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  • Question 1 - A patient in their 40s has a family history of blindness, phaeochromocytomas, renal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 40s has a family history of blindness, phaeochromocytomas, renal cell carcinomas and haemangioblastomas.
      Which gene is implicated?

      Your Answer: RET

      Correct Answer: VHL

      Explanation:

      Genes and their associated conditions

      Genes play a crucial role in the development and functioning of the human body. Mutations in certain genes can lead to the development of various conditions. Here are some examples:

      Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) Syndrome:
      VHL syndrome is a rare condition caused by mutations in the VHL gene on chromosome 3. It is characterized by the formation of benign and malignant tumors on various organs of the body, including the central nervous system, retina, kidneys, pancreas, and liver. Diagnosis is complex, and surveillance is recommended for early detection and treatment.

      RET Gene:
      The RET gene on chromosome 10 codes for a protein involved in cell signaling and nervous system development. Mutations in this gene are associated with Hirschsprung’s disease, multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 2), lung cancer, and papillary thyroid carcinoma.

      NF1 Gene:
      The NF1 gene on chromosome 17 codes for the neurofibromin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 and some cancers, such as juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia.

      c-Myc Gene:
      The c-Myc gene on chromosome 8 codes for a transcription factor protein that regulates the expression of other genes. Mutations in this gene have been linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma.

      MEN1 Gene:
      The MEN1 gene on chromosome 11 codes for the menin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene can lead to the development of multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 1), hyperparathyroidism, parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumors, and bronchial carcinoids.

      Genes and their associated conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of knee pain that worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of knee pain that worsens after prolonged activity. Despite undergoing physiotherapy and losing weight for her osteoarthritis, her symptoms persist. The GP orders an X-ray to confirm the diagnosis. What knee X-ray result indicates a different condition than osteoarthritis?

      Your Answer: Normal knee X-ray

      Correct Answer: Reduction in bone marrow density

      Explanation:

      Understanding X-ray Findings in Osteoarthritis

      Osteoarthritis is a common joint disorder that can be diagnosed through X-ray imaging. One of the key findings in X-rays of patients with osteoarthritis is a reduction in bone marrow density, indicating a significant loss of bone density. On the other hand, osteophyte formation, which are bony spurs that form at joint margins, is a typical finding in osteoarthritis. Another common finding is a loss of joint space, which is caused by cartilage loss. However, it is important to note that a normal X-ray does not necessarily rule out osteoarthritis, as changes on an X-ray may not always correlate with a patient’s level of symptoms. Finally, subchondral sclerosis, which is the increased bone marrow density around joint margins affected by osteoarthritis, is another common finding in X-rays of patients with osteoarthritis. Understanding these X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She has a history of occasional frontal headaches but no significant past medical history. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 148/76 mmHg. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5, +1 protein, 0 nitrates, 0 leucocytes, and 0 blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP

      Correct Answer: Chronic hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis in this case is chronic hypertension. It is unlikely that the patient has developed any pregnancy-related causes of hypertension at only 16 weeks gestation. The small amount of protein in her urine suggests that she may have had hypertension for some time. The patient’s intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and do not indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension typically occur after 20 weeks gestation, with pre-eclampsia being associated with significant proteinuria and gestational hypertension without. Nephrotic syndrome would typically present with a larger degree of proteinuria.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64.2
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  • Question 5 - An obese 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with ongoing vague...

    Correct

    • An obese 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with ongoing vague abdominal pain and fatigue for the last three months. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
      Physical examination suggests hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies reveal a negative hepatitis panel and normal iron studies. Antibodies for autoimmune liver disease are also normal.
      A diagnosis of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is likely.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Management of Hepatomegaly and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)

      Hepatomegaly and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) are common conditions that require appropriate management to prevent progression to liver cirrhosis and other complications. The following are important considerations in the management of these conditions:

      Diagnosis: Diagnosis of NAFLD involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology.

      Conservative management: Most patients with NAFLD can be managed conservatively with maximized control of cardiovascular risk factors, weight loss, immunizations to hepatitis A and B viruses, and alcohol abstinence. Weight loss in a controlled manner is recommended, with a 10% reduction in body weight over a 6-month period being an appropriate recommendation to patients. Rapid weight loss should be avoided, as it can worsen liver inflammation and fibrosis. Unfortunately, no medications are currently licensed for the management of NAFLD.

      Liver transplant: Patients with NAFLD do not require a liver transplant at this stage. Conservative management with weight loss and controlling cardiovascular risk factors is the recommended approach.

      Oral steroids: Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune hepatitis. Patients with autoimmune hepatitis typically present with other immune-mediated conditions like pernicious anemia and ulcerative colitis.

