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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman is visited by her GP at home. She is nearing...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is visited by her GP at home. She is nearing the end of her life due to metastatic cervical cancer and is currently receiving diamorphine through a syringe driver. Her family is worried because she has been experiencing increasing confusion and severe pain over the past few days. Her recent blood tests, including FBC, LFT, calcium, and CRP, are all normal. However, her renal function has significantly declined since her last blood test two weeks ago. On examination, the GP notes that she has small pupils and normal respiratory rate and oxygen saturation. The patient wishes to remain at home for her care and end-of-life, and does not want to be hospitalized under any circumstances. What would be the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Stop the current syringe driver and prescribe alfentanil via syringe driver for her pain

      Explanation:

      Different Approaches to Managing a Palliative Care Patient’s Symptoms

      When managing a patient in palliative care, it is important to consider the best approach to managing their symptoms. Here are some different approaches and their potential outcomes:

      1. Prescribe alfentanil via syringe driver for pain relief: This is a good option for patients with renal failure or opiate toxicity problems.

      2. Advise the patient to take only paracetamol and NSAIDs for pain: This may not be effective for patients experiencing severe pain, and they may not be able to swallow safely.

      3. Admit the patient to hospital: This may not be in line with the patient’s wishes to remain at home during the final stages of their life.

      4. Continue the current regime and advise the family: This may not address the patient’s symptoms and could lead to unnecessary suffering.

      5. Reduce the dose of diamorphine and add haloperidol to the syringe driver: This may not be effective if the patient’s symptoms are due to a reversible cause.

      Overall, it is important to consider the patient’s individual needs and wishes when managing their symptoms in palliative care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      49.6
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  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss. Despite feeling well, he is worried about his ability to drive and grade his students' math assignments. He has no medical history but has a smoking history of 25 packs per year and does not drink alcohol. During the examination, drusen is observed and visual acuity is reduced. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: High-dose corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: High-dose beta-carotene and vitamins C and E

      Explanation:

      The use of high-dose corticosteroids is not recommended for the treatment of wet or dry AMD due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which are not effective in managing the disease. Additionally, these drugs can cause side effects such as cataracts and glaucoma. High-dose vitamin D and omegas 3 and 6 are also not associated with the treatment of dry AMD. Antioxidants such as beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc have been shown to slow the progression of dry AMD by approximately 25 percent. Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents are used to manage wet AMD, which is characterized by rapid onset and the growth of abnormal, leaky vessels in the subretinal space. The goal of intravitreal treatment is to slow the progression of the disease, but it is not indicated for the management of dry AMD.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.9
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with advanced HIV disease. What is involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with advanced HIV disease. What is involved in strategic planning with antiretroviral medications?

      Your Answer: Patients should start treatment after their CD4 count drops below 350 cells/ml

      Correct Answer: HIV patients should be started with ART at any CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting HIV Treatment Guidelines

      Debunking Common Misconceptions about HIV Treatment Guidelines

      There are several misconceptions about HIV treatment guidelines that need to be addressed. Firstly, it is not necessary to wait until a patient’s CD4 count drops below 350 cells/ml before starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). Both the World Health Organization (WHO) and the British HIV Association (BHIVA) recommend starting treatment at any CD4 count.

      Secondly, intravenous didanosine should not be used for the treatment of pregnant women. The WHO has warned against the use of didanosine and stavudine in pregnant women due to an increased risk of lactic acidosis. Women who are already taking ART and/or PCP prophylaxis before pregnancy should not discontinue their medication. If starting ART during pregnancy, potent combinations of three or more antiretroviral drugs are recommended, but this should be delayed until after the first trimester if possible.

      Thirdly, HIV treatment does not involve three nucleoside analogues. Instead, treatment involves a combination of three drugs, which includes two nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and one ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitor (PI/r), one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), or one integrase inhibitor (INI).

      Lastly, the use of zidovudine in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for needlestick injuries in healthcare workers does not completely remove the risk of seroconversion. While this treatment option has been shown to reduce the risk, it does not eliminate it entirely.

