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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain and obstructive jaundice. Upon ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient complains of abdominal pain and obstructive jaundice. Upon ultrasound examination, gallstones are detected. Where is the probable location of the gallstones that is causing the obstructive jaundice?

      Your Answer: In the common bile duct

      Explanation:

      The Biliary Tract and Obstructive Jaundice

      The biliary tract is responsible for the production, storage, and transportation of bile in the body. Bile is produced by hepatocytes in the liver and flows into bile canaliculi, which then join to form interlobular biliary ducts and bile ducts. The right and left hepatic ducts leave each lobe of the liver and join to form the common hepatic duct. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is transported to the common bile duct through the cystic duct. The common bile duct opens into the duodenum, joined by the pancreatic duct through a common channel at the ampulla of Vater. Obstruction of bile flow at any point within the biliary tract distal to the bile canaliculi can lead to obstructive jaundice. This condition is characterized by jaundice of skin and mucous membranes, darker urine, pale stool, and pruritus. Common causes of obstruction include gallstones, cholangiocarcinoma, and pancreatic cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.8
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  • Question 2 - John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing stiffness in his fingers while playing guitar. He also notices that his fingers ache more than usual during and after playing. John used to work as a computer programmer and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His body mass index is 30 kg/m². What radiological findings are most indicative of John's condition?

      Your Answer: 'Pencil in cup appearance'

      Correct Answer: Osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) and base of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by the involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, with the presence of osteophytes at the base of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joints being a typical finding. Lytic bone lesions are unlikely to be the cause of this presentation, as they are more commonly associated with metastasis or osteomyelitis. While rheumatoid arthritis can also involve the proximal interphalangeal joints and cause joint effusions, this woman’s age, history, and symptoms suggest that osteoarthritis is more likely. The pencil in cup appearance seen in psoriatic arthritis is not present in this case, as the patient does not report any skin lesions. Although most cases of osteoarthritis are asymptomatic, the patient’s symptoms suggest that some radiological changes have occurred.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40.7
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  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer: Pain in the mid foot, with bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      18.4
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man has been admitted to hospital for pain management. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been admitted to hospital for pain management. The patient has metastatic lung cancer and is undergoing palliative radiotherapy. He received his last dose of analgesia 3 hours ago. On inspection, the patient is obtunded and has constricted pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.
      Which analgesia is the patient most likely to have received to cause this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a strong synthetic opioid pain reliever that affects the brain’s respiratory and breathing centers. Overdose symptoms, known as the opiate triad, include pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression. Combining opioids with alcohol or sedatives increases the risk of respiratory depression and death. Naloxone can reverse the effects of an opiate overdose if administered promptly. Phenobarbital, an older anti-epileptic drug, can cause sedation and dilated pupils but is not used to treat lung cancer pain. Amitriptyline can cause sedation, but pupils will be dilated. Diazepam, an anxiolytic, can cause sedation and dilated pupils. Haloperidol, commonly used for end-of-life nausea, may cause pupil constriction but is less likely to cause respiratory depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-years-old-man presents to the pulmonology clinic with a recent onset of ptosis...

    Correct

    • A 62-years-old-man presents to the pulmonology clinic with a recent onset of ptosis in his right upper lid. He has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past three months, accompanied by streaks of blood. Upon radiological examination, an opacification is observed in the upper right part of his chest. The patient appears cachexic and unwell, with a BMI of 18 kg/m² and a fasting blood sugar level of 8.3 mmol/L. What other clinical findings may be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right upper limb pain

      Explanation:

      Patients with Pancoast tumours may experience shoulder pain and upper limb neurological signs, in addition to Horner’s syndrome, due to the tumour proximity to the brachial plexus. Therefore, the correct answer is right upper limb pain. Kussmaul breathing is an incorrect option as it is associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not present in this case. Lupus pernio is also an incorrect answer as it is more commonly seen in sarcoidosis rather than lung cancer. Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome is another incorrect option as it is a paraneoplastic syndrome typically associated with neuroblastoma in children.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      32.4
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in her right medial thigh that has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in her right medial thigh that has been bothering her for the past week. She reports no alterations in her bowel movements. During the physical examination, you observe a lump the size of a grape located below and to the right of the pubic tubercle, which is challenging to reduce. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
      On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
      Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?

      Your Answer: Splenic sinusoid

      Explanation:

      The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries

      The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.

      One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.

      The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.

      The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.

      Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.4
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following features is least likely to be observed in Henoch-Schonlein...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least likely to be observed in Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

      Your Answer: Abdominal pain

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      25.7
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  • Question 9 - During the ward round you notice that a 75-year-old man, who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • During the ward round you notice that a 75-year-old man, who was admitted last night with community acquired pneumonia, is not on any prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism. His background history is significant for hypertension, chronic kidney disease stage 4 and one previous deep venous thrombosis 10 years ago.

      On his admission bloods his creatinine clearance is 20 mL/min. His electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm.

      What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his need for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: She should be prescribed only mechanical prophylaxis in the form of stockings

      Correct Answer: She should be prescribed unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive episode on a background of known depression presents with occasional suicidal thoughts and is finding it difficult to cope with some daily activities despite use of psychological therapies and regular consultation with the GP. You agree to trial use of an antidepressant.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for a patient in their 60s?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Depression: Understanding Antidepressants

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While psychological interventions are the first line of treatment, drug therapy may be necessary in some cases. This article discusses the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression.

      Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is the first line choice for treating depression. It is well-tolerated and effective in improving depression symptoms. However, it should be used in conjunction with psychological therapies.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has largely been replaced by SSRIs due to its toxicity in overdose.

      Paroxetine is also an SSRI, but it is only licensed for treating major depressive episodes, not moderate ones.

      Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is not recommended for treating depression due to issues with dependence and addiction.

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that is primarily used for Parkinson’s disease but can be used for treatment-resistant depression under the guidance of a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression is crucial in providing effective care for patients. Primary care providers should work closely with mental health professionals to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
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