      Penicillamine: Penicillamine is the treatment for patients with Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper excretion that leads to excess copper deposition in the liver and brain. Patients typically present with neurological signs like tremor, ataxia, clumsiness, or abdominal signs like fulminant liver failure.

      Ursodeoxycholic acid: Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the management of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a condition more common in women. Given this patient’s normal autoimmune screen, PBC is an unlikely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25.6
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.7
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  • Question 7 - A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in a magazine and ordered a test through an online laboratory, which showed a low level. He had a history of morphine addiction for the past 4 years and had recently started treatment at a detox clinic, where he was taking methadone orally. He smoked 15 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: To come back once his detoxification regimen is over

      Explanation:

      Management of Low Testosterone in a Patient on Methadone

      When managing a patient on methadone with low testosterone levels, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Methadone use inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in men, leading to low testosterone levels. Therefore, advising the patient to come back after detoxification is necessary before considering any treatment options.

      Starting oral or intramuscular depo testosterone is not appropriate at this point. Instead, it is recommended to have the patient stop smoking and repeat the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) tests after stopping methadone. These tests will help determine if there are any other causes for testosterone deficiency that need to be addressed.

      In conclusion, managing low testosterone levels in a patient on methadone requires a thorough understanding of the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Advising the patient to come back after detoxification and repeating FSH and LH tests are important steps in managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
      What is the next and most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.

      Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.

      IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.

      While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most common way in which a child with Wilms' tumour...

    Correct

    • What is the most common way in which a child with Wilms' tumour presents?

      Your Answer: An asymptomatic abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ Tumour in Children

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a type of kidney cancer that is commonly found in children. It is usually detected when a parent notices a lump while bathing or dressing their child, typically around the age of three. Unlike other types of cancer, Wilms’ tumour rarely presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, or hypertension.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Wilms’ tumour, as early detection can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment. Regular check-ups with a pediatrician can also help in identifying any potential issues. If a parent does notice a lump or any other unusual symptoms in their child, they should seek medical attention immediately. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, many children with Wilms’ tumour can go on to live healthy, normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his right elbow that worsens during tennis, particularly when executing a backhand. Upon examination, it is observed that the pain is triggered by resisted wrist extension while the elbow is fully extended.
      Which muscle attachment is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis longus

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: The Role of Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a prevalent overuse injury that causes tendinosis and inflammation at the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) muscle. While several muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow, the ECRB is the most commonly affected in this condition.

      Repetitive pronation and supination with the elbow in extension can cause microtears at the ECRB origin, leading to inflammation and even radial nerve entrapment syndrome. Radiographs are usually normal, and an MRI may show increased signal intensity at the ECRB tendon, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

      Non-operative treatment, including activity modification, rest, ice, NSAIDs, and physical therapy, is successful in 95% of patients. However, it may take up to a year to be effective. Operative release and debridement of the ECRB origin are only considered in rare cases when non-operative treatment fails.

      While other muscles, such as the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and anconeus, also attach to the lateral epicondyle, they are less likely to be involved in lateral epicondylitis. Understanding the role of the ECRB in this condition can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports that he is a typical boy, but he has been experiencing difficulty walking and falls frequently. He started walking at 15 months old, and she has observed that he requires assistance getting up from a seated position. Apart from that, he is comparable to his classmates in school and has progressed normally. During the examination, he displays proximal weakness, but his distal muscle strength is intact.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy from Other Neuromuscular Disorders

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects boys and is characterized by progressive muscle weakness. It is important to differentiate DMD from other neuromuscular disorders to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) and progressive muscular atrophy are two conditions that affect the lower motor neurons but are not characterized by proximal weakness, which is a hallmark of DMD. Global developmental delay, on the other hand, is characterized by intellectual and communication limitations, delayed milestones, and motor skill delays, but not proximal weakness.

      Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is another neuromuscular disorder that can be confused with DMD. However, SMA has four types, each with distinct clinical presentations. The scenario described in the prompt does not fit with any of the four types of SMA.

      In summary, understanding the unique clinical features of DMD and differentiating it from other neuromuscular disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27.6
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.

      What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Loop colostomy

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An unknown middle-aged man was brought to the Emergency Department. He was found...

