is taking the following medications:

      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily
      - Bisoprolol 2.5 mg once daily
      - Ramipril 5mg once daily

      What would be the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add empagliflozin

      Explanation:

      In addition to metformin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor (such as empagliflozin) should be prescribed for this patient who has a history of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient does not achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes that have been bothering her for a few months. She also reports having a significantly dry mouth, which sometimes makes it difficult for her to eat. She has no notable medical history.

      During the examination, the doctor observes mild redness in the eyes and a dry tongue. Suspecting a particular diagnosis, the doctor orders an initial blood test:

      Antinuclear antibodies 1:1600 (<1:280)

      What is the most conclusive test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salivary gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man, with chronic renal disease and on peritoneal dialysis, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, with chronic renal disease and on peritoneal dialysis, presents to his local renal unit after hours with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. He reports having cloudy bags during his peritoneal dialysis at home for the past 12 hours, which is a new experience for him. Upon examination, he appears to be in good health, with a temperature of 37.8°C, a pulse rate of 80, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. His abdomen is soft to the touch, with no signs of guarding or rebound, and there is no redness around the exit site of the peritoneal dialysis catheter. The patient mentions having a penicillin allergy since childhood. The renal nurse has already sent PD fluid for microscopy and culture after draining the fluid. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intraperitoneal vancomycin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Prompt Treatment of PD Peritonitis

      PD peritonitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate and broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy. It is recommended to administer antibiotics through the intraperitoneal route rather than the intravenous route. The initial antibiotic regimen should cover both Gram-positive (including MRSA) and Gram-negative organisms, although antibiotic policies may vary among hospitals. It is not necessary to remove the PD catheter at this stage, as this is the first episode of PD peritonitis and the patient does not have an acute surgical abdomen.

      Intravenous co-amoxiclav is not a suitable option for this patient, as it does not provide adequate coverage, and the patient is allergic to penicillin. Swabbing the exit site and starting oral erythromycin is not recommended, as there is no evidence of an exit site infection based on clinical examination. While laboratory tests can be helpful, antibiotic therapy should not be delayed while waiting for their results. Prompt treatment of PD peritonitis is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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