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  • Question 1 - A patient presents to the GP for her annual diabetes check. After discussing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the GP for her annual diabetes check. After discussing her HbA1c results, routine observations are taken as the patient reports experiencing a racing heart lately. She is 65 years old.
      Temperature: 36.4ºC
      Heart rate: 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 12bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on air
      Blood pressure: 135/96 mmHg

      The patient's regular medications include metformin, dapagliflozin, ramipril, nifedipine, and indapamide. Which medication is likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine can lead to reflex tachycardia due to its peripheral vasodilation effects. This is likely the cause of the patient’s isolated tachycardia and sensation of a pounding heart.

      Dapagliflozin, on the other hand, is not the likely culprit as it is used to treat type 2 diabetes and can cause urinary tract infections and Fournier’s gangrene.

      Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that can cause dehydration and gout, while metformin, a first-line drug for type 2 diabetes, can cause gastrointestinal upset and lactic acidosis.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a one-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a one-month history of bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain. Polymyalgia rheumatica is diagnosed and the patient is prescribed a daily dose of 15 mg oral prednisolone. Considering the patient's likelihood of taking prednisolone for more than 3 months, what is the best course of action to address her heightened risk of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Offer DEXA scan and prescribe alendronate if patient's t-score is less than -1

      Correct Answer: Immediate co-prescription of alendronate

      Explanation:

      According to the Royal College of Physicians of London’s guidance on glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis, patients who are going to take long-term steroids should receive bone protection immediately. This involves prescribing a prophylactic bisphosphonate, such as alendronate, to any patient who will likely continue taking corticosteroids for at least 3 months. Therefore, the correct next step in management would be to immediately co-prescribe alendronate, rather than giving smoking cessation advice or ordering a DEXA scan. While denosumab is an option, bisphosphonates are typically the first line of defense for osteoporosis prophylaxis and management. Delaying the prescription of alendronate would be incorrect, as bone protection is necessary right away. It’s important to note that a t score of -1.5 is the standard cutoff for starting bone protection treatment, not -1 as stated in the question.

      Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a sodium level of 130. He is not experiencing any symptoms, and his heart failure and depression are under control. He has slight pitting pedal oedema. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram.
      What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyponatraemia: Considerations and Options

      Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.

      In cases where hyponatraemia is caused by medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it may be necessary to adjust or discontinue the medication. However, abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, so patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.

      It is also important to consider other factors that may contribute to hyponatraemia, such as heart failure or hypokalaemia. However, administering intravenous saline or increasing salt intake may not be appropriate in all cases and could worsen underlying conditions.

      Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires careful consideration of the underlying cause and potential treatment options to avoid complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
      Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: She is likely to respond to intravenous (iv) T3 replacement

      Correct Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
      Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?

      Your Answer: Leukoplakia

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions

      There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.

      Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.

      Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.

      Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What distinguishes graded potentials from action potentials? ...

    Incorrect

    • What distinguishes graded potentials from action potentials?

      Your Answer: Action potentials involve voltage-gated sodium channels, while graded potentials involve voltage-gated calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Graded potentials are localised, while action potentials conduct across the entire axon

      Explanation:

      Graded Potentials vs. Action Potentials

      Graded potentials are changes in the transmembrane potential that occur mainly in the dendrites and soma of a neuron. These changes do not cause significant depolarization to spread far from the area surrounding the site of stimulation. Graded potentials may or may not lead to an action potential, depending on the magnitude of depolarization. On the other hand, action potentials exhibit a refractory phase and are not subject to either temporal or spatial summation.

      Graded potentials involve chemical, mechanical, or light-gated channels that allow for an influx of sodium ions into the cytosol. In contrast, action potentials involve only voltage-gated ion channels, specifically sodium and potassium. Graded potentials typically last from a few milliseconds to even minutes, while action potential duration ranges between 0.5 – 2 milliseconds.

      In summary, graded and action potentials are two distinct phenomena. Graded potentials are subject to modulation by both temporal and spatial summation, while action potentials are not. Graded potentials involve different types of ion channels compared to action potentials. the differences between these two types of potentials is crucial in the complex processes that occur in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      101.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She has a history of occasional frontal headaches but no significant past medical history. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 148/76 mmHg. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5, +1 protein, 0 nitrates, 0 leucocytes, and 0 blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Chronic hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis in this case is chronic hypertension. It is unlikely that the patient has developed any pregnancy-related causes of hypertension at only 16 weeks gestation. The small amount of protein in her urine suggests that she may have had hypertension for some time. The patient’s intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and do not indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension typically occur after 20 weeks gestation, with pre-eclampsia being associated with significant proteinuria and gestational hypertension without. Nephrotic syndrome would typically present with a larger degree of proteinuria.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer: Macrognathia

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 48 hours after pre-labor spontaneous rupture of membranes. Following observation, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged. The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but over the past 24 hours, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable during feeding and frequently pulls away. The mother also reports an unusual grunting sound after the baby exhales. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
      What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Inability to flex the wrist

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures

      Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.

      3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.

      While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the...

    Incorrect

    • After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
      With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The left lung has three lobes

      Correct Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply

      Explanation:

      Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:

      – The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
      – The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
      – Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
      – The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.

      Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the morning ward round, she complains of severe abdominal pain, refractory to IV paracetamol, which the patient is currently prescribed. The consultant examines the patient and feels that the pain is due to the procedure and that there are no signs of any acute complications. The patient reports that she is allergic to morphine. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her pain?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Common Pain Medications and Their Uses

      Oxycodone is a potent synthetic opioid used for managing severe pain, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate morphine. Codeine phosphate, on the other hand, is a weak opioid primarily used for mild to moderate pain and would not be suitable for severe pain management. Gabapentin is indicated for neuropathic pain and is not recommended for acute pain management, such as post-operative pain. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for musculoskeletal pain and biliary/renal colic, but it is a weak analgesic and not effective for severe pain. Tramadol is a weak opioid prescribed for moderate pain. Understanding the differences between these medications can help healthcare providers choose the appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his...

    Correct

    • A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?

      Your Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic

      Explanation:

      A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.

      Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It

      Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.

      During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.

      It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of vision problems that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of vision problems that have persisted for the past month. He reports difficulty reading words in books and blurry vision. The patient's visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes upon examination. He currently takes amlodipine and ramipril for hypertension and smokes 30 cigarettes per day. The patient is concerned about losing his vision, as his father experienced a similar issue.

      During fundoscopy, amber material deposits are observed under the retinal pigment epithelium in both eyes, without neovascularisation present. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Slit lamp examination of the anterior chamber

      Correct Answer: Test with Amsler grid

      Explanation:

      The Amsler grid test is a useful tool for assessing patients suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD) as it checks for distortion of line perception. In this case, the patient has dry AMD, which is confirmed by the presence of drusen on fundoscopy. Patients with AMD typically see distorted lines instead of straight ones. Fluorescein angiography would not be appropriate for this patient as it assesses the vascular supply to the retina and choroid, which is not relevant in this case. Measuring intraocular pressure is also not useful in diagnosing AMD as it is associated with glaucoma. Similarly, a slit lamp examination of the anterior chamber is not relevant in diagnosing AMD as it is used to diagnose other eye conditions such as injuries, corneal infections, or cataracts.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of...

    Correct

    • What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia?

      Your Answer: Eversion

      Explanation:

      Three Sequential Injuries Caused by Pronated Foot and Abducting Force

      The injury mechanism that occurs when a pronated foot experiences an abducting force on the talus can result in up to three sequential injuries. The first injury is a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus, which is caused by a tense deltoid ligament. The second injury occurs when the abducting talus stresses the tibiofibular syndesmosis, resulting in a tear of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. Finally, continued abduction of the talus can lead to an oblique fracture of the distal fibula.

      This sequence of injuries can be quite serious and may require medical attention. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with a pronated foot and to take steps to prevent injury. This may include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics or other supportive devices, and avoiding activities that put excessive stress on the foot and ankle. By taking these precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of experiencing these types of injuries and maintain their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - As an FY1 on a paediatric ward, you are faced with a 13-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY1 on a paediatric ward, you are faced with a 13-year-old female patient who is suffering from anorexia and is refusing to be tube fed. After assessing her capacity, you have determined that she has the ability to refuse. However, her parents are in disagreement with her decision. What steps do you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Section her under section 2 of the Mental Health Act

      Correct Answer: Inform her that as she is under 16 she cannot refuse treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the family law reform act of 1969, individuals who are 16 years or older have the right to provide consent for treatment. However, if they are under 18 years of age, they cannot refuse treatment unless one parent provides consent, even if the other parent disagrees. It would not be suitable to seek guidance from the courts at this point.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old primary teacher is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of oestrogen receptor...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old primary teacher is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of oestrogen receptor (ER)-positive breast cancer. What is a frequently encountered adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Hot flashes

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Tamoxifen Therapy

      Tamoxifen is a medication used in the prevention and treatment of breast cancer. As a selective ER modulator, it has both oestrogenic and anti-oestrogenic actions depending on the target tissue. While it is effective in its intended use, tamoxifen therapy can also cause side-effects.

      One of the most common side-effects of tamoxifen therapy is hot flashes and sweats. Other side-effects include changes in menstrual patterns, loss of sex drive, nausea, visual problems, muscle ache, and fatigue. However, hirsutism (abnormal or excessive hair growth) is not a commonly occurring side-effect of tamoxifen. Thinning of the hair may occur, but this usually resolves on cessation of treatment.

      Contrary to popular belief, weight gain and not weight loss is a commonly associated side-effect of tamoxifen treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypercoagulability and thromboembolic events with tamoxifen therapy, as opposed to bleeding. Haematuria (blood in urine) is not commonly associated with the use of tamoxifen.

      In conclusion, while tamoxifen is an effective medication for the prevention and treatment of breast cancer, it is important to be aware of its potential side-effects. Patients should discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider and report any unusual symptoms experienced during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      20
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches of skin on his antecubital fossae, lateral thighs, and popliteal fossae. The skin on his right thigh is weeping and inflamed. He reports feeling fatigued and wonders if he has had a fever. His vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your examination, you diagnose him with moderately severe eczema.
      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

      Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of infected eczema/cellulitis with an erythematosus, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh.

      The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15-20 minutes for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7-14 days and continue until 48 hours after the eczematous patches have cleared.

      Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had severe itching for three weeks and presents to your clinic with abnormal liver function tests and a positive anti-TPO antibody?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases and Hepatic Disorders: A Comparison of Symptoms and Diagnostic Findings

      Primary biliary cholangitis is characterized by severe itching, mild jaundice, and elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive, and LDL and TG may be mildly elevated. Patients may also exhibit microcytic anemia and elevated anti-TPO levels, as seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. In contrast, primary sclerosing cholangitis affects men and is associated with colitis due to inflammatory bowel disease. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is often negative, and p-ANCA is often positive. Addison’s disease is characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia, and may coexist with other autoimmune diseases. Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by elevated levels of ANA, anti-smooth muscle antibody, anti-mitochondrial antibody, and anti-LKM antibody, with normal or slightly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Chronic viral hepatitis is indicated by elevated levels of HBs antigen and anti-HBC antibody, with anti-HBs antibody indicating a history of prior infection or vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of joint pains. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of joint pains. He reports experiencing pain in his hips and legs, but his primary concern is his back pain. He notes that he feels very stiff in the morning, but this improves with exercise. The GP is contemplating conducting tests for ankylosing spondylitis. What characteristic would provide the strongest evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Positive HLA-B27

      Correct Answer: Sacro-ilitis on pelvic x-ray

      Explanation:

      The presence of sacro-ilitis on a pelvic X-ray is the most supportive factor for diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
      What is the most urgent management option?

      Your Answer: Scrotal exploration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.

      During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      9.6
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  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a lump in his testicle. Upon examination, the mass is found to be painless, irregularly surfaced, hard, and about 2 cm in size. It does not transilluminate. What is the probable cause of the testicular lump?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the age of the patient is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are typically found in individuals aged 20-30, while seminomas are more common in those aged 30-50. Gonadal teratomas are tumours that can be benign or malignant and affect the gonads, specifically the ovaries in women and the testicles in men. They are predominantly young tumours that affect children and adolescents.

      In summary, the identification and differentiation of tumours depend on various factors, including the lump’s characteristics and the patient’s age. these factors is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging revealed multiple retroperitoneal lymph nodes. She was diagnosed with intestinal tuberculosis and received a full drug regimen for six months. However, after completion of treatment, her symptoms remain. She presents to us with a body weight of 38 kg. There is angular stomatitis and diffuse loss of hair. She looks tanned. Repeat abdominal imaging reveals persistence of the lymph nodes. Her son, who accompanied her, complains that his mother is becoming listless and she has even given up her favourite hobby of Sudoku. She also has a few involuntary movements of her face, such as chewing.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Huntington’s chorea

      Correct Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Explanation:

      Whipple’s Disease: A Multisystem Disorder with Malabsorption and Cognitive Decline

      This patient presents with iron deficiency, abdominal lymphadenopathy, hyperpigmentation, and cognitive decline. Despite treatment for tuberculosis, there has been no improvement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Whipple’s disease, a multisystem disorder caused by infection with Tropheryma whipplei. Malabsorption with abdominal lymphadenopathy is a common manifestation, and extraintestinal symptoms can include cognitive decline with facial involuntary movements, arthritis, hyperpigmentation, retinitis, and endocarditis. HIV dementia, prion disease, Huntington’s chorea, and coeliac disease are all ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and lack of risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus is larger than expected for the gestational age. She has pre-existing type 2 diabetes and is taking medication to manage her blood glucose levels. She wants to know which medication is safe to take while breastfeeding.

      Which of the following medications can she continue taking?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking sulfonylureas (such as gliclazide) as there is a potential risk of causing hypoglycemia in newborns. Similarly, exenatide, liraglutide, and sitagliptin should also be avoided during breastfeeding. However, it is safe to use metformin while breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the main factor that motivates inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main factor that motivates inspiration?

      Your Answer: Upward movement of the diaphragm

      Correct Answer: Decreased intrapulmonary pressure

      Explanation:

      The Mechanics of Breathing

      Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles in the thorax and abdomen. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and up. This increases the volume of the thorax, which in turn reduces the pressure inside the lungs. As a result, air is drawn into the lungs from the atmosphere.

      In addition to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, there are other muscles involved in breathing. The scalene muscles, for example, are accessory muscles that contract when extra effort is needed to inhale. These muscles are often used by people with respiratory conditions such as asthma.

      Other accessory muscles of respiration include the intercostals and the abdominal muscles. These muscles help to increase the volume of the thorax during inhalation and to decrease it during exhalation.

      During expiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribs to move downward and inward. This reduces the volume of the thorax and increases the pressure inside the lungs, forcing air out of the body. Expiration is usually a passive process, meaning that it does not require much effort from the muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following a road traffic collision. On admission, he has a GCS score of 10 and a primary survey reveals asymmetric pupils, an open right forearm fracture, absent breath sounds on the right side, extensive RUQ pain, a painful abdomen, and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. When prioritizing intervention and stabilization of the patient, which injury should be given priority?

      Your Answer: Absent breath sounds on the right side

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Management in a Trauma Patient: An ABCDE Approach

      When managing a trauma patient, it is important to prioritize interventions based on the severity of their injuries. Using an ABCDE approach, we can assess and address each issue in order of priority.

      In the case of absent breath sounds on the right side, the priority would be to assess for a potential tension pneumothorax and treat it with needle decompression and chest drain insertion if necessary. Asymmetric pupils suggest an intracranial pathology, which would require confirmation via a CT head, but addressing the potential tension pneumothorax would still take priority.

      RUQ pain and abdominal tenderness would fall under ‘E’, but if there is suspicion of abdominal bleeding, then this would be elevated into the ‘C’ category. Regardless, addressing the breathing abnormality would be the priority here.

      An open forearm fracture would also fall under ‘E’, with the breathing issue needing to be addressed beforehand.

      Finally, the underlying hypotension, potentially caused by abdominal bleeding, falls under ‘C’, and therefore the breathing abnormality should be prioritized.

      In summary, using an ABCDE approach allows for a systematic and prioritized management of trauma patients, ensuring that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      30.7
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  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
      Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
      Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma

      Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.

      In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.

      Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.

      Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      74
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?

      Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and fresh-frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing facial muscle control issues and difficulty speaking after...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing facial muscle control issues and difficulty speaking after receiving an intravenous injection of an antiemetic 3 hours ago. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy and is suffering from nausea. During your examination, you notice that her eyes are deviated upwards and outwards, and she is unable to make direct eye contact with you while making unusual facial expressions.
      Which of the following antiemetic medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications: Extrapyramidal Side-Effects

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPS) are a group of movement disorders that can occur as a result of certain medications. Here, we compare four medications and their potential to cause EPS.

      Metoclopramide is known to induce EPS, such as acute dystonia. Symptoms can include oculogyric crisis and buccolingual crisis. Treatment for acute dystonia is benztropine or procyclidine.

      Ondansetron has been associated with involuntary movement disorders, but the pharmacological mechanism is unknown.

      Dexamethasone is not known to cause EPS.

      Megestrol is a progestational agent used to treat certain hormone-dependent neoplasms and is not associated with EPS.

      Trazodone is used to treat anxiety and depression and is not an antiemetic or associated with EPS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - Which cell in the lung tissue is responsible for producing surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell in the lung tissue is responsible for producing surfactant?

      Your Answer: Goblet cell

      Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      The Roles of Different Lung Cells

      The lungs are composed of various types of cells that perform different functions. Type 2 pneumocytes produce surfactant, which is essential for preventing the collapse of air-filled alveoli. Alveolar macrophages, on the other hand, are responsible for recognizing and destroying pathogens that enter the lungs. Endothelial cells have diverse functions depending on their location, while goblet cells produce mucous in the lungs. Finally, type 1 pneumocytes are involved in gas exchange in the alveoli.

      In summary, the lungs are a complex organ composed of different types of cells that work together to ensure proper respiratory function. Each cell type has a specific role, from producing surfactant to recognizing and destroying pathogens. the functions of these cells is crucial in maintaining healthy lungs and preventing respiratory diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Breast (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed