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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual has red, well-defined, salmon-coloured pink scaly plaques on their elbows, back of their arms, their back, buttocks, and behind their legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythrodermic psoriasis
Correct Answer: Chronic plaque psoriasis
Explanation:Psoriasis typically appears on the extensor surfaces, but guttate psoriasis is more common in teenagers and presents as tear-drop shaped plaques. Palmo-plantar psoriasis is characterized by small pustules on the palms and soles, while chronic plaque psoriasis appears as well-defined plaques on extensor surfaces. Flexural psoriasis is most commonly found in areas such as the axillae, sub-mammary, and groin. Erythrodermic psoriasis causes the skin to become deep red all over.
Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications
Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.
There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.
Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are in a clinic with your consultant examining a 55-year-old man who complains of shoulder pain. During the assessment, the consultant instructs the patient to place the back of his hand against the lumbar region of his back. Which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for this movement?
Your Answer: Infraspinatus
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The subscapularis muscle is responsible for internal rotation, while the other muscles in the cuff are responsible for external rotation. During Gerber’s Test, the consultant will ask you to place the dorsum of your hand behind your back, which requires internal rotation of the humerus. This movement is facilitated by the subscapularis muscle.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the buttock and receives sutures in the emergency department. When she visits the clinic eight weeks later, she presents with a waddling gait and difficulty with thigh abduction. Upon examination, she exhibits buttock muscle wasting. Which nerve was damaged in the injury?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Superior gluteal nerve
Explanation:If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it will cause a Trendelenburg gait.
The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A young adult presents to the emergency department on a Sunday morning after a night out with friends. Upon waking up, they realize they had fallen asleep with their arm draped over the back of a park bench and are now diagnosed with a radial nerve injury. Which muscle is expected to exhibit weakness during examination as a result of this injury?
Your Answer: Dorsal interossei
Correct Answer: Extensor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies all extensor muscles in the upper limb, including the extensor carpi ulnaris. The only exception is the brachioradialis muscle, which is not an extensor. The median nerve is responsible for wrist and finger flexion, as well as thumb opposition, while the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-week history of gradual-onset left knee pain. She has a known history of hyperparathyroidism, but is not on any regular medications.
Upon examination, there are no visible changes to the joint and the temperature over the knee is normal. However, she experiences tenderness over passive and active movement, but no restriction of joint movement.
A joint radiograph reveals no fracture but chondrocalcinosis. Further, a joint aspiration under polarised light shows positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.
What is the underlying pathology, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Joint infection
Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is pseudogout, which is characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in the synovium, resulting in pain during movement. The knee joint is commonly affected, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent in polarised-light microscopy of joint aspirate confirms the diagnosis. Radiography may also reveal chondrocalcinosis.
A fracture would require a history of trauma and would be visible on the radiograph, neither of which is present in this case, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Reactive arthritis is associated with immune-mediated destruction of the joint, but there is no recent history of diarrhoea, coryza, conjunctivitis, or urethritis, which are commonly associated with this condition. The light microscopy of joint aspirate and radiography findings do not support this diagnosis.
Joint infection typically presents with a hot, swollen joint that rapidly develops after a history of trauma. The joint aspirate would be expected to contain turbid fluid and grow organisms. However, none of these features are present in this patient, making joint infection an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old male with end stage critical ischaemia is scheduled for an axillo-femoral bypass. Which structure is not in close proximity to the axillary artery?
Your Answer: Scalenus anterior muscle
Explanation:The axillary artery originates from the subclavian artery and is flanked by the brachial plexus cords, which are named after it. The axillary vein runs parallel to the axillary artery for its entire course.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which of the following?
Your Answer: Osteoblast function
Correct Answer: Osteoclast function
Explanation:Understanding Osteopetrosis: A Rare Disorder of Bone Resorption
Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a rare disorder that affects the normal function of osteoclasts, leading to a failure of bone resorption. This results in the formation of dense, thick bones that are more prone to fractures. Individuals with osteopetrosis often experience bone pains and neuropathies. Despite the abnormal bone growth, levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP remain normal.
Treatment options for osteopetrosis include stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma therapy. However, these treatments are not always effective and may have significant side effects. As such, early diagnosis and management of osteopetrosis is crucial in preventing complications and improving quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician with her mother. The mother reports that she has noticed the child's ankles have become swollen over the past few months. There is no history of any trauma and the girl has no other past medical history.
On examination the child is underweight and appears malnourished. She is alert and otherwise systemically well. Bony swellings are noted in both ankles.
Blood tests and an X-ray are ordered.
Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 320 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 29 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 18 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
X-ray both ankles cupping and fraying of the metaphyseal region
What is the pathophysiological process causing this child's symptoms?Your Answer: Inadequate osteoclast activity
Correct Answer: Excessive non-mineralised osteoid
Explanation:Rickets is a condition where the growth plate in the wrist joints widens due to an excess of non-mineralized osteoid. This is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium, which is usually due to poor dietary intake. Calcium is necessary for the mineralization of osteoid and the formation of mature bone tissue. When this process is disrupted, rickets can occur.
Monoclonal antibodies used to treat osteoporosis target RANKL, an enzyme that activates osteoclasts and promotes bone resorption. However, RANKL is not the cause of rickets.
Excessive mineralized osteoid is not the cause of rickets. Instead, rickets is caused by inadequate calcium for mineralization, leading to a buildup of non-mineralized osteoid.
While excessive osteoclast activity can cause diseases like osteoporosis and Paget’s disease, it is not the cause of rickets. Similarly, a deficiency of osteoclast activity can result in osteopetrosis, but not rickets.
Understanding Rickets
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.
Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.
To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old athlete suffers an injury during a soccer game after a fall. Due to the injury, she cannot flex the metacarpophalangeal joint or proximal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger. All other sensory and motor functions remain intact.
What anatomical structure is likely to have been affected?Your Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation:The muscle responsible for flexing the MCPs and PIPs is the flexor digitorum superficialis. The flexor digitorum profundus is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint, while the flexor carpi ulnaris flexes and adducts the wrist. The flexor digiti minimi brevis is responsible for flexing the little (5th) finger. It should be noted that there is no muscle called the flexor indicis distalis.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
Your Answer: Typical age group is 5-10 years
Correct Answer: A chronic slip, with symptoms over weeks to months is the most common presentation
Explanation:Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children
Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow and Ortolani tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.
Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.
The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?
Your Answer: TSH receptor
Correct Answer: Desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents at the outpatient clinic after a routine surgery and reports reduced sensation on the dorso-lateral aspect of her foot. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this issue?
Your Answer: Sural
Explanation:The lateral aspect of the foot is innervated by the sural nerve, which travels parallel to the short saphenous vein. During surgery on the short saphenous vein, there is a risk of damaging the sural nerve.
Cutaneous Sensation in the Foot
Cutaneous sensation in the foot is the ability to feel touch, pressure, temperature, and pain on the skin of the foot. Different regions of the foot are innervated by different nerves, which are responsible for transmitting sensory information to the brain. The lateral plantar region is innervated by the sural nerve, while the dorsum (excluding the 1st web space) is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The 1st web space is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve, and the extremities of the toes are innervated by the medial and lateral plantar nerves. The proximal plantar region is innervated by the tibial nerve, while the medial plantar region is innervated by the medial plantar nerve and the lateral plantar region is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve. Understanding the innervation of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect cutaneous sensation in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by a loose piece of glass. The glass cuts his skin and damages the tendons of one of the muscles in his hand. Consequently, he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his ring finger. However, he can still flex the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the same finger. None of his other fingers are impacted.
Which muscle is likely to have been affected?Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The flexor digitorum profundus muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. It is located deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and is specific to each digit. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle, on the other hand, flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist, while the flexor pollicis longus muscle flexes the thumb. It is important to note that the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle must be intact for its function to remain present.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling onto outstretched hands. An x-ray confirms a fracture in one of the bones in his forearm. Based on the mechanism of injury, which bone is most likely affected by this fracture?
Your Answer: Styloid process of the ulna
Correct Answer: Distal shaft of the radius
Explanation:The forearm has two weight-bearing bones, the scaphoid at the wrist and the radius within the forearm. If someone falls onto outstretched hands, there is a risk of fracturing both of these bones. The shaft of the radius is particularly vulnerable as it carries the weight and takes the full compression of the fall. The ulna is more likely to fracture from stress applied to the side of the arm rather than down its length. The lunate bone at the wrist is not involved in weight-bearing.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with profuse bleeding from her arm due to an injury. Upon examination, a 6 cm transverse laceration is observed across the anterior aspect of her elbow. When exploring the cubital fossa, where would you expect to find the brachial artery?
Your Answer: Superficial to the bicipital aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Lateral to the median nerve
Explanation:The median nerve is usually located medial to the brachial artery.
The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.
There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.
The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the ankle joint is false?
Your Answer: The flexor hallucis longus tendon is the most posterior structure at the medial malleolus
Correct Answer: The sural nerve lies medial to the Achilles tendon at its point of insertion
Explanation:The distal fibula is located in front of the sural nerve. Subtalar movements involve inversion and eversion. When passing behind the medial malleolus from front to back, the structures include the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial artery, nerve, and flexor hallucis longus.
Anatomy of the Ankle Joint
The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.
The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.
Reference:
Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not pass through the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The obturator foramen is the exit point for the obturator nerve.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old-girl is brought into the emergency department after she accidentally poured boiling water onto her hand. Upon examination, her hand appears to have turned white and she is not expressing any discomfort. What could be the reason for this?
Your Answer: She has suffered a partial thickness burn that has not stimulated sensory neurons hence the absence of pain
Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurons
Explanation:Patients with third-degree burns do not experience pain because the damage is so severe that it affects the sensory nerves in the deeper layers of skin, which are responsible for transmitting pain signals. In contrast, superficial burns are painful because the sensory nerves in the epidermis are still intact and able to transmit pain signals. The absence of pain in third-degree burns is not due to an increased pain threshold, but rather the damage to the sensory nerves.
First Aid and Management of Burns
Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.
Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female experiences repeated anterior dislocations of her left shoulder and a CT scan shows a Bankart lesion. What is the name of the rotator cuff muscle tendon located at the front of the shoulder capsule?
Your Answer: Teres minor
Correct Answer: Subscapularis tendon
Explanation:The tendon of the subscapularis runs in front of the shoulder capsule, while the supraspinatus tendon runs above it. The tendons of the infraspinatus and teres minor run behind the shoulder capsule, with the infraspinatus tendon positioned above the teres minor tendon. It should be noted that the teres major muscle is not part of the rotator cuff. A Bankart lesion refers to a tear in the front part of the glenoid labrum and is commonly seen in cases of anterior shoulder dislocation.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a severe, itchy, red rash on her hands and arms that started a few days ago. The itching is so intense that it is affecting her sleep. She denies any family history of asthma, eczema, or hay fever and is otherwise healthy. During the consultation, she mentions that a colleague had a similar issue last week.
Upon examination, the GP observes a widespread erythematous rash on both hands, particularly in the interdigital web spaces and the flexor aspect of the wrists, with excoriation marks. There is no crusting, and the rash is not present anywhere else.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Explanation:A cream containing steroids may be applied to address eczema.
As a second option for scabies, an insecticide lotion called Malathion is used.
For hyperkeratotic (‘Norwegian’) scabies, which is prevalent in immunosuppressed patients, oral ivermectin is the recommended treatment. However, this patient does not have crusted scabies and is in good health.
To alleviate dry skin in conditions such as eczema and psoriasis, a topical emollient can be utilized.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The subclavian artery passes posterior to the middle scalene
Explanation:The middle scalene is located posterior to the subclavian artery.
The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.
The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.
In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the presence of widespread flaccid superficial blisters and oral mucosal ulceration. He has no known history of coeliac disease. Upon biopsy, it was discovered that he has antibodies against the desmosomes that connect epithelial cells.
What is the underlying skin condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pemphigus
Explanation:Pemphigus is a skin disorder caused by autoimmune reactions where IgG antibodies attack the desmosomes that connect the skin cells. This results in acantholysis, where the keratinocytes detach from each other. In contrast, pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering skin disorder, but it is caused by IgG autoantibodies targeting the basement membrane instead of the desmosomes.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female presents to her primary healthcare provider with painful blisters on her gingival and buccal mucosa and skin that easily rupture and cause ulcers. The oral blisters began three months ago and the cutaneous lesions just a week ago. She has a medical history of hypertension, vitiligo, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination of the oral cavity and skin, scattered shallow ulcerations ranging from 8 mm to 1 cm in diameter were observed. A biopsy of the lesions revealed acantholysis. The patient has been prescribed corticosteroids.
What is the most likely cause of this condition in the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The following statements regarding the rectus abdominis muscle are true except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It lies in a muscular aponeurosis throughout its length
Explanation:The rectus abdominis muscle originates from the pubis and inserts into the 5th, 6th, and 7th costal cartilages. It is located within the rectus sheath, which also contains the superior and inferior epigastric artery and vein. The muscle is responsible for flexing the thoracic and lumbar spine and is innervated by the anterior primary rami of T7-12. The aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis is incomplete below the arcuate line.
Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall
The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.
The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.
During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with lateral knee pain. He reports that the pain began two hours ago while playing hockey, and he was struck on the anteromedial aspect of his extended knee by a hockey stick. An x-ray of the knee reveals an avulsion fracture of the fibular head. Which muscle is the probable culprit for this patient's avulsion fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle. However, sudden contractions of the biceps femoris can lead to an avulsion fracture of the fibular head, where the fracture fragment may be attached to the lateral collateral ligament or biceps femoris tendon.
The fibularis brevis muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the fibular bone. If the ankle joint suddenly inverts, it can pull on the fibularis tendon and cause an avulsion of the tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal.
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. This muscle not only allows for flexion of the big toe but also contributes to plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.
The soleus muscle originates from the proximal one-third of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. It is a large muscle covered in thick fascia, which aids in its secondary function of pumping venous blood back into the heart through the skeletal muscle pump.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior tibial artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve laterally
Explanation:The deep peroneal nerve is in the front compartment and the tibial nerve is on the inner side. The tibial nerve is located beneath the flexor retinaculum at its end.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass posteriorly to the medial malleolus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior tendon
Explanation:Structures Passing Posterior to the Medial Malleolus
The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass posterior to it, including the tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve, and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.
The tibialis posterior tendon is responsible for plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, while the flexor digitorum longus tendon helps to flex the toes. The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the foot and ankle, while the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles of the lower leg and foot. Finally, the tendon of flexor hallucis longus helps to flex the big toe.
It is important to be aware of these structures when performing any procedures or surgeries in the area, as damage to them can result in significant complications. Understanding the anatomy of the ankle and foot can also help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting these structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a gradually worsening rash on his face that has been present for the past 2 months. The patient has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. During the examination, the doctor notes the presence of numerous papules, pustules, and comedones on the patient's forehead, cheeks, and chin. What is the responsible pathogen for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes
Explanation:Propionibacterium acnes is the bacteria responsible for contributing to the formation of acne.
The patient’s facial papules, pustules, and comedones indicate a diagnosis of acne vulgaris, which is more prevalent in adolescents and those with oily skin. While bacteria can play a role in the development of acne, it is important to note that acne vulgaris is not a contagious rash. Propionibacterium acnes is the most common pathogen associated with acne vulgaris, as it triggers enzymes and inflammatory mediators that worsen the existing rash and inflammation.
Staphylococcus aureus is linked to bacterial skin conditions like impetigo and cellulitis, which often require more intensive antibiotic treatment.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a commensal bacterium typically found on the skin’s surface. It may cause opportunistic bacterial skin infections in immunocompromised patients, but it is not involved in acne development.
Streptococcus pyogenes also causes bacterial skin infections like cellulitis and erysipelas, similar to Staphylococcus aureus. If either bacterium were implicated in acne vulgaris, it would cause significant inflammation and infection (e.g., fever, erythema, swelling). However, they do not play a role in the normal development of acne.
Understanding Acne Vulgaris
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects teenagers, with around 80-90% of them experiencing it. It commonly appears on the face, neck, and upper trunk and is characterized by the blockage of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. However, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old still being affected.
The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial. It involves the overgrowth of skin cells in hair follicles, leading to the formation of keratin plugs that obstruct the follicles. Although androgen levels may control the activity of sebaceous glands, which produce oil, they are often normal in patients with acne. Additionally, the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes can colonize the blocked follicles, leading to inflammation and the formation of pimples.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is crucial in developing effective treatments for this common skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A young girl comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps that occur every month. Her physician assures her that this is a common issue and prescribes mefenamic acid as a pain reliever. What is the mechanism of action of mefenamic acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibiting COX, decreasing prostaglandin production
Explanation:Mefenamic acid is classified as an NSAID because it works by inhibiting COX, which ultimately leads to a decrease in prostaglandin production. Any response indicating an increase or alteration in prostaglandin levels would be inaccurate. The idea of blocking dorsal horn sodium channels is more characteristic of a neuropathic medication rather than an NSAID.
Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.
However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.
Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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