    Incorrect

    • An unknown middle-aged man was brought to the Emergency Department. He was found wandering aimlessly in the street and his gait was unsteady, suggestive of alcoholism. However, he did not smell of alcohol. He could not answer questions as to his whereabouts and there seemed to be decreased comprehension. He had cheilosis and glossitis. As he was asked to walk along a line to check for tandem gait, he bumped into a stool and it became evident that he could not see clearly. After admission, the next day, the ward nurse reported that the patient had passed stool five times last night and the other patients were complaining of the very foul smell. His blood tests reveal:
      Calcium 1.90 (2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
      Albumin 40 (35–55 g/l)
      PO43− 0.40 (0.70–1.40 mmol/l)
      Which of the following treatments is given in this condition?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic enzyme supplement

      Correct Answer: Megadose vitamin E

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of abetalipoproteinaemia, a rare genetic disorder that results in defective lipoprotein synthesis and fat malabsorption. This leads to deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin E, which is responsible for the neurological symptoms and visual problems. Vitamin A deficiency may also contribute to visual problems, while vitamin D deficiency can cause low calcium and phosphate levels and metabolic bone disease. Fomepizole is used to treat methanol poisoning, which presents with neurological symptoms and metabolic acidosis. However, this does not explain the patient’s cheilosis or glossitis. IV thiamine is used to treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a result of vitamin B deficiency commonly seen in malnourished patients with a history of alcohol abuse. Pancreatic enzyme supplements are used in chronic pancreatitis with exocrine insufficiency, while oral zinc therapy is used in Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive condition that causes excessive copper accumulation and can present with extrapyramidal features or neuropsychiatric manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      153.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to an acute overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to an acute overdose of her lithium medication, which she takes for bipolar affective disorder and self-harming tendencies. Upon admission, she displayed symptoms of vomiting, tremors, and first-degree heart block. Her lithium levels were measured at 3.6 mmol/l and after eight hours, it decreased to 3.0 mmol/l.

      What is the estimated time for the lithium levels to drop to an undetectable level in the serum from the initial value of <0.25 mmol/l?

      Your Answer: 72 hours

      Correct Answer: 96 hours

      Explanation:

      Serum Value of Lithium Over Time

      The serum value of lithium can be used to monitor the levels of the drug in a patient’s bloodstream. Based on a reduction of one sixth in an 8-hour period, it would take 16 hours for the serum value to drop to 1.8 mmol/l, representing a 50% reduction (half-life). Using a crude half-life of 24 hours, after 12 hours the serum value of lithium would be approximately 2.7 mmol/l, after 24 hours it would be approximately 1.8 mmol/l, and after 48 hours it would be approximately 0.9 mmol/l. It would take 96 hours for the serum values to fall below 0.25 mmol/l. Monitoring the serum value of lithium over time can help healthcare professionals adjust dosages and ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
      The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
      You suspect malignant melanoma.
      Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.6
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He is brought to the Emergency Department where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the left side of chest and upper abdomen together with an obvious deformity of the left humerus. Radiograph of the left arm shows a displaced, midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at work while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Patient Normal
      Temperature 36.8°C 36.1–37.2°C
      Pulse 115 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Blood pressure 145/93 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 99% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: iv morphine

      Explanation:

      Analgesic Options for Long Bone Fractures: Choosing the Right Treatment

      When it comes to managing pain in long bone fractures, the traditional analgesia ladder may not always be sufficient. While step 1 recommends non-opioid options like aspirin or paracetamol, and step 2 suggests weak opioids like codeine, a step 3 approach may be necessary for moderate to severe pain. In this case, the two most viable options are pethidine and morphine.

      While pethidine may be an option, morphine is often preferred due to its safer side-effect profile and lower risk of toxicity. IV morphine also acts quicker than SC pethidine and can be titrated more readily. However, it’s important to note that both options have depressive effects on the cardiovascular system and should not be used in shocked patients. Even in stable patients, caution is advised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency.

      Other options, such as NSAIDs like diclofenac, may be effective for musculoskeletal pain but are contraindicated in emergency situations where the patient must be kept nil by mouth. Similarly, inhaled options like Entonox may not be strong enough for a pain score of 9/10.

      In summary, choosing the right analgesic option for long bone fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and the potential risks and benefits of each treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a lump in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a lump in her right breast that she has noticed for the past 4 weeks. She denies any pain, discharge, or skin changes. The patient is concerned about the lump as she has recently started a new relationship and her partner has also noticed it. On examination, a mobile, smooth, firm breast lump measuring 3.5 cm is palpated. Ultrasound confirms a fibroadenoma. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision

      Explanation:

      Surgical excision is the recommended treatment for fibroadenomas larger than 3 cm in size. This is because such masses can cause cosmetic concerns and discomfort, especially if they continue to grow. Given the patient’s expressed anxiety about the mass, surgical excision should be offered as a treatment option. Anastrozole, which is used to treat hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women, is not appropriate in this case as the patient has a benign breast lesion, and there is no information about hormone receptor status or menopausal status. Tamoxifen, which has been shown to reduce benign breast lump development in some pre-menopausal women, is not a primary treatment for fibroadenomas. Ultrasound-guided monochloroacetic acid injection is also not a suitable treatment option as it is used for plantar wart management and not for breast cryotherapy. While some centers may offer ultrasound-guided cryotherapy for fibroadenomas smaller than 4 cm, surgical excision is the more common treatment.

      Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma

      Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.

      Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.

      In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      136.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      83.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister is worried that her brother firmly believes that he is a superhero, despite having no evidence or abilities to support this belief. Upon assessment, the man appears physically healthy. There are no signs of delusions, disorientation, or unusual speech patterns. However, he maintains an unyielding conviction that Beyonce is in live with him. What is the appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Othello syndrome

      Correct Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the delusion that a famous person is in love with someone, without any other psychotic symptoms, is De Clerambault’s syndrome. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, refers to the delusion that a close relative has been replaced by an impostor, while De Frégoli syndrome is the delusion of seeing a familiar person in different individuals.

      De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love

      De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single person who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with them. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child? ...

    Correct

    • What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Face and trunk

      Explanation:

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.

      It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic for evaluation. His GP is worried about his recent blood test results, which showed a potassium level of 6.2 mmol/l and a creatinine level of 130 µmol/l. Based on these findings, you suspect that he may have type 4 renal tubular acidosis.
      Can you identify the medication that is most commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.

      Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.

      Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.

      Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28 year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of inter-menstrual bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of inter-menstrual bleeding and occasional post-coital bleeding that has been going on for 3 months. She is sexually active and currently taking Microgynon, a combined oral contraceptive pill. Her most recent cervical smear showed no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropions are frequently observed in young women who are on COCP and experience post-coital bleeding. Although cervical cancer should be taken into account, the probability of it being the cause is reduced if the woman has had a recent normal smear. In such cases, ectropion is more probable.

      Understanding Cervical Ectropion

      Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.

      Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions

      Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.

      Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the recommended course of treatment for a 16-year-old boy with Reifenstein...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended course of treatment for a 16-year-old boy with Reifenstein syndrome who has hypospadias, micropenis, and small testes in the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Testosterone replacement

      Explanation:

      Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options

      Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest pain that spreads to his arm and jaw. Upon examination, his ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal changes in I and aVL. Based on this information, which of the following vessels is most likely obstructed?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Myocardial Infarctions Based on ECG Changes

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help differentiate the location of the MI and guide appropriate management. Here are the ECG changes expected in different types of MI:

      Right Coronary Artery (RCA) Infarction: An inferior MI affects the RCA in 80% of cases, with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal changes in leads I and aVL.

      Left Circumflex Artery (LCX) Infarction: LCX infarction presents with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 (lateral leads), and reciprocal changes in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF.

      Left Coronary Artery (LCA) Infarction: If the clot is in the LCA before bifurcation, ST changes are expected in leads I, aVL, and V1–V6 (anterolateral leads).

      Posterior Descending Artery (PDA) Infarction: PDA infarction gives ECG changes in keeping with a posterior MI, such as ST depression in the anterior leads.

      Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD) Infarction: LAD runs in the anterior of the heart, almost parallel to the septum, and then lateralizes. Therefore, in an LAD infarction, ST changes are expected in leads V1–V6 (anteroseptal leads).

      In conclusion, recognizing the ECG changes in different types of MI can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which statement about nail changes is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about nail changes is accurate?

      Your Answer: Clubbing occurs in ischaemic heart disease

      Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Nail Changes and Their Causes

      Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:

      Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.

      Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.

      White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.

      Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.

      Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What is a frequently occurring complication of this condition?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of bleeding

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome and its Complications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by three main symptoms: hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and edema. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk of developing complications such as thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also a possible complication of nephrotic syndrome, although not all patients with the condition will have a history of established renal disease prior to presentation. The risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome.

      One unusual complication of nephrotic syndrome is hypercalcemia, which is not commonly seen in this condition. Abnormal plasma protein proportions can cause changes in the binding of electrolytes, drugs, and other solutes, leading to low ionized calcium levels. In severe cases, this may result in symptoms of hypocalcemia. However, in CKD, hypocalcemia is a common occurrence and can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      In summary, the symptoms and complications of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for proper management and treatment of the condition. While hypercalcemia is not a common complication, patients with nephrotic syndrome are at an increased risk of developing thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Additionally, the risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are asked to assess a woman who has given birth to her...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a woman who has given birth to her third child 2 hours ago. The baby was born at term, weighed 4.2kg, and was in good health. She had a natural delivery that lasted for 7 hours, and opted for a physiological third stage. According to the nurse, she has lost around 750ml of blood, but her vital signs are stable and the bleeding seems to be decreasing. What is the leading reason for her blood loss?

      Your Answer: Birth trauma

      Correct Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      PPH, which is the loss of 500ml or more from the genital tract within 24 hours of giving birth, is primarily caused by uterine atony. It can be classified as minor (500-1000ml) or major (>1000ml) and has a mortality rate of 6 deaths/million deliveries. The causes of PPH can be categorized into the ‘four T’s’: tone, tissue (retained placenta), trauma, and thrombin (coagulation abnormalities).

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/3) 0%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Passmed