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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of central abdominal pain, extreme thirst and polyuria. She has no past medical history but her mother and sister both have diabetes. She is noted to be breathing heavily with breath that smells of acetone. An urgent set of investigations is taken.
Which of the following test results are most likely in this patient?
Select the SINGLE most likely results from the list below.
Your Answer: pH 7.21, partial pressure of pCO2 2.1 kPa, partial pressure of pO211.2 kPa, Na+ 131 mmol/l, K+ 3.1 mmol/l, HCO3 12 mmol/l, glucose 31 mmol/l, ketones 4.2 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: Distinguishing Diabetic Ketoacidosis from Other Conditions
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent treatment. It can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes mellitus (DM) or be the first presentation of type I DM. To diagnose DKA, the Joint British Diabetes Societies have established specific criteria, including a blood glucose of more than 11 mmol/l or known DM, a venous pH of less than 7.3 and/or a serum bicarbonate of less than 15 mmol/l, and ketonaemia of more than 3 mmol/l or ketonuria 2+ on dipstick.
When interpreting blood test results, it is important to distinguish DKA from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a metabolic acidosis may indicate DKA, but it would also be present in other conditions. In DKA, you would expect a combination of high blood glucose, low pH and serum bicarbonate, and high ketone levels.
Normal blood test results would rule out DKA, but hyperkalaemia may be present despite low total body potassium levels. Potassium levels may need to be monitored and adjusted during treatment. Respiratory alkalosis, indicated by low pCO2 and high pH, would suggest hyperventilation rather than DKA.
In summary, interpreting blood test results is crucial in diagnosing and distinguishing DKA from other conditions. Understanding the specific criteria for DKA diagnosis and recognizing the patterns of abnormal results can help healthcare professionals provide timely and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute confusion. She arrives unaccompanied and is unable to provide any information about her medical history. Upon examination, she appears overweight and has non-pitting edema in her eyes and legs. Additionally, she has dry skin and coarse hair. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 50 beats/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, temperature of 30°C, and oxygen saturation of 90% on air. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myxoedema coma
Explanation:Understanding Myxoedema Coma
Myxoedema coma is a serious medical condition that can lead to confusion and hypothermia. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The treatment for myxoedema coma includes IV thyroid replacement, IV fluid, IV corticosteroids (until the possibility of coexisting adrenal insufficiency has been excluded), electrolyte imbalance correction, and sometimes rewarming.
In simpler terms, myxoedema coma is a condition that can cause confusion and low body temperature. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment. The treatment involves giving medications through an IV, correcting any imbalances in the body’s fluids and electrolytes, and sometimes warming the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent
When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last four months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
What is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer: Genetic study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Various Medical Conditions
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome: A genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best diagnostic test for patients with new-onset diabetes, diarrhea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who have a family history of renal calculi at a young age. This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, with the parathyroid gland being the most common gland affected. Enteropancreatic tumors are the second most common, with gastrinoma and insulinoma being the two most common tumors. Glucagonoma can also occur, but rarely. Plasma glucagon and ghrelin levels are elevated in these cases.
Giardiasis: A blood test for Giardia antigen is recommended for patients with watery, sometimes foul-smelling, diarrhea that may alternate with soft, greasy stools, fatigue or malaise, abdominal cramps and bloating, gas or flatulence, nausea, and weight loss. Tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia, but if symptoms persist, a blood test for Giardia antigen can confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetes: A C-peptide assay can help distinguish type I diabetes from type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) by measuring how much of their own natural insulin a person is producing. This is useful if a patient receives insulin injections. The C-peptide assay will help clarify the cause of diabetes, but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease.
Colonoscopy: Colonoscopy is not needed for the occasional diarrhea at present.
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Protein C measurement will not help in the diagnosis of DVT. DVT occurs as a rare complication of glucagonoma, and treatment for glucagonoma includes octreotide, surgery, and streptozotocin (rarely).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and lethargy. His mother informs you he first developed 'flu-like symptoms' around four days ago. The patient has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. He is on a basal-bolus regimen but has not been taking his insulin regularly since he became unwell.
On examination, he is confused and is hyperventilating. His blood glucose is 22 mmol/L (<11.1 mmol/L) and his blood ketone level is 4.0 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L). You request an arterial blood gas (ABG).
pH 7.19 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 14.0 kPa (10-14 kPa)
pCO2 3.6 kPa (4.5-6.0 kPa)
Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22-28 mmol/L)
Given the results, you start the patient on IV resuscitation fluids. What is the next most appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND stop all injectable insulins
Correct Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable long-acting insulin only
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100mcg of levothyroxine. She reports feeling well and has no notable symptoms. Her last TFTs were normal 6 months ago.
Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
TSH 0.1 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od
Explanation:The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple medications. The patient presents with significant bilateral breast tissue growth. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Terbinafine
Correct Answer: Goserelin (Zoladex)
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may occur as a side effect of using GnRH agonists like goserelin for prostate cancer management. Tamoxifen can be prescribed to address gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Correct
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A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on one diabetes medication (500mg metformin BD). He reports no adverse effects from this treatment. His most recent retinopathy screening was unremarkable. You draw blood to assess his HbA1c levels.
What is the recommended target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The recommended HbA1c goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. According to NICE guidelines, this target is appropriate for patients who are managing their condition through lifestyle changes or a single antidiabetic medication. However, if a patient is prescribed a second medication or is taking a medication that increases the risk of hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), the target may be adjusted to 53 mmol/mol. It is important to note that the HbA1c threshold for changing medications may differ from the target HbA1c level.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. Her husband indicates that she has a long-term joint disorder for which she has been taking oral steroids for many years. She has recently been suffering from depression and has had poor compliance with medications.
On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile.
Basic blood investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glucose 2.7 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l (random)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions
Addisonian Crisis: A Brief Overview
Addison’s disease, or adrenal insufficiency, is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones. The majority of cases in the UK are due to autoimmune disease, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Patients with Addison’s disease may present with vague symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and gastrointestinal upset, as well as hyperpigmentation of the skin. Basic investigations may reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. A short ACTH stimulation test is used to confirm the diagnosis. Emergency treatment involves IV or IM hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid replacement.
Differential Diagnosis
Insulin Overdose: While hypoglycemia is a common feature of insulin overdose, the clinical information provided suggests that the low glucose level is due to the loss of the anti-insulin effect of cortisol, which is a hallmark of Addison’s disease.
Meningococcal Septicaemia: Although hypotension and tachycardia may be present in meningococcal septicaemia, the other features described do not support this diagnosis.
Paracetamol Overdose: Paracetamol overdose can cause liver toxicity, but the clinical features described are not typical of this condition and are more suggestive of an Addisonian crisis.
Salicylate Overdose: Salicylate overdose can cause a range of symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, but the clinical features described do not support this diagnosis.
Conclusion
Based on the information provided, an Addisonian crisis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further investigations may be necessary to rule out other conditions. Prompt recognition and treatment of an Addisonian crisis are essential to prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after fainting. She is now conscious and able to provide a medical history. The patient mentions having a condition, but cannot recall the name. She shows the doctor the medication she takes, which is a somatostatin analogue.
What medical condition can be treated with somatostatin analogues?Your Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone from an anterior pituitary tumor, resulting in enlarged hands, feet, and jaw, as well as other symptoms. While surgery is the preferred treatment, somatostatin analogues such as octreotide and lanreotide can be used if surgery fails. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone that can suppress growth hormone release. However, it can also cause side effects such as bradycardia, hypothyroidism, and hypoglycemia. Cushing’s disease, caused by excess adrenocorticotropic hormone, can be treated with pituitary gland removal, radiotherapy, or cortisol-inhibiting medications. Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is usually treated with surgery. Type I diabetes is treated with insulin, while Type II diabetes is treated with insulin and oral hypoglycemic agents. Parathyroid adenomas are also treated surgically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of a 3 kg weight gain, fatigue, dry hair and skin, and a small diffuse goitre. She always feels cold and has a family history of thyroid disease.
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18.0 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
Free T4 6 pmol/l 12–22 pmol/l
Thyroid peroxidase antibody Positive at high titres
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and blood test results suggest hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland. Risk factors for this condition include a family history of autoimmune disease, being female, and having another autoimmune disorder. Positive thyroid antibodies and a diffuse goitre may also be present. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, typically presents with hyperthyroidism after a viral infection and is associated with neck pain and fever. Follicular thyroid carcinoma is characterized by a painless thyroid nodule and possible hoarseness or stridor if the recurrent laryngeal nerve is affected. Graves’ disease, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, presents with symptoms such as sweating, anxiety, and weight loss, as well as eye signs in some cases. Multinodular goitre, which involves multiple autonomously functioning thyroid nodules, typically presents as hyperthyroidism with a multinodular goitre, but the patient in this scenario is hypothyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Correct
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A 56-year-old man has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes after a routine blood test. He has a history of myocardial infarction and chronic left ventricular systolic dysfunction. The patient is started on metformin and titrated to the maximum tolerated dose. The following are the results of his blood tests:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR >90 mL/min (>90)
- Hba1c 62 mmol/mol (7.8%) (20-41)
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Empagliflozin
Explanation:For this patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and cardiac comorbidity, the most appropriate medication would be an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is especially true for patients with established cardiovascular disease (CVD) or those under 40 with one or more cardiovascular risk factors. Studies have shown that SGLT-2 inhibitors have a cardioprotective effect, with the greatest benefit seen in those with CVD. Additionally, these medications have been associated with reduced hospital admissions and mortality in patients with heart failure.
Gliclazide is not the best option for this patient as there is no evidence that it would have a beneficial effect on their cardiac comorbidity, unlike SGLT-2 inhibitors. While gliclazide is effective at lowering HbA1c, it can cause weight gain. In some cases, gliclazide may be used as rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Insulin is not necessary at this stage, as there are many other medications available to optimize glycemic control before insulin should be considered. In some cases, insulin may be used as short-term rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Pioglitazone is not a suitable option for this patient, as it is contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to its potential to worsen fluid retention and edema. Additionally, pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of fractures. However, pioglitazone does have benefits such as safety in renal impairment and a low risk of hypoglycemia.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria, weight loss and tiredness for six months. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests, thyroid function test and calcium are all normal. Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 48 mmol/mol and repeat sample is 50 mmol/mol. On examination, her body mass index is 35 kg/m2, she is normotensive and urinalysis is normal.
Which of the following investigations should be arranged urgently?
Select ONE investigation from the list below.Your Answer: Glucose tolerance test
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Type II Diabetes Mellitus
Computed Tomography (CT) Abdomen:
A CT abdomen is recommended for any patient over the age of 60 with weight loss combined with a new onset of diabetes or abdominal or back pain, nausea, vomiting or change in bowel habit. This is because new-onset type II diabetes can be a presenting feature of pancreatic cancer in patients over the age of 60, especially those who have also experienced weight loss.Pancreatic Autoantibodies:
Pancreatic autoantibodies include anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase, insulin autoantibodies and islet-cell antibodies, the presence of which would support a diagnosis of type I diabetes. These tests are usually carried out in secondary care for atypical presentations such as suspected type II diabetes in a child or a non-overweight person.Glucose Tolerance Test:
Glucose tolerance test has a limited role in diagnosing type II diabetes now that HbA1c is an accepted diagnostic investigation. It is still used routinely to investigate pregnant women at risk of gestational diabetes.Short Synacthen Test:
A short synacthen test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency. The history and investigation results do not suggest this as a likely diagnosis, so this test would not be indicated.Ultrasound of the Urinary Tract:
Ultrasound is not indicated unless a structural problem is suspected. Although this man is experiencing polyuria, his urinalysis and PSA are both normal, which makes a urological cause for his symptoms less likely than the newly diagnosed diabetes. Diabetes can cause renal impairment, but this should be monitored with annual urine albumin : creatinine measurement and regular U&Es blood test. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?
Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 19
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining of lethargy and nausea. His full blood count, thyroid function test, calcium and liver function tests all come back normal. However, his urea and electrolytes reveal significant hyponatraemia, while the rest of the results are normal. He has a reduced plasma osmolality and increased urine osmolality. He is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Abnormal Urine Osmolality: A Brief Overview
Abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Here are some of the possible causes and how to differentiate them:
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of ADH, leading to hyperosmolar urine and low plasma osmolality. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders, malignancies, and drugs. Treatment involves fluid restriction and addressing the underlying cause.Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
This condition is caused by the hypothalamus not producing enough vasopressin, resulting in extreme thirst and polyuria. However, urine osmolality is reduced, not elevated.Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidneys becoming resistant to the effect of vasopressin/ADH, leading to large volumes of dilute urine with reduced osmolality. Causes include electrolyte imbalances, medications, and renal tubular acidosis.Addison’s Disease
This condition is characterized by reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. Deficiency of mineralocorticoid leads to increased sodium excretion from the kidneys, resulting in hyponatremia associated with hyperkalemia. However, in this case, the patient has normal potassium levels.Primary Polydipsia
This condition is caused by excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus, resulting in dilute polyuria. However, in this patient, the urine osmolality is concentrated, making this diagnosis unlikely. A fluid deprivation test can help confirm or rule out this condition.In summary, abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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