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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for his yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for his yearly hypertension check-up. He is currently on a daily dose of ramipril 10 mg and amlodipine 10mg, but his blood pressure readings have been consistently high at an average of 160/110 mmHg. What medication would be the best addition to his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve the poorly controlled hypertension of this patient who is already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, the next step is to add a thiazide-like diuretic. Indapamide is the recommended drug for this purpose, although chlortalidone is also an option. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are not appropriate at this stage of treatment. Combining an angiotensin II receptor blocker with ramipril is not advisable due to the risk of electrolyte imbalance and kidney problems. If the patient has confirmed resistant hypertension, a fourth antihypertensive medication may be added or specialist advice sought. For those with low potassium levels, spironolactone may be considered.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years....

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years. She is not diabetic and there is no other significant medical history. She is currently taking amlodipine at the maximum recommended dose of 10mg.
      During her medication review at her GP surgery, her blood pressure remains elevated - it is averaging at 160/98 mmHg over several readings.
      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step according to NICE guidelines is to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this scenario, as the options do not include an ACE inhibitor, losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is the correct choice. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are included in step 4 of NICE guidelines only if diuretic therapy is contraindicated or ineffective, and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also part of step 4, so they are not the appropriate options for this patient.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. The pain is radiating to his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia.

      Upon examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and sweaty. His vital signs are as follows:
      - Heart rate: 90 bpm
      - Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
      - Peripheral oxygen saturation: 95% on room air
      - Blood pressure: 136/78 mmHg
      - Temperature: 37.0ºC

      An ECG performed by the paramedics shows ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as T-wave inversion.

      What is the immediate treatment that should be given?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine, oxygen

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine

      Explanation:

      The appropriate combination in this scenario is aspirin, nitrate, and morphine. The addition of oxygen is not necessary and may even be inappropriate. Ramipril and bisoprolol are not recommended for acute treatment but may be used for long-term management of ACS. Therefore, aspirin, nitrate, and oxygen is an incorrect combination, and morphine should also be included due to the patient’s significant pain. Oxygen should not be administered as the patient’s oxygen saturation levels are already adequate.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently on furosemide...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently on furosemide and ramipril. Which beta-blocker would be the most appropriate to add for improving his long-term prognosis?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite being on current treatment with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he continues to experience breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his chest is clear to auscultation and there is minimal ankle edema. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was recently attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of fever and night sweats. His parameters include a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, heart rate of 115 bpm and a temperature of 38.5°C.
      On examination, a murmur is elicited at the right upper sternal edge. Infective endocarditis is suspected and an echocardiogram is done which shows multiple vegetations on the aortic valve.
      Which of the following is the best next step to confirm the diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best management option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Two positive blood cultures drawn > 12 hours apart

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis: Criteria and Testing

      In order to diagnose infective endocarditis, the modified Duke’s criteria are used. One major criterion can be fulfilled by echocardiography and the other by blood cultures. If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, they need another major criterion or at least two other minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis. Two positive blood cultures drawn more than 12 hours apart fulfill the other major criterion, confirming the diagnosis.

      A chest X-ray is not necessary in this case, as it would not provide enough information to support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis.

      If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, one positive blood culture of an atypical organism would fit a minor criterion for diagnosis, but would not be enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Two positive blood cultures taken at the same time from different sites would not be appropriate, as they need to be drawn at least 12 hours apart to fulfill the major criterion. Even if this criterion is fulfilled, the patient would still need another major criterion or additional minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath. She states that this occurred while walking up a flight of stairs and stopped once she sat down. The patient states that over the past few months she has been progressively unable to climb stairs due to shortness of breath and occasional central chest heaviness which occur when she starts climbing. She has a past medical history of diabetes and smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Her parameters are stable, with oxygen saturations of 97%, blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 90 bpm. A chest X-ray is done which comes back as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Angina pectoris

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Chest Pain: Angina Pectoris, Anxiety Attack, COPD Exacerbation, Pneumothorax, and Unstable Angina

      Chest pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and it is crucial to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest angina pectoris, which is characterized by constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, triggered by physical exertion and relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). However, diabetic patients may present with dyspnea instead of typical anginal pain. The patient’s cardiovascular risk factors, including diabetes, smoking, and hypertension, further support the diagnosis of angina.

      Anxiety attacks can also cause chest pain, along with palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremors, and urinary frequency. Therefore, anxiety should be considered as a possible diagnosis after ruling out life-threatening conditions such as ischemic heart disease.

      Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is another potential cause of chest pain, especially in smokers. However, the absence of a known COPD diagnosis and normal oxygen saturation levels make this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can also cause chest pain, but a normal chest X-ray makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Finally, unstable angina is a severe form of angina that can occur unexpectedly and at rest, lasting longer than stable angina and not relieved by rest. It requires emergency treatment as it can quickly progress to a heart attack. However, in this case, the patient’s symptoms occur during exercise and resolve with rest, suggesting stable angina rather than unstable angina.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for chest pain includes angina pectoris, anxiety attack, COPD exacerbation, pneumothorax, and unstable angina. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, risk factors, and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted with a fever, worsening shortness of breath, and a note from her primary care physician confirming the presence of a new heart murmur. During the examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, and she has a temperature of 38.5 °C with fine basal crepitations in both lungs. Which one of the following should take immediate priority?

      Your Answer: Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      When a patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis, prompt intervention is crucial to limit valve destruction and prevent potentially life-threatening complications. The following interventions should be considered, prioritized, and administered as soon as possible:

      Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics: Empirical treatment with gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be initiated until microbiological advice suggests an alternative. Antibiotic delivery should take priority over other interventions.

      Administration of paracetamol: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, and paracetamol can provide symptomatic relief. However, it should not take priority over antibiotic delivery.

      Echocardiogram (ECHO): An ECHO is an important diagnostic tool for identifying infective endocarditis and detecting complications such as cardiac abscess and pseudoaneurysms. While it should be performed in all suspected cases, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG can provide additional diagnostic information, including signs of paravalvular extension of infection and emboli in the coronary circulation. It should be part of the initial workup but does not take priority over antibiotic administration.

      Throat swab: While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of the patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.

      In summary, when managing suspected infective endocarditis, prompt administration of IV antibiotics should take priority over other interventions. Other diagnostic and therapeutic interventions should be considered and prioritized based on the individual patient’s clinical presentation and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents with sudden shortness of breath one hour after undergoing primary percutaneous intervention for an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. The procedure was successful and radial access was used. She initially appeared stable and a bedside echocardiogram showed normal left ventricular function. However, on examination, she appears unwell with diaphoresis, tachypnea, hypotension (80/42 mmHg), tachycardia (111/minute), and elevated JVP. There are no signs of peripheral oedema or deep venous thrombosis. What is the most urgent intervention that could save her life?