      In conclusion, it is important to stay up-to-date with current HIV treatment guidelines and to dispel any misconceptions that may exist. Starting ART at any CD4 count, avoiding certain medications during pregnancy, using a combination of three drugs, and understanding the limitations of PEP are all crucial components of effective HIV treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman comes to the clinic eight weeks after giving birth with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to the clinic eight weeks after giving birth with a painful, swollen, and red right breast. During the examination, there is fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast near the nipple areolar complex. The overlying skin is tender and red. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound guided needle aspiration followed by antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Post-Partum Breast Abscess in Breastfeeding Mothers

      Post-partum breast abscess is a common occurrence in breastfeeding mothers. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which enters through cracks in the nipple-areolar complex. The abscesses are usually located peripherally and can also occur during weaning due to breast engorgement or the child developing teeth. Early infections can be treated with antibiotics, but when pus forms, ultrasound-guided needle aspiration is the preferred treatment. Mammography is not recommended as it requires compression of the painful breast. Surgical incision and drainage are only necessary if the abscess is very loculated, fails to respond to repeated guided aspirations, or if the overlying skin is necrotic. It is important to seek medical attention promptly to prevent complications. For further information, refer to Dixon JM’s article on breast infection in the BMJ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      26.8
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  • Question 5 - A woman presents to the Emergency Department 45 days after giving birth by...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents to the Emergency Department 45 days after giving birth by Caesarean section. She complains of persistent vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 38.5 ºC, pulse 88 bpm and blood pressure 110/76.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retained products of conception

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Post-Caesarean Section Complications: Causes and Symptoms

      One common complication following a Caesarean section is endometritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the endometrial lining. This condition is usually caused by an infection and can lead to vaginal bleeding. Immediate treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications.

      Other post-Caesarean section complications that may cause fever include mastitis, wound infections, and haematomas. However, these conditions are not typically associated with prolonged vaginal bleeding.

      Retained products of conception are rare following a Caesarean section since the surgical cavity is thoroughly checked during the operation. On the other hand, wound infections and haematomas may cause fever but are not usually accompanied by prolonged vaginal bleeding.

      It is important to monitor any symptoms following a Caesarean section and seek medical attention if any complications arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.1
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?

      Your Answer: Aspirate 10 ml from the tube and observe the appearance of the tube aspirate

      Correct Answer: Chest radiograph

      Explanation:

      Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph

      Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.6
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  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with cholecystitis. During her stay,...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with cholecystitis. During her stay, her blood glucose levels remain consistently high. Her lab results reveal an HbA1c level of 68 mmol/mol. As her healthcare provider, you initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg immediate release. What is the recommended time interval before considering a dose increase?

      Your Answer: 15 days

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      Metformin dosage should be increased slowly, with a minimum of 1 week between each increase. The recommended starting dose for immediate-release metformin is 500 mg once daily for at least 1 week, followed by an increase to 500 mg twice daily for at least another week. This gradual increase is necessary to avoid exacerbating the common side effect of diarrhoea. Increasing the dosage within a day is not recommended as it can lead to more side effects. Waiting for several months before increasing the dosage is also not advisable. For modified-release preparations, the dosage should be increased gradually every 10-15 days. However, since the medication in this scenario is immediate-release, waiting for 1 week is the appropriate course of action.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.1
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the birth was uncomplicated, she suffers a tear which extends from the vaginal mucosa into the submucosal tissue, but not into the external anal sphincter. Which degree tear is this classed as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      – First degree: a tear that only affects the vaginal mucosa
      – Second degree: a tear that extends into the subcutaneous tissue
      – Third degree: a laceration that reaches the external anal sphincter
      – Fourth degree: a laceration that goes through the external anal sphincter and reaches the rectal mucosa

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

      Explanation:

      Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment

      When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.

      If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.

      It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration...

    Incorrect

    • Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration in a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma C peptide

      Explanation:

      The Role of C Peptide in Distinguishing Between Exogenous and Endogenous Insulin

      Plasma C peptide levels are useful in differentiating between the presence of exogenous insulin and excess endogenous insulin during hypoglycemia. If there is an excess of exogenous insulin, the C peptide level will be suppressed, but the insulin level will still be detectable or elevated. However, it is important to note that not all clinical laboratory assays can detect the new insulin analogues.

      C peptide also has other uses, such as checking for pancreatic insulin reserve. This information can help distinguish between type 1 diabetes, which is caused by autoimmune destruction of the pancreas, and type 2 diabetes, which is caused by insulin resistance or relative insulin insufficiency.

      Proinsulin is the storage form of insulin, and only a small amount enters systemic circulation. It is cleaved into insulin and a connecting (C) peptide, which are secreted in equal amounts. However, there is more measurable C peptide in circulation due to its longer half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the left groin and chronic lower back pain after falling in his garden. He is unable to walk. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. His pulse is 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure (BP) 140/80 mm Hg. Fracture of the left neck of the femur is identified on X-ray and treated.
      Routine laboratory results are below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum calcium concentration 2.1 mmol/l 2.15 – 2.6 mmol/l
      Serum phosphate concentration 0.8 mmol/l 0.8 – 1.4 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone level 60 pg/ml 11 – 54 pg/ml
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5 – 7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 μmol/l 60 – 110 μmol/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Vitamin D Deficiency, Hyperparathyroidism, and Multiple Myeloma

      Vitamin D deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, and multiple myeloma are conditions that can affect calcium and phosphate levels in the body. To diagnose these conditions, various tests are used.

      Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels are the best test to determine vitamin D status. Levels lower than 25 nmol/l indicate positive vitamin D deficiency. Treatment should commence if serum 25(OH)D levels are in the range of 25–50 nmol/l.

      Serum protein electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia.

      Ultrasonogram (USG) neck is used to assess parathyroid adenoma, which is associated with hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, serum PTH levels are very high with increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels.

      Urine Bence Jones Protein is positive in multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia, with impaired renal function.

      24-hour urinary calcium is elevated in hyperparathyroidism, type I renal tubular acidosis, vitamin D intoxication, and Bartter syndrome. However, it has no role in the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, these diagnostic tests can help healthcare professionals identify and treat these conditions, leading to improved patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 12 - A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and experiencing sudden emotional outbursts of laughter or tears. Upon examination, the doctor observes a spastic tongue, an exaggerated jaw jerk, normal gag reflex, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pseudobulbar Palsy: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that results from lesions in the corticobulbar pathways connecting the cortex to the brainstem. This article aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of pseudobulbar palsy, including its symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis.

      Symptoms of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Patients with pseudobulbar palsy may experience emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria, which can cause a husky or gravelly voice. On examination, patients may exhibit an exaggerated jaw jerk, weak muscles of mastication, a spastic immobile tongue, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs.

      Causes of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Pseudobulbar palsy can occur due to demyelination, such as in multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease, and bilateral cerebrovascular disease. Other causes include traumatic brain injury, brain tumors, and infections.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate pseudobulbar palsy from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a frontal lobe tumor can cause emotional lability and personality changes, but it would not explain the bilateral upper motor neuron signs and voice changes seen in pseudobulbar palsy. Bulbar palsy, on the other hand, is caused by lower motor neuron disturbance and presents with nasal speech and tongue fasciculations, absent gag reflex, and lower motor neuron signs. Cerebellar infarcts and Huntington’s disease can also present with speech and motor impairments, but they have distinct clinical features that differentiate them from pseudobulbar palsy.

      Conclusion
      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that can cause emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria. It is important to consider this diagnosis in patients presenting with these symptoms and to differentiate it from other neurological conditions that may have similar presentations. Early diagnosis and management can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omphalocele

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview

      Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.

      Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.

      Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.

      Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.

      Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed...

    Incorrect

    • At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T4/5

      Explanation:

      The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch

      The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of joint stiffness that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of joint stiffness that has been bothering him for the past month. The stiffness is at its worst in the early morning and improves with use. He has no medical history, but his family has a history of psoriasis and vitiligo. The patient smokes about ten cigarettes per day and recently recovered from a viral throat infection two days ago.

      During the examination, the doctor notices swelling in the patient's left knee and 1st and 2nd metatarsophalangeal joints of his right foot. The swelling is accompanied by tenderness and reduced range of active and passive movement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis may be diagnosed even before psoriatic skin lesions appear, especially if there is a positive family history of psoriasis.

      The correct answer is psoriatic arthritis, as the patient in the scenario presents with asymmetrical polyarthritis and >30 minutes of morning stiffness, which is a typical pattern of psoriatic arthritis. Additionally, the patient has a positive family history of psoriasis. In some cases, psoriatic arthritis can manifest before skin lesions, and a diagnosis can be made based on clinical patterns and family history.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is an incorrect answer because it typically affects the spine and small joints of the digits, whereas the patient’s pattern of arthritis is more consistent with psoriatic arthritis.

      Gout is also an incorrect answer because it usually affects only the small joints of the body, particularly the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. Patients with gout are typically older and have a history of poor diet and lack of physical activity, which is not the case for this patient. The positive family history of psoriasis also makes psoriatic arthritis more likely.

      Reactive arthritis is another incorrect answer because it usually presents with mono- or oligoarthritis, whereas the patient in the scenario has polyarthritis. Additionally, reactive arthritis is often preceded by a bacterial infection, such as gastroenteritis or a sexually transmitted infection, which is not the case for this patient. The recent viral illness and positive family history of psoriasis make psoriatic arthritis more likely.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
      What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants

      Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.

      Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

      Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A premature neonate is delivered via category II emergency caesarean section at 34+3...

    Incorrect

    • A premature neonate is delivered via category II emergency caesarean section at 34+3 weeks for fetal distress. The obstetrician notes the baby is delivered with the cord wrapped around its neck and appears floppy and 'blue'. The neonatal team immediately begins resuscitation as the initial APGAR score is 3. At 10 minutes, the score is 5 due to cyanosis, heart rate of 120 bpm, minimal response to stimulation, poor tone, slow and irregular respiratory effort with a respiratory rate of 12/min. What is the most appropriate management of this premature neonate to reduce hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic cooling

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury

      Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.

      The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.

      Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.

      Which of the following processes could explain this observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions

      The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:

      1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).

      2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.

      3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.

      4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.

      Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A screening test for a disease is performed on 1000 people over the...

    Incorrect

    • A screening test for a disease is performed on 1000 people over the age of 50. A total of 888 people do not have the disease. Of those with the disease, 100 had a positive screening test result. A total of 890 patients had a negative screening test result.
      What is the specificity of the screening test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 98.90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Values in Screening Test Results

      Screening tests are important in identifying potential health issues in individuals. However, it is important to understand the different values that come with screening test results. One of these values is specificity, which identifies the percentage of patients correctly identified as not having the condition. Sensitivity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value, and disease specificity are also important values to consider. By placing the numbers into a table and using specific equations, these values can be calculated and used to better understand screening test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.

      Investigations showed:

      - Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
      - White cell Count 11 ×109/L (3.5-10)
      - Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-450)
      - ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)

      Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis Nodosa

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.

      One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow to the face with a baseball bat. During the examination, it was observed that there is blood in the anterior chamber of his left eye. What is the primary risk associated with the presence of blood in the anterior chamber?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Blunt trauma to the eye that results in hyphema can lead to increased intraocular pressure, which is a high-risk situation for the patient.

      The blockage of aqueous humour drainage caused by the presence of blood can result in glaucoma, which is a serious complication that requires close monitoring of intraocular pressure. While cataracts and ectopia lentis can be associated with blunt trauma, they are not typically associated with hyphema. Endophthalmitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by infection, post-surgery, or penetrating ocular trauma.