      Your Answer: Inotropic support

      Correct Answer: Pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      Cardiac tamponade is suggested by the presence of Beck’s triad, which includes falling blood pressure, rising jugular venous pulse, and muffled heart sounds. Therefore, cardiogenic shock is unlikely as the patient underwent successful revascularization and had a normal echocardiogram post-procedure. While inotropes may provide temporary support for low blood pressure, they are not a curative option in this case. Sepsis is not the cause of hypotension as it is typically associated with a fever, bounding pulse, and warm extremities, and the jugular venous pulse would not be elevated. Intravenous antibiotics are therefore not the correct answer. Hypovolemia is also not associated with an elevated jugular venous pulse, so intravenous fluids are not the correct answer. Additionally, the use of radial access makes a retroperitoneal hematoma less likely. The correct answer is pericardiocentesis, as the clinical features suggest cardiac tamponade, which is a known complication of primary percutaneous intervention in myocardial infarction.

      Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation of secondary prevention. He has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) two years ago. He is on a combination of clopidogrel, atenolol 50 mg once daily and atorvastatin 80 mg once daily. He also has diabetes for which he takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His pulse rate is 70 bpm, and blood pressure 144/86 mmHg. His past medical history includes an ischaemic stroke two years ago, from which he made a complete recovery.
      What additional therapy would you consider?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Perindopril

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Post-MI Patients with Vascular Disease and Diabetes

      Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for all patients, regardless of left ventricular function. This is based on evidence from trials such as PROGRESS and HOPE, which demonstrate the benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with vascular disease. Additionally, for patients with diabetes, the use of ACE inhibitors is preferable. The benefits of ACE inhibition are not solely related to blood pressure reduction, but also include favorable local vascular and myocardial effects. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine and diltiazem, are not recommended for post-MI patients with systolic dysfunction. Nicorandil should also be avoided. Clopidogrel is the preferred antiplatelet for patients with clinical vascular disease who have had an MI and a stroke. Blood pressure should be optimized in post-MI patients, and further antihypertensive therapy may be necessary, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor to achieve the desired level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
    Which medication has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients

      Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
      Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.

      Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.

      Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

      Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman presented with swelling in her feet and mentioned that she...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presented with swelling in her feet and mentioned that she uses two pillows while sleeping. What is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Plasma NT-proBNP

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Suspected Heart Failure

      When a patient presents with symptoms of peripheral edema and orthopnea, heart failure is a likely diagnosis. To confirm this, NICE guidelines recommend using N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) as an initial investigation. A level below 400 ng/litre makes heart failure unlikely, while levels between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre require referral for specialist assessment within 6 weeks. Levels above 2,000 ng/litre require referral within 2 weeks. An echocardiogram should be performed to quantify ventricular function if the ECG and NT-proBNP are abnormal. Blood cultures can also be useful for detecting systemic infection or endocarditis. An exercise tolerance test is more appropriate for suspected coronary artery disease. Finally, rheumatoid factor is a non-specific test for autoimmune conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough that has been going on for 3 weeks. He reports no chest pain or shortness of breath, and has not experienced any unexplained weight loss. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is managed through lifestyle and diet, and was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on lisinopril. He is a non-smoker and drinks 6 units of alcohol per week. What is the best course of action for his treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop lisinopril and start irbesartan

      Explanation:

      When a patient cannot tolerate taking ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, an angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) should be offered as an alternative, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly relevant for patients with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, as an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its renal protective and antihypertensive properties. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing a dry cough as a side effect of lisinopril use, which is a common issue with ACE inhibitors. To address this, stopping lisinopril and starting irbesartan is the correct course of action. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs, which is responsible for the dry cough. It is important to note that reassurance alone is not sufficient, as the dry cough will not settle with time. Additionally, arranging a skin prick allergy test is unnecessary, as the patient is not allergic to lisinopril. While amlodipine may be considered as a second-line treatment option, NICE recommends switching to an ARB first.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of coronary heart disease after a friend recently had a heart attack. He has a history of anxiety but is not currently taking any medication. He is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, with a BMI of 26 kg/m² and blood pressure of 126/82 mmHg.

      As his healthcare provider, you strongly advise him to quit smoking. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a lipid profile then calculate his QRISK2 score

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested his new stethoscope. On assessment in the Cardiology Clinic, he was found to have a harsh systolic murmur over his precordium, which did not change with inspiration. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed features of biventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD): This has a pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge and causing biventricular hypertrophy due to increased strain on both the right and left ventricles.

      2. Mitral Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur which is heard loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla; it is louder on expiration. The ECG can show left ventricular and left atrial enlargement.

      3. Aortic Stenosis: This causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in the aortic area and radiating to the carotids. It (and all other left-sided murmurs) is louder on expiration.

      4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): HCM has an early peaking systolic murmur which is worse on Valsalva and reduced on squatting. It is also associated with a jerky pulse. The ECG would show left ventricular hypertrophy.

      5. Tricuspid Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur and a brief rumbling diastolic murmur; these are louder on inspiration. The ECG may show right ventricular enlargement.

      It is important to note that right-sided murmurs increase with inspiration (e.g. tricuspid regurgitation or TR), whereas left-sided murmurs show no change. The clue to diagnosis is in the ECG finding. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation produce left ventricular hypertrophy; TR produces right ventricular hypertrophy and a VSD produces biventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) following a fall...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) following a fall at home. During examination in the ED, there is no evidence of external bleeding, but her blood pressure is 100/50 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm. She has distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds. What is the most probable finding on an echocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Trauma: Understanding the Differences

      Pericardial Effusion: A Serious Condition

      When a patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and Beck’s triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds), it is suggestive of pericardial effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and causing low cardiac output. Trauma to the chest is a common cause of pericardial effusion, leading to bleeding into the pericardial space.

      Haemothorax, Mitral Regurgitation, Pleural Effusion, and Pneumothorax: Other Trauma-Related Conditions

      While haemothorax refers to blood in the pleural space, it would not cause Beck’s triad or be detected on an echocardiogram. Mitral regurgitation could be detected on an echocardiogram, but it would not likely lead to Beck’s triad as blood would remain within the heart chambers. Pleural effusion refers to any fluid in the pleural space and would not cause Beck’s triad, nor would it be detected on echocardiography. Pneumothorax, which refers to air in the pleural space, can also occur with trauma. Tension pneumothorax may cause Beck’s triad, but it would not be detected on an echocardiogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.

      What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon conducting an ECG, it is found that he has sinus rhythm with a rate of 85 bpm. The QRS duration is 110 ms, PR interval is 180 ms, and corrected QT interval is 500ms. What is the reason for the abnormality observed on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, which is an electrolyte imbalance that leads to a prolonged corrected QT interval on an ECG. This condition is often seen in young people and can present as cardiac syncope, tachyarrhythmias, palpitations, or cardiac arrest. Long QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired, with hypokalaemia being one of the acquired causes. Other causes include medications, CNS lesions, malnutrition, and hypothermia. It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia is associated with a shortened QT interval, not a prolonged one.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past four to five months. His father passed away a few years ago due to a lung disease. During the examination, the doctor notices an elevated jugular venous pressure and a palpable heave at the left sternal edge.

      What is the most probable provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Familial Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Familial primary pulmonary hypertension is a rare condition that presents with breathlessness, fatigue, angina, or syncope. It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance and physical signs such as elevated JVP, left parasternal heave, pansystolic murmur, right ventricular S4, and peripheral edema. Without treatment, average survival is less than three years. While tricuspid regurgitation may be present, it is best explained in the context of a diagnosis of familial primary pulmonary hypertension. Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism is a more common differential diagnosis that should be considered. Constrictive pericarditis and pulmonary venous hypertension are unlikely diagnoses as they do not run in families. Clinical management requires a specialist with considerable expertise in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history of flu-like symptoms. She is now experiencing severe central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when she sits upright. Upon examination, she has a rapid heart rate and a temperature of 38.5 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation.
      What is the probable cause of this patient's chest pain?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, causing chest pain that is relieved by sitting forward and worsened by lying flat or coughing. Patients may display signs of infection, and a pericardial friction rub may be heard during examination. Blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography are used to diagnose pericarditis. Causes include viral, bacterial, and fungal infections, as well as other conditions. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and may include analgesia and bed rest. Aortic dissection, myocardial ischemia, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and pneumonia are other possible causes of chest pain, but each has distinct symptoms and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.

      Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.

      Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.

      Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).

      Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
      During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and an ECG showing anterolateral T wave inversion. Her troponin I level at 12 hours is 300 ng/L (reference range < 50 ng/L). She is managed conservatively and discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. What is the appropriate use of ticagrelor in this case?

      Your Answer: Should be prescribed for the next 12 months for all patients

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home for the past week and has consistently recorded high readings, with an average of 147/85 mmHg. He is asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic. His current medications include perindopril 10 mg once daily and indapamide 2.5mg once daily. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine should be added according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics may be considered in cases of resistant hypertension. Aldosterone antagonists and alpha-blockers are only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking a combination of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, a calcium-channel blocker, and a thiazide-like diuretic. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors should not be used in combination with angiotensin receptor blockers for hypertension management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
      Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
      D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)

      Explanation:

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
      Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test

      When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.

      While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.

      In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.

      It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.

      Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 68-year-old patient with known stable angina is currently managed on atenolol and...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old patient with known stable angina is currently managed on atenolol and isosorbide mononitrate (on an as required or PRN basis). He is experiencing more frequent episodes of angina on exertion.
      What is the most appropriate treatment that can be added to his current regimen to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Angina: Nifedipine, Aspirin, Dabigatran, ISMN, and Spironolactone

      When it comes to treating angina, the first-line anti-anginal treatment should be either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker like nifedipine, according to NICE guidelines. If this proves ineffective, an alternative or combination of the two should be used. Nifedipine is the calcium channel blocker with the most vasodilating properties.

      Aspirin can also be used to reduce the risk of a myocardial infarction (MI) in angina patients, but it does not provide any symptomatic relief. NICE recommends considering aspirin for all patients with angina.

      Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, is useful for reducing the risk of strokes in patients with atrial fibrillation, but it does not provide any symptomatic benefit for angina.

      If symptoms are not controlled on a combination of β blocker and calcium channel blocker, or if one of these cannot be tolerated, NICE advises considering long-acting nitrates like ISMN.

      Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can be used in heart failure secondary to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD), especially after a myocardial infarction (MI). NICE recommends starting with either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker, and switching or combining if ineffective. If one of these medications cannot be tolerated or the combination is ineffective, long-acting nitrate, nicorandil, or ivabradine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol presents to the Emergency Department with occasional episodes of chest pain, lasting only for a few minutes. This occurs while at rest and is accompanied by palpitations. He is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 140/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% and a heart rate of 160 bpm. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is done which shows no P waves, with regular narrow QRS complexes interspersed along a saw-tooth baseline. Vagal manoeuvres have failed and three boluses of adenosine fail to control the arrhythmia.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments is indicated?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Flutter: Medications and Procedures

      Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that can be managed through various medications and procedures. The first step in treatment is to control the ventricular rate, which can be achieved through the administration of beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers. For patients with diabetes mellitus, cardio-selective beta-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol are preferred.

      Amiodarone is not the first-line treatment for atrial flutter and is mainly used for ventricular tachycardias and chemical cardioversion in atrial fibrillation. Propranolol can be used for rate control, but cardio-selective beta-blockers are preferred for patients with diabetes mellitus.

      Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion is the first-line treatment for patients with haemodynamic instability caused by a tachyarrhythmia. However, if the patient exhibits no adverse signs, DC cardioversion is not indicated. Unsynchronised DC cardioversion is only given in cases of ventricular fibrillation.

      All patients should be assessed for their risk of stroke and the need for thromboprophylaxis, with the choice of anticoagulant based on scoring criteria such as CHA2DS2-VASc. Overall, the management of atrial flutter involves a tailored approach based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of malaise, fever and night sweats. He also complains that he has recently developed increased sensitivity in his fingertips and states that every time he touches something his fingers hurt.
      His past medical history includes diabetes and end-stage chronic kidney disease, for which he receives regular haemodialysis. His parameters include a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98%, heart rate 120 bpm and a temperature of 38.2°C.
      Which of the following investigations would be needed to make a diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best investigation from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      Suspected infective endocarditis (IE) requires a thorough diagnostic workup to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential conditions. One of the major symptoms of IE is the development of Osler nodes, which are tender lumps found on the fingers and toes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate a patient with suspected IE:

      Echocardiogram

      An echocardiogram is a crucial diagnostic test for IE. It is used to detect any abnormalities in the heart valves or chambers that may indicate the presence of IE. The modified Duke’s criteria, which are used to diagnose IE, include echocardiography as one of the major criteria.

      Nerve Conduction Studies

      Nerve conduction studies are used to detect any damage to the peripheral nerves. While this test may be used to evaluate conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome or sciatica, it is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the painful sensation in the fingertips is more likely due to Osler nodes than an underlying neurological disorder.

      Chest X-ray

      A chest X-ray is not typically indicated in a patient with suspected IE. While pneumonia may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as fever and malaise, other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.

      Mantoux Test

      The Mantoux test is used to detect latent tuberculosis (TB). While TB may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as night sweats and fever, a Mantoux test is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the lack of risk factors for TB and the presence of Osler nodes suggest a diagnosis of IE.

      Sputum Culture

      A sputum culture may be used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as pneumonia. However, in a patient without a cough, a sputum culture is less likely to confirm a diagnosis. Other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old woman who is six weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiovascular Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who is six weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiovascular Clinic with a swollen right leg. Doppler studies confirm a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no signs or symptoms of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

      Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period: LMWH is recommended for the treatment of DVT during pregnancy. Treatment should be continued for at least three months and until six weeks postpartum. Warfarin can be used after day five of the postpartum period. Both LMWH and warfarin are safe to use while breastfeeding.

      Elastic band compression of the affected leg, bedrest, and foot elevation: These measures have no benefit in treating DVT and may even increase the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism (PE) or another DVT.

      Commence intravenous (IV) heparin: IV heparin can be used for the treatment of a shocked patient with PE if thrombolysis is not possible. It should not be used for DVT alone.

      Oral anticoagulation with warfarin daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Warfarin is not recommended during pregnancy as it can cross the placenta and increase the risk of congenital malformations and bleeding.

      Aspirin 300 mg daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Aspirin is not effective in treating DVT or PE as it is an antiplatelet drug, not an anticoagulant.

      Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.6
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  • Question 37 - A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest pain. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. His vital signs are as follows: BP 153/90 mmHg in his right arm and 130/80 in his left arm, heart rate 89/minute, temperature 37.2ºC, respiration rate 17/minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Upon examination, the patient has absent pulses in his right leg and diminished pulses in his left leg.

      What is the recommended diagnostic test for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection and is stable, CT angiography is the preferred diagnostic test. This imaging technique provides a clear view of the aorta and helps plan surgical intervention if necessary. In cases of proximal aortic dissection, inter-arm blood pressure measurements may reveal a difference of over 20 mmHg, with the right arm showing higher pressure due to its proximity to the heart. The absence or reduction of femoral pulses on one or both sides is also a common finding. While a chest x-ray may show signs associated with aortic dissection, it is not specific enough for diagnosis. Transesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is used to confirm the diagnosis if CT angiography is inconclusive or if the patient is unstable. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is less sensitive and specific than TOE for detecting aortic dissection.

      Understanding Aortic Dissection: Classification, Investigation, and Management

      Aortic dissection is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta, with type A affecting the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B affecting the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification further divides aortic dissection into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, imaging studies such as chest x-ray and CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are essential. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) may be more suitable for unstable patients who cannot undergo CT scanning. Management of type A aortic dissection requires surgical intervention, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting surgery. Type B aortic dissection can be managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression.

      Complications of aortic dissection depend on the location of the tear. Backward tears can lead to aortic incompetence/regurgitation and myocardial infarction, while forward tears can cause unequal arm pulses and blood pressure, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future. It is important to remember that patients may present acutely and be clinically unstable, so the choice of investigations and management should take this into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      104.4
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  • Question 38 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.

      Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist

      Explanation:

      The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath for the past 2 days. She denies having a fever or cough. Her medical history includes type 1 diabetes and uterine fibroids that were surgically removed 3 weeks ago.

      Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is 103 bpm, and her blood pressure is 122/77 mmHg. Her chest sounds are clear, and her oxygen saturation is 92% on air. She is afebrile.

      Laboratory results show a D-dimer level of 1200 ng/mL (< 400) and a troponin level of 24 ng/L (< 14). An ECG reveals sinus tachycardia with T wave inversion in V1-V4.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Apixaban for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Apixaban for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with symptoms of pulmonary embolism, such as chest pain and shortness of breath, are typically treated for 3 months if the PE is provoked. This is especially true for patients who have had recent surgery, as they are at a higher risk for a provoked PE. Clinical signs of a PE include tachycardia, hypoxia, and an elevated D-dimer. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, S1Q3T3, and T-wave inversion in the right-sided leads. Patients with right heart strain may also have raised troponin levels. The treatment of choice for a provoked PE is a low-molecular-weight heparin or a direct oral anticoagulant. Apixaban for 6 months is used for unprovoked PEs without risk factors, while apixaban for 12 months is not routinely prescribed. Dual antiplatelet therapy is used for coronary ischaemia, but a raised D-dimer, hypoxia, and ECG changes suggest a PE is more likely.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.8
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  • Question 40 - A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.

      During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?

      Your Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

      Explanation:

      A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.

      Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis

      Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.

      Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.3
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  • Question 41 - An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.

      During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.

      What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?

      Your Answer: Stress test ECG

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

      In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      71.9
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  • Question 42 - A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental polishing. He has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the recommended prophylaxis for preventing infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis needed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is no longer standard practice to use antibiotics as a preventative measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures, as per the 2008 NICE guidelines which have brought about a significant shift in approach.

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

      The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.4
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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes are observed, along with a slurred upstroke in lead II. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Accessory pathway ablation

      Explanation:

      The definitive treatment for this patient’s Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome is ablation of the accessory pathway.

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

      Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke, also known as a delta wave. The left or right axis deviation depends on the location of the accessory pathway.

      WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, including HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD. The definitive treatment for WPW syndrome is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation.

      In summary, WPW syndrome is a condition caused by a congenital accessory conduction pathway that can lead to rapid degeneration of AF into VF. The ECG features include a short PR interval and a delta wave. WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, and the definitive treatment is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options are available, but sotalol should be avoided in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.4
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  • Question 44 - A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to...

    Correct

    • A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?

      Your Answer: Presence of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.2
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  • Question 45 - A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been radiating to his neck and left arm for the past 3 hours. An ECG reveals ST depression in the inferior leads, and a troponin test is ordered. The patient is given aspirin and sublingual nitrates, and a non-ST elevated myocardial infarction is suspected. The physician conducts a risk assessment to determine the patient's 6-month mortality.

      What factors are taken into account by the doctor during this calculation?

      Your Answer: Age, ECG, heart rate, lactate

      Correct Answer: Age, ECG, troponin, renal function

      Explanation:

      To determine the management of NSTEMI, doctors use a risk assessment score such as GRACE. This score takes into account various factors such as age, ECG, troponin, and renal function, as well as blood pressure, heart rate, and whether the patient experienced a cardiac arrest upon presentation. Renal function is particularly important to consider as it is often affected during an AMI. However, lactate and liver function tests are not included in the GRACE score as they are not typically affected by an MI.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      70.4
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  • Question 46 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dizziness to her General Practitioner. She reports a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dizziness to her General Practitioner. She reports a similar episode six months ago, which was also accompanied by some discomfort in her chest lasting for a short period. Upon further questioning, she admits to feeling her heart beating rapidly in her chest. She is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the best investigation to guide further management?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Arrhythmias: An Overview

      Arrhythmias can cause symptoms such as palpitations and light-headedness. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first-line investigation to determine the type of arrhythmia present. However, if the arrhythmia resolves prior to presentation, a Holter ECG monitor may be required. Tachyarrhythmias are classified according to the QRS complexes as narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. A chest X-ray is not indicated unless there are other signs and symptoms of pneumonia. A D-dimer is not indicated unless there are risk factors for pulmonary embolus (PE) or deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). An echocardiogram is not indicated as a first-line investigation but may be performed in future workup. Troponin levels can increase in some arrhythmias, but the prognostic significance of this elevation is yet to be determined.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 65 year old man comes to you with complaints of palpitations. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man comes to you with complaints of palpitations. Upon conducting an electrocardiogram, you diagnose him with atrial fibrillation. He has no history of cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease and his recent blood tests, including a random glucose test, were normal. His BMI is 28 kg/m² and his blood pressure today is 135/82 mmHg. Determine his CHA2DS2 VASc score for stroke risk.

      Your Answer: 1

      Correct Answer: 0

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril, aspirin and simvastatin. What is the most effective course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention with aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin is recommended.

      Myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), can be managed using evidence-based approaches. Patients without contraindications should be given aspirin and a P2Y12-receptor antagonist, with ticagrelor being preferred over clopidogrel due to improved outcomes despite slightly higher bleeding rates. Unfractionated heparin is typically given to patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), but low-molecular weight heparin can also be used. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely administered, but supplemental oxygen can be given to patients with oxygen saturation levels below 94% or those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.

      Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI, but it may not be available in all centers. Thrombolysis can be performed in patients without access to primary PCI, with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) offering clear mortality benefits over streptokinase. Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile. An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation. If there has not been adequate resolution, rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis. For patients successfully treated with thrombolysis, PCI has been shown to be beneficial, but the optimal timing is still being investigated.

      For patients with diabetes mellitus, NICE recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to keep glucose below 11.0 mmol/l. Intensive insulin therapy regimes are not recommended routinely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for a routine check-up of her hypertension. Despite being treated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily, her blood pressure has been poorly controlled during her last two appointments. During her examination today, her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, pulse 70/minute, respiratory rate 15/min, and she has no fever. What would be the next appropriate step to attempt to control Samantha's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cease amlodipine and swap to ramipril

      Correct Answer: Add candesartan

      Explanation:

      To manage poorly controlled hypertension in patients already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step is to add an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this particular case, since the patient is black, an ARB is the preferred choice. Beta-blockers like metoprolol are not commonly used for hypertension management. Increasing the dose of amlodipine may lead to more side effects, so it is generally better to add multiple drugs at lower doses instead of increasing the dose of one drug to its maximum.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a hypertension review. She has been taking 8 mg of perindopril per day for the last three years. Her average home blood pressure (BP) readings are 150/92 mmHg.
      On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. On investigation, her renal function is normal, as is urine dipstick testing. There is no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy on the electrocardiogram. She is not diabetic.
      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Uncontrolled Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. When first-line treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is not effective, there are several options for adjusting medication to better control blood pressure.

      Switching to a calcium-channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended as a second-line treatment. Thiazide-like diuretics may also be considered. For patients over 55 years old without diabetes, or those of black African or Afro-Caribbean family origin without diabetes, calcium-channel blockers should be started as first-line treatment.

      Increasing the dose of perindopril erbumine beyond the maximum of 8 mg is not safe and may cause renal impairment. Adding atenolol is reserved for patients with known coronary artery disease or inadequately controlled hypertension on maximal doses of other medications.

      Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are no longer recommended by NICE guidance. Instead, thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide are recommended as a second-line alternative to calcium-channel blockers if hypertension is not adequately controlled on maximal doses of first-line treatment.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite medication adjustments, referral for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may be necessary to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical activity. He underwent an exercise test at the cardiology clinic and was prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      After six months, he returned with an increase in the frequency of anginal episodes, which were relieved by GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      What medication would be the most suitable addition to his current treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, it is recommended to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Diltiazem and verapamil should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker due to the risk of life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. Ivabradine and nicorandil can be used as alternatives if a dihydropyridine CCB is not suitable, but should only be initiated under specialist advice.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 58-year-old individual is rushed to the Emergency Department via ambulance, experiencing intense...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old individual is rushed to the Emergency Department via ambulance, experiencing intense chest pain, difficulty breathing, and excessive sweating. The paramedics conducted an ECG on the scene, revealing ST depression in V1-V3 with tall, wide R waves and upward T waves. What should be the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Record a posterior ECG

      Explanation:

      To confirm posterior infarction, a posterior ECG should be recorded when ST elevation and Q waves are present in posterior leads (V7-9). In this case, the patient presented with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction and the ECG showed changes that indicated the need for a posterior ECG. This involves placing leads V4-V6 on the patient’s back to make leads V7-V9. ST-elevation and Q waves in these leads confirm posterior infarction, and the patient should be transferred for primary percutaneous coronary intervention as soon as possible. It is important to have a high index of suspicion for posterior MIs and a low threshold for getting a posterior ECG.

      Giving IV potassium replacement or calcium gluconate IV would be incorrect in this case. These treatments are used for hypokalaemia and severe hyperkalaemia, respectively, and are not the most likely diagnoses. Ibuprofen and colchicine would be appropriate for pericarditis, which presents with chest pain that is worse on lying flat and has characteristic ECG changes. However, the clinical picture and ECG changes in this case are more consistent with ACS.

      A CT aortogram is used to investigate for aortic dissection, which can present with severe chest pain, breathlessness, and sweating. However, it would be best to record a posterior ECG to investigate for posterior MI prior to investigating for an aortic dissection due to the classic features of ACS in the history.

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR

      Explanation:

      When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and asthma, drinks 8 units of alcohol per week, and has never smoked. Her vital signs are within normal limits and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for preventing future episodes, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. If a person experiences chest pain that feels like squeezing during physical activity but goes away with rest, it is likely stable angina. Having high cholesterol levels increases the risk of developing this condition. A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates that there is no ongoing heart attack.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 59 - A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
      Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 60 - After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the...

    Incorrect

    • After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the surgical ward with no detectable pulse. The medical team initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and calls for immediate assistance.
      Once the defibrillator is connected, the team pauses to check the rhythm. Although there is organised electrical activity, there is still no pulse or signs of life.
      In addition to continuing CPR with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths, what other actions should the team take at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intravenous adrenaline

      Explanation:

      In the case of pulseless electrical activity, which is a non-shockable rhythm, the ALS algorithm requires the administration of adrenaline as soon as intravascular access is achieved. This should be done immediately after the rhythm check, following two more minutes of CPR. The recommended dose is 1mg IV, which should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. It is important to note that intramuscular adrenaline is not appropriate for cardiac arrest, and IV amiodarone is not indicated for non-shockable rhythms. While it is correct to avoid shocking the patient, it is incorrect to delay drug administration until the next rhythm check. The most recent Resuscitation Council Guidelines (2021) support the immediate administration of adrenaline in non-shockable rhythms.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - You have requested a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You have requested a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test for a patient with suspected heart failure who is in their 60s. The results have shown a slightly elevated BNP level. What could be a possible factor that may cause a falsely elevated BNP result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COPD

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines on the diagnosis and management of this condition. Previously, the first-line investigation was determined by whether the patient had previously had a myocardial infarction or not. However, this is no longer the case. All patients should now have an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP blood test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis.

      There are different levels of BNP, and each level indicates a different severity of the condition. High levels of BNP are greater than 400 pg/ml (116 pmol/litre) for BNP and greater than 2000 pg/ml (236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Raised levels of BNP are between 100-400 pg/ml (29-116 pmol/litre) for BNP and between 400-2000 pg/ml (47-236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Normal levels of BNP are less than 100 pg/ml (29 pmol/litre) for BNP and less than 400 pg/ml (47 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP.

      It is important to note that several factors can alter the BNP level. Factors that increase BNP levels include left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxaemia (including pulmonary embolism), GFR < 60 ml/min, sepsis, COPD, diabetes, and age > 70. On the other hand, factors that decrease BNP levels include diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      ECG Findings in Various Cardiovascular Conditions

      New-onset left bundle branch block may indicate ischaemic heart disease and could be a sign of STEMI if the patient’s symptoms match the diagnosis. Pericarditis typically causes widespread ST elevation on an ECG. Mitral stenosis can lead to left atrial enlargement and potentially atrial fibrillation. Pulmonary embolism often results in a right bundle branch block or a right ventricular strain pattern of S1Q3T3. Tricuspid stenosis can also cause right ventricular strain. It’s worth noting that mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, and secondary pulmonary hypertension due to PE are associated with right ventricular strain and hypertrophy with partial or complete right bundle branch block, while pericarditis is not typically associated with bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to have a physiological third stage of labor. She experiences a blood loss of 800 ml shortly after delivery. The medical team follows an ABCDE approach and starts a warmed crystalloid infusion. There is no history of medical issues or delivery-related trauma.

      What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compress the uterus and catheterise her

      Explanation:

      To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABCDE approach should be taken, with initial steps including compressing the uterus and catheterising the patient. This is known as ‘mechanical management’ and is appropriate for a primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) where uterine atony is the most common cause. IV warmed crystalloid should also be given. Medical management options such as IV oxytocin or IM/IV carboprost should only be considered if mechanical methods fail. It is important to note that IV carboprost should not be administered as it can lead to serious side effects.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular, monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia on cardiac monitoring. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and has undergone percutaneous coronary intervention for his left anterior descending, right coronary, and circumflex arteries. Physical examination is unremarkable except for tachycardia, and there are no signs of myocardial ischemia on a 12-lead electrocardiogram. Which of the following management options should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia, which is the most probable diagnosis.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. If drug therapy fails, electrical cardioversion may be needed with synchronised DC shocks.

      There are several drugs that can be used to manage ventricular tachycardia, including amiodarone, lidocaine, and procainamide. Amiodarone is ideally administered through a central line, while lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment. Verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) may be conducted, or an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be implanted. The ICD is particularly indicated in patients with significantly impaired LV function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes on metformin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes on metformin hydrochloride presents to her GP after an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring revealed an average reading of 140/83 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to add an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker regardless of age. In this case, Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, would be the appropriate choice. However, if the patient did not have a history of type 2 diabetes, the initial management would be to prescribe a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine, especially if the patient is over 55 years old. If the blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic or calcium channel blocker can be added to the ACE inhibitor. If the blood pressure still remains elevated, a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic can be considered. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that can be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor or as an additional therapy with an ACE inhibitor and calcium channel blocker if the blood pressure is not well controlled. Bisoprolol, a beta-blocker, can also be considered if the blood pressure remains high despite the combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 66 - A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there any medical condition that would make it inappropriate to prescribe bupropion for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Reduced seizure threshold is a contraindication for the use of bupropion in patients with epilepsy.

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 67 - An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease after experiencing a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Although she denies chest pain, she reports an increase in shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, her vital signs are normal, but there is mild pitting edema up to the knees bilaterally. An echocardiogram reveals mild left ventricular impairment with an estimated ejection fraction of 45%. What is the initial treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF is a combination of a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In this case, bisoprolol and ramipril are the appropriate medications to prescribe. The patient’s symptoms, medical history, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction support this treatment plan. Amlodipine and ramipril, bisoprolol and amlodipine, and bisoprolol and furosemide are not recommended as initial treatments for heart failure with reduced LVEF.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 69 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a routine check-up. An ECG reveals absent P waves and irregular R-R intervals. The patient has moderate renal impairment. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticoagulation Treatment for Atrial Fibrillation: A CHADS-VASc Scoring System Overview

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common rhythm disturbance that can increase the risk of stroke. To determine the appropriate treatment for primary prevention of stroke, healthcare professionals use the CHADS-VASc scoring system. This system assigns points based on various risk factors, including age, sex, hypertension, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, and vascular disease.

      This score is based on a point system in which 2 points are assigned for a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack or age 75 years or more and 1 point each is assigned for age 65 to 74 years; a history of hypertension, diabetes, recent cardiac failure, vascular disease (myocardial infarction, complex aortic plaque, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD), including prior revascularization, amputation due to PAD, or angiographic evidence of PAD, etc.); and female gender, resulting in a maximum score of 9 points.

      Score Risk Anticoagulation Therapy
      0 (male) or 1 (female) Low No anticoagulant therapy
      1 (male) Moderate Oral anticoagulant should be considered
      2 or greater High Oral anticoagulant is recommended

      Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of stroke in patients with AF, but may be used for secondary prevention after a stroke. Clexane, a low-molecular-weight heparin, is not used for long-term treatment of AF. Dipyridamole may be used in combination with clopidogrel or aspirin for stroke treatment, but not for prevention in AF patients.

      It is important to accurately identify AF and assess the patient’s risk using the CHADS-VASc scoring system to determine the appropriate anticoagulation treatment. NOACs are only licensed for non-valvular AF, so patients with valvular AF should be treated with warfarin or seek advice from a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 70 - An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses of atropine, the patient's condition remains unchanged with a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 98%, and a temperature of 37.3ºC. The patient is experiencing confusion, sweating, and has cold and clammy extremities. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External pacing

      Explanation:

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
      Result Normal
      Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
      Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
      Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
      Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
      You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis

      Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. Auscultation reveals a 2/6 mid-systolic murmur in the mitral area that increases upon sudden standing. The ECG shows LVH and Q waves in V1–4 leads.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Dyspnoea and a Murmur: Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition that can lead to sudden death in young athletes and is characterized by dyspnoea, LVH, and a loud S4. The systolic murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy does not radiate to the carotids and can be differentiated from aortic stenosis, which causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that does radiate to the carotids. Young-onset hypertension is unlikely to cause a murmur, and acute myocardial infarction would show ST elevation or depression on ECG, but not LVH. Atrial septal defect is usually picked up in newborn checks and presents with a brief murmur in early systole and early diastole, while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with a double or triple apical impulse and a characteristic jerky carotid pulse. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy to prevent sudden death in young athletes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 73 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 87-year-old male presents to the emergency department after collapsing. Upon arrival, an...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old male presents to the emergency department after collapsing. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals complete heart block with a heart rate of 35 bpm. The patient reports feeling dizzy. Despite receiving 500 micrograms of IV atropine, there is no improvement. This is repeated five more times, but the heart rate remains below 40 bpm even after transcutaneous pacing is attempted. What is the next recommended step according to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvenous pacing

      Explanation:

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in the coronary care unit. The heart monitor records this event. An emergency call is made and a defibrillator is quickly brought to the scene. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then commence CPR

      Explanation:

      In a witnessed cardiac arrest with VF/VT rhythm, up to three quick successive shocks should be given before starting chest compressions. This is regarded as the first shock in the ALS algorithm. Adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes and a praecordial thump should only be used if a defibrillator is not available. Commencing CPR after just one shock would miss the opportunity to deliver three rapid shocks.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset of difficulty breathing. During the examination, the patient displays an S3 gallop rhythm, bibasal crepitations, and pitting edema up to both knees. An ECG reveals indications of left ventricular hypertrophy, and a chest X-ray shows small bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomegaly, and upper lobe diversion.
      Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following medications has been proven to enhance long-term survival?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits symptoms of congestive heart failure, which can be managed with loop diuretics and nitrates in acute or decompensated cases. However, these medications do not improve long-term survival. To reduce mortality in patients with left ventricular failure, ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin receptor blockers, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine with nitrates have all been proven effective. Digoxin can reduce hospital admissions but not mortality, and is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to initial treatments or have co-existing atrial fibrillation.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - In an adult patient with Marfan syndrome, what is the most frequently observed...

    Incorrect

    • In an adult patient with Marfan syndrome, what is the most frequently observed cardiovascular abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Marfan Syndrome: A Connective Tissue Disorder with Cardiovascular Manifestations

      Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder that presents with a wide range of clinical manifestations. The ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular systems are characteristically involved. Aortic root dilatation, occurring in 70-80% of cases, is the most common cardiovascular manifestation, followed by mitral valve prolapse at 60-70%. Mitral annular calcification is less common, occurring in 8-15% of cases. Aortic dissection, accounting for around 5% of all cases, is more likely in patients with Marfan syndrome, especially those with severe aortic root dilatation.

      The weakening of the aortic media leads to a fusiform ascending aortic aneurysm, which may be complicated by aortic regurgitation and aortic dissection. Mitral regurgitation can result from mitral valve prolapse, dilatation of a mitral valve annulus, or mitral annular calcification. Pregnancy is particularly hazardous for patients with Marfan syndrome. Treatment with β blockers can reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring. The average reading was 152/96 mmHg, and he has no medical history. During today's visit, his heart rate is 78 bpm, blood pressure is 160/102 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 97%. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient of black African or African-Caribbean origin with hypertension, adding a calcium channel blocker (CCB) such as nifedipine is recommended as the first-line treatment. This is because ACE inhibitors and ARBs are less effective in patients of these ethnicities. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient if the patient’s average blood pressure reading on ambulatory monitoring is greater than 150/95 mmHg. Ramipril is not the first-line option for this patient population, and Losartan is a second-line option after CCBs.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 79 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide

      Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.

      Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.

      Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.

      Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.

      A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.

      Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.

      Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 80 - A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. Upon arrival at the emergency department, his heart rate is recorded at 50/min. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation and bradycardia with a 1st-degree heart block. Based on the provided information, which leads are expected to display the ST elevation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II, III and aVF

      Explanation:

      An ST-elevated myocardial infarction affecting the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) can cause arrhythmias due to the involvement of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the AV node. This is evidenced by the patient’s presentation with 1st-degree heart block following the MI.

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive in a local park. Upon admission, his temperature is 30.2 ºC and an ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia. The patient is diagnosed with torsades de pointes. What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be treated with IV magnesium sulfate.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 82 - A 63-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She completed a 6 month course of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She completed a 6 month course of warfarin a year ago after being diagnosed with an unprovoked, proximal deep vein thrombosis. Over the past few weeks, she has been experiencing a sensation of heaviness and aching in the same leg, accompanied by itching and some swelling that subsides each night. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, there are prominent varicose veins on the affected leg, and the skin above the medial malleolus is discolored. The calves have no difference in circumference. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.9ºC, pulse 78/min, and blood pressure 108/82 mmHg. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-thrombotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of pruritus and pain that gradually worsen, along with the results of the examination, indicate a high likelihood of post-thrombotic syndrome.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      In the past, compression stockings were offered to patients with DVT to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. However, current recommendations state that elastic graduated compression stockings should not be used to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome or VTE recurrence after a proximal DVT. This recommendation does not cover the use of elastic stockings for the management of leg symptoms after DVT.

      Once post-thrombotic syndrome has developed, compression stockings are a recommended treatment. Other recommendations include keeping the leg elevated. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the potential complications of DVT and to provide appropriate management to prevent the development of post-thrombotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 83 - You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as...

    Incorrect

    • You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 6.4 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 13.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 µmol/l
      You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Widening of the QRS complex

      Explanation:

      ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.

      Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.

      Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 84 - A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three months ago and commenced on ramipril. Despite titrating up to 10mg od, his blood pressure remains at 156/92 mmHg. What is the next best course of action in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 85 - A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and you are contemplating prescribing an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should you avoid prescribing to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      A prolonged QT interval may be caused by Erythromycin.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 86 - A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections, osteoporosis and diabetes, attends outpatients with a blood pressure reading of 192/88 mmHg. Which of the following medications would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: A Guide

      When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.

      If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

      For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 87 - A 62-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that has been radiating to her left arm for the past 30 minutes. Upon examination, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery.
      Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected.
      Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved.
      Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected.
      Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery.
      Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 88 - A 56-year-old man is scheduled for the removal of three decayed teeth. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is scheduled for the removal of three decayed teeth. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and a mechanical aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis. What prophylaxis should he receive to prevent infective endocarditis before the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

      The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 89 - A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and is currently prescribed aspirin 75mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and atenolol 100 mg once daily. If his angina symptoms are not adequately managed with this regimen, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      When beta-blockers fail to control angina, it is recommended to supplement with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that has a longer duration of action.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 90 - A 61-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health check. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health check. He has a medical history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His most recent HbA1c is 56 mmol/mol (7.3%). During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 160/80 mmHg. Subsequently, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is conducted, which shows an average daytime blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. What is the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients, the first-line medication should be ACE inhibitors such as ramipril. However, this may not be suitable for individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent or women who may become pregnant. In case of a cough developing with ACE inhibitors, an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist like losartan should be prescribed. If the patient is not diabetic, calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or diuretics such as indapamide would be the preferred initial treatment. Beta blockers like propranolol are not typically the first choice for hypertension treatment, but may be considered for young patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or women attempting to conceive.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 91 - What is the recommended next step in managing the blood pressure of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended next step in managing the blood pressure of a 42 year old woman with a history of depression and a recent paracetamol overdose who has a manual blood pressure reading of 165/85 mmHg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For a more detailed explanation, refer to the provided link.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he feels very well, he is concerned, as his father had a myocardial infarction (MI) at the age of 43.
      On examination, his blood pressure and pulse are normal. His body mass index (BMI) is also within the normal range. There is a white/grey opacity surrounding the periphery of his cornea in both eyes.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipid profile

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Laboratory Tests for Cardiovascular Health Check

      To assess a patient’s cardiovascular health, various laboratory tests may be conducted. However, the choice of tests should be based on the patient’s symptoms, medical history, and physical examination. In the case of a patient with signs of hyperlipidaemia, a lipid profile would be the most appropriate test to diagnose familial hyperlipidaemia. On the other hand, an ECG would be indicated if there was a family history of sudden death to rule out underlying rhythm issues. A fasting glucose test would not be necessary in this case, but it may be conducted as part of a cardiovascular health check. A full blood count would not aid in the diagnosis of hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted if the patient was experiencing chest pain to exclude anaemia as a cause of his symptoms. Lastly, a renal profile would not aid in the diagnosis of familial hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted to rule out secondary causes if the patient were hypertensive.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 93 - A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club when an ejection systolic murmur is found. He is sent for echocardiogram and subsequently diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Despite a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and regular pulse, which complication of this condition is most likely to result in sudden death for this athlete?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      Young athletes with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy are at risk of sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmia. This is believed to be caused by ventricular tachycardia resulting from ischaemia, which typically occurs during extreme exertion. Unlike myocardial infarction, which is commonly associated with atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries, it is unlikely for a young person to develop this condition. However, cocaine use may increase the risk of MI in young people. Although HOCM may cause a regurgitant mitral valve, valve rupture is not a known complication. While heart block may occur in some cases of HOCM, it is rare and is unlikely to cause sudden death.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 94 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted with chronic congestive heart failure.

    Based on this...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted with chronic congestive heart failure.

      Based on this history, what is the most important factor to consider when prescribing medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of a β-blocker reduces mortality

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Heart Failure: A Summary of Medications and Their Effects

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management to improve symptoms and reduce mortality rates. Two medications that have been found to be effective in reducing mortality are β-blockers and ACE inhibitors. These medications work by reducing afterload and should be offered as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, have no mortality benefit but can provide symptomatic relief. Digoxin, while effective in providing symptomatic relief, has been found to increase mortality rates and should be used with caution. Spironolactone, however, has been shown to greatly reduce mortality and sudden cardiac death rates and should be added to the treatment. Finally, while angiotensin II receptor antagonists can be used in patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors or added to ACE inhibitors and β-blockers if patients remain symptomatic, ACE inhibitors have been found to result in better prognosis. It is important to carefully consider the benefits and risks of each medication when treating patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 95 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 96 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and nausea. He is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V2-V4, and troponin levels are elevated. The patient receives a STAT 300mg aspirin, and there are no immediate plans for primary PCI. According to the GRACE score, the 6-month mortality risk is 8.0%. The patient is stable. What is the best course of treatment going forward?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux, prasugrel or ticagrelor, and refer for coronary angiography within 72 hours

      Explanation:

      The current treatment plan of prescribing fondaparinux, clopidogrel, and scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months is incorrect. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for patients with a higher risk of bleeding or those taking an oral anticoagulant. Additionally, delaying definitive treatment for a high-risk patient by scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months could lead to increased mortality. Instead, a more appropriate treatment plan would involve prescribing prasugrel, unfractionated heparin, and a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor, and referring the patient for urgent PCI within 2 hours. However, it should be noted that this treatment plan is specific to patients with STEMI and access to PCI facilities.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 97 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
      Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 98 - A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 30 minutes. The pain is constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing.
      On examination, the patient is in shock, with a palpable 7 cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. Her past medical history includes a 5 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed three years ago at the time of appendectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks one glass of wine a week.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain: A Differential Diagnosis

      Sudden-onset severe back pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aortic aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This suspicion is supported by the presence of shock, a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium, and severe back pain that may radiate to the abdomen. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, and blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space before spilling into the peritoneal cavity.

      Other possible causes of sudden-onset severe back pain include acute cholecystitis, which is unlikely in a patient who had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may also cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back, but this condition is usually accompanied by vomiting and diarrhea, and the patient does not have significant risk factors for it. Renal colic, which is characterized by acute severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, may cause tachycardia but is less likely in a patient who is haemodynamically unstable and has a known large AAA. Herniated lumbar disc, which may cause back pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, is also less likely in this case.

      Therefore, a rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm is the most probable cause of the patient’s sudden-onset severe back pain, and urgent management is necessary to prevent further complications.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 99 - You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for a regular check-up. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, stage 2 CKD, hypertension, and gout. Despite her conditions, she is able to function well on her own and her blood pressure today is 125/72 mmHg. Which medication would you suggest discontinuing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Assessing medications in elderly patients can be challenging, as they may be taking unnecessary or harmful drugs. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidance on medications that should be considered for discontinuation in the elderly. In this case, the patient has gout, which can be aggravated by bendroflumethiazide, an outdated thiazide diuretic that is no longer recommended by NICE. Additionally, her blood pressure is well below the target for her age, which is 150/90 mmHg in clinic. Ramipril is a more suitable antihypertensive medication to continue for now, but it may also be discontinued if her blood pressure remains low. The patient requires aspirin and atorvastatin for her ischemic heart disease, and allopurinol for her gout.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 100 - A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up. His average blood pressure over the past two weeks has been 168/100 mmHg and today in the clinic it is 176/102 mmHg. He is currently taking a combination of telmisartan 80 mg and hydrochlorothiazide 25mg tablets, as well as amlodipine 10mg daily. The latest laboratory results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled moderate hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add spironolactone if their potassium level is less than 4.5mmol/L. Atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line agent if the potassium level is over 4.5mmol/L, but spironolactone is preferred according to NICE guidelines. Hydralazine should not be used outside of specialist care, and indapamide is not the best option as the patient is already taking a thiazide diuretic. Prazosin is an alternative to spironolactone, but spironolactone is preferred given the lower potassium level.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 101 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from work. She complains of experiencing a 'fluttering' sensation in her chest for the past 30 minutes. Although she admits to feeling 'a bit faint,' she denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, the results show a regular tachycardia of 166 bpm with a QRS duration of 110 ms. Her blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on room air. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid sinus massage

      Explanation:

      Vagal manoeuvres, such as carotid sinus massage or the Valsalva manoeuvre, are the initial treatment for supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine should only be administered if these manoeuvres are ineffective. According to the ALS guidelines, direct current cardioversion is not recommended for this condition.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 102 - An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate compressions and notify the resuscitation team. Upon rhythm assessment, VT is detected. Following three rounds of CPR and multiple shocks, which two medications are recommended in the ALS protocol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone 300mg and adrenaline 1mg

      Explanation:

      During advanced ALS, the recommended dose of adrenaline to administer is 1mg. If the patient is identified in the hospital, they should receive a minimum shock of 150 joules (unless the defibrillator model specifies otherwise). Compressions at a rate of 30:2 should be resumed for 2 minutes, followed by reassessment of the rhythm. If VF or pVT persists, a second shock should be given. Repeat the previous steps until the third shock, at which point 1mg IV of adrenaline and 300 mg IV of amiodarone should be administered while continuing CPR. Afterward, 1mg of adrenaline should be given after every other shock. Consider administering a second dose of amiodarone after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts if it is available. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

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      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 103 - A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed away due to an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He inquires if he will be screened for this condition and when should he start screening?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single abdominal ultrasound at 65

      Explanation: <