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema

      Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.

      To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A concerned father brings his 14-year-old daughter to see you because he has...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned father brings his 14-year-old daughter to see you because he has noticed in the last three months she is increasingly irritable, aggressive and withdrawn. She will refuse to go to school, misses her netball and guitar classes and does not go out with her friends. The symptoms seem to last for a couple of weeks and then abruptly resolve. They recommence a few days later. This has severely impacted on her education and function. The patient denies any physical symptoms, loss of weight or change in appetite. She has regular bowel movements. Her observations are normal, and examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms. PMS is a condition that affects the majority of women in reproductive age, with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolving with menstruation. The exact causes of PMS and PMDD are not yet identified, but hormonal effects on neurotransmitters and psychological and environmental factors may play a role.

      To diagnose PMS or PMDD, organic causes must be excluded through a full history, examination, and blood tests. A prospective diary of symptoms over 2-3 menstrual cycles can also aid in diagnosis. Symptoms must be present in the luteal phase and improve or resolve with menstruation.

      Differential diagnosis for PMDD includes depression, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism. Depression symptoms are continuous and not subject to regular cycling, while hypothyroidism symptoms are persistent and not cyclical. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms mimicking mania and psychosis.

      Mild PMS does not interfere with daily activities or social and professional life, while moderate and severe PMS can impact a woman’s ability to carry out activities. PMDD is a severe form of PMS characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the sterile supplies group at her local hospital. Over the past few months, she has noticed increasing shortness of breath with cough and wheeze during the course of a working week, but improves when she takes a week off on holiday. On examination at the general practitioner’s surgery, after a few weeks off, her chest is clear.
      Peak flow diary:
      Monday p.m 460 l/min (85% predicted)
      Tuesday p.m 440 l/min
      Wednesday p.m 400 l/min
      Thursday p.m 370 l/min
      Friday p.m 350 l/min
      Saturday a.m 420 l/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Redeployment to another role if possible

      Explanation:

      Managing Occupational Asthma: Redeployment and Avoiding Suboptimal Treatment Options

      Based on the evidence from the patient’s peak flow diary, it is likely that they are suffering from occupational asthma. This could be due to a number of agents, such as glutaraldehyde used in hospital sterilisation units. The best course of action would be to redeploy the patient to another role, if possible, and monitor their peak flows at work. Starting medical management for asthma would not be the optimal choice in this case. Other causes of occupational asthma include isocyanates, metals, animal antigens, plant products, acid anhydrides, biological enzymes, and wood dusts. While salbutamol inhaler may provide temporary relief, it is not a long-term solution. Inhaled steroids like beclomethasone or fluticasone/salmeterol may help manage symptoms, but since the cause has been identified, they would not be the most appropriate course of action. A 7-day course of oral prednisolone would only provide temporary relief and is not a realistic long-term treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 25 - As a doctor working on the paediatric ward, you encounter a 5-year-old patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor working on the paediatric ward, you encounter a 5-year-old patient who has become unresponsive. You call for assistance from another doctor and proceed to open the patient's airway, but the child is not breathing. After giving five rescue breaths, the other doctor checks for a femoral pulse, which is not present. You decide to initiate CPR while waiting for further help to arrive.

      What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths and the recommended rate of chest compressions for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest compressions rate of 100-120/min, ratio of 15:2

      Explanation:

      For both infants and children, the correct rate for chest compressions during paediatric BLS is 100-120/min. A ratio of 15:2 should be used when there are two or more rescuers, while a ratio of 30:2 is used for lay rescuers. It is important to avoid compressions that are too fast, as rates of 120-150/min do not allow enough time for blood to return to the ventricles. Using only one hand, the pressure should be reduced, but the compression rate should remain the same. Rates of 80-100/min are incorrect as they do not provide sufficient blood flow to vital organs.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia

      Explanation:

      During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.

      Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period

      Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.

      There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.

      In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man who works for a pest control company presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man who works for a pest control company presents to the Emergency Department with profuse diarrhoea, vomiting and hypersalivation. On examination, you observe bilateral constriction of the pupils, excess lacrimation, salivation and muscle fasciculations. His heart rate is 34 bpm and his blood pressure is 86/52 mmHg. He is promptly transferred to the intensive care unit for suspected acute organophosphate poisoning. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Organophosphate Poisoning: Atropine Therapy

      Organophosphate poisoning is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The main therapeutic option for this condition is IV atropine therapy. Atropine works by blocking the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, which reverses the muscarinic effect seen in toxicity. This effect includes symptoms such as diarrhoea, miosis, bradycardia, bronchorrhoea, emesis, and hypotension.

      While the patient may be cardiovascularly unstable, boluses of 0.9% saline are unlikely to benefit the patient significantly. The definitive treatment is with atropine and oximes. Benzodiazepines are used in the treatment of seizures, which are common in severe organophosphate poisoning. However, seizures are not an active issue in this patient, so other therapeutic agents should be prioritised.

      Pralidoxime chloride is an oxime that works to reactivate the inhibited acetylcholinesterase. While it has a role in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning, it should not take priority over atropine therapy. Atropine is essential to reverse the muscarinic effects associated with toxicity, including bradycardia, which in this case is causing haemodynamic instability.

      Tropicamide is a mydriatic medication that may temporarily reverse the miosis seen within this case. However, it does not treat the underlying cause. Therefore, atropine therapy remains the primary treatment option for organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 74-year-old patient has been admitted for cholecystectomy. While you are writing up...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old patient has been admitted for cholecystectomy. While you are writing up her drug chart, the patient informs the SHO that she is on digoxin for a heart condition.
      With regard to digoxin, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual disturbance is a feature of digoxin toxicity

      Explanation:

      Facts about Digoxin: Myths and Truths

      Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions such as atrial fibrillation and heart failure. However, there are several misconceptions about this drug that need to be clarified. Here are some facts about digoxin:

      Visual Disturbance is a Feature of Digoxin Toxicity: One of the side effects of digoxin toxicity is a yellow visual disturbance. This can be caused by hypokalaemia and hypercalcaemia.

      Digoxin is Not the Treatment of Choice for Ventricular Fibrillation: Contrary to popular belief, digoxin is not the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation. Defibrillation is the preferred treatment.

      Digoxin Does Not Cardiovert Atrial Fibrillation: While digoxin can control the rate of atrial fibrillation by slowing AV conduction, it does not commonly cardiovert AF. Intravenous digoxin may be used to cardiovert some cases of AF, but it is not the first-line treatment.

      Hyperkalaemia Potentiates Digoxin Toxicity: High levels of potassium in the blood can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

      Digoxin is Excreted Unchanged by the Kidneys: Digoxin is not metabolised by the liver. Instead, it is excreted unchanged by the kidneys.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about digoxin to ensure safe and effective use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her mother, reporting an increase...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her mother, reporting an increase in abdominal size and no menstrual periods for the past three months. Despite denying any sexual activity, you suspect she may be pregnant. What is the specific measurement of a urinary pregnancy test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-HCG

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hormone Assays in Confirming Pregnancy

      Beta-HCG is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. There are highly sensitive assays available to detect the presence of beta-HCG, which can confirm pregnancy. In fact, some manufacturers of pregnancy tests claim that their tests are more accurate than ultrasound dating in determining gestation during the early stages of pregnancy.

      While alpha-fetoprotein may also be elevated in pregnancy, particularly in cases of neural tube defects, it is not the primary focus of pregnancy testing. Hormone assays for oestrogen, progesterone, or testosterone levels are not reliable methods for confirming pregnancy. Therefore, beta-HCG remains the most reliable hormone to test for when confirming pregnancy.

      It is important to note that while hormone assays can confirm pregnancy, they cannot determine the viability of the pregnancy or the presence of any complications. Ultrasound imaging and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to assess the health of the pregnancy and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed