00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and oliguria....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and oliguria. Upon examination, she displays swollen, tight fingers and rough, thickened patches of skin on her neck and arms, as well as telangiectasia on her face. She also has bilateral lower limb pitting edema to the mid-tibia and is experiencing confusion. At triage, her blood pressure is measured at 223/125 mmHg. Her blood work reveals elevated levels of creatinine and urea compared to her results from one year ago. What treatment option is most likely to decrease the likelihood of her experiencing another renal crisis in the future?

      Your Answer: IV cyclophosphamide

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient appears to have diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, a condition that causes widespread skin involvement and early organ fibrosis. One potential complication is scleroderma renal crisis, which can be fatal and presents with sudden onset hypertension and rapidly progressing renal failure. Treatment with ACE-inhibitors like ramipril can reduce mortality and risk of further crises, while calcium channel blockers may be added if necessary. IV cyclophosphamide is used for immunosuppression in organ or skin involvement, but not for renal crisis. Bisoprolol is not indicated for systemic sclerosis management.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sudden exacerbation of her symptoms. She reports bilateral sciatica, left foot drop, perianal paraesthesia, and urinary incontinence over the past 24 hours. What imaging is necessary to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI spine

      Explanation:

      When a patient is suspected to have cauda equina syndrome, it is crucial to conduct an urgent MRI of the spine for investigation. This is the preferred method of investigation to determine the cause of the syndrome. The most common cause is a herniated intravertebral disc that compresses the cauda equina. Other possible causes include primary or metastatic spinal tumors, infections like epidural abscesses, or hematomas. Imaging is necessary to identify the specific pathology causing the syndrome, determine the level of pathology, and guide the appropriate intervention. The article Cauda equina syndrome by Lavy C and Wilson-MacDonald J in BMJ 2009;338:b936 provides further information on this topic.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in his right knee after sustaining an injury while playing football. According to him, he was tackled from behind and felt a sudden 'pop' in his knee, followed by rapid swelling. During the examination, a knee effusion is observed on the right side, and the Lachman test is positive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture

      Explanation:

      If there is rapid swelling in a joint, it could indicate haemoarthrosis caused by a rupture of the ACL or PCL. The injury mechanism suggests an ACL rupture, and a positive Lachman test further supports this.

      Direct blows to the medial aspect of the leg are the most common cause of LCL injuries, which can result in gradual joint effusion and tenderness along the lateral joint line.

      Likewise, MCL injuries typically occur from direct blows to the lateral aspect of the leg, causing strain on the MCL ligament. This can lead to gradual joint effusion and tenderness along the medial joint line.

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing non displaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 33-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a car accident. He...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a car accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his right ankle and is unable to put any weight on it. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the distal tibia and there is an absence of the dorsalis pedis pulse on the right side. No neurological symptoms are observed. An X-ray confirms the presence of a displaced fracture in the ankle. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Reduce the fracture

      Explanation:

      Prompt reduction of an ankle fracture is crucial to avoid skin damage, as pressure on the skin can result in skin necrosis.

      Before contacting a vascular surgeon, it is essential to reduce the fracture to prevent bone displacement from compressing the artery. If the pulse remains absent after reduction, then it is appropriate to call a vascular surgeon.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year old woman who is currently 20 weeks pregnant is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 35-year old woman who is currently 20 weeks pregnant is concerned about the possibility of her child having congenital hip dislocation. She herself had the condition at birth, which went undiagnosed for 15 months and required corrective surgery. Despite the surgery, she has experienced hip pain throughout her adult life and is now scheduled for a hip replacement due to osteoarthritis. What is a known risk factor for congenital hip dislocation?

      Your Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Congenital hip dislocation is more likely to occur in females, babies who were in a breech presentation, those with a family history of the condition, firstborns, and those with oligohydramnios. The left hip is more commonly affected and screening for the condition can be done through the Barlow and Ortolani tests during a baby check. Ultrasound examination can also be done for at-risk babies to detect congenital hip dislocation.

      Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy

      The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.

      Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.

      The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of bilateral muscle weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of bilateral muscle weakness in her shoulders and hips. She reports difficulty getting out of chairs without assistance and experiences breathlessness and fatigue. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 130/75 mmHg. Proximal muscle strength is symmetrically 4/5, while distal strength is normal. No skin rashes or arthralgia are present. Laboratory results show Hb 116 g/L (115 - 160), WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Creatine kinase 1250 U/L (35 - 250), Urea 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120), and ESR 60 mm/hr (<40). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these features?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is polymyositis, as she presents with true bilateral proximal muscle weakness, shortness of breath, and fatigue, along with elevated ESR and CK levels indicating muscle inflammation and injury. Dermatomyositis is less likely as no skin changes are mentioned. Motor neurone disease is also unlikely as it does not cause muscle tissue inflammation or elevated CK levels. Polymyalgia rheumatica is also unlikely as it does not present with true muscle weakness and is not associated with elevated CK levels.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms....

    Correct

    • John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms. He reported feeling feverish on and off for the past few months, experiencing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of around 3kg, and general muscle aches and pains. He was not taking any medication. Upon examination, his doctor found no abnormalities in his observations or physical examination. The doctor ordered a full blood count, which showed the following results:

      - Hb 112g/L Male: (130 - 180)
      - Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 3.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Lymphocytes 2.8 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
      - Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
      - Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)
      - Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      Based on these results, the doctor suspects that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and orders further blood tests. Which test, if positive, would best indicate that John is likely to have this condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He has a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary in the absence of septic joint or red flag features. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?

      Your Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated

      Explanation:

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old is brought in with a fracture that affects the physis, metaphysis,...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old is brought in with a fracture that affects the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis of their left femur. What Salter-Harris classification does this fracture fall under?

      Your Answer: Salter-Harris IV

      Explanation:

      A Salter Harris 4 fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in children and involves damage to the growth plate, as well as the metaphysis and epiphysis of the bone. Unfortunately, this type of fracture is associated with a poor prognosis. The Salter-Harris classification system provides a more comprehensive breakdown of the different types of fractures that can occur in children.

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and stiffness that has persisted for over 3 months. He denies any history of injury. The patient reports that his symptoms are worse in the morning but improve with exercise. Routine blood tests were normal except for an ESR of 30 mm/hour (normal range: 0-15) and a CRP of 15 mg/L (normal range: <10). A plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints reveals erosions, sclerosis, and joint space widening, leading to a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Exercise and NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is primarily managed through exercise and NSAIDs. NSAIDs are effective in relieving symptoms and preventing functional limitations, while regular exercise, including postural training, range of motion exercises, stretching, and recreational activities like swimming, can help reduce and prevent functional limitations.

      To measure disease activity, the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score (ASDAS) is used, which categorizes disease activity as inactive, low, high, or very high. If a patient has persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments with NSAIDs, anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) therapy may be considered. However, the disease activity must be at least high (≥2.1) on ASDAS to warrant biologic therapy.

      Glucocorticoids are not recommended for patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Methotrexate may be prescribed if conventional treatment with NSAIDs does not control symptoms, specifically for persistent peripheral arthritis.

      In severe cases where the disease has progressed, surgery may be necessary. Hip and spine surgery may be beneficial for select patients with persistent pain or severe limitation in mobility, neurologic impairment, or severe flexion deformities.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of low back pain. The pain is more severe at night and frequently spreads to his hips. It gets better with physical activity. He is also experiencing light sensitivity in both eyes and decreased vision in his left eye. Despite taking oral NSAIDs, his symptoms have not improved. What would be the most suitable medication for the next stage of treatment?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a condition that can cause acute iritis in approximately one-third of patients. This man is displaying typical symptoms of AS and is also experiencing acute iritis. Since oral NSAIDs have not been effective, the next course of action would be to consider TNF-alpha blockers like infliximab and etanercept. DMARDs such as methotrexate and leflunomide have not been found to be helpful in treating AS. While capsaicin may be useful for osteoarthritis, it is not indicated for AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old female presents with stiff and swollen joints. She reports that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents with stiff and swollen joints. She reports that the joints are especially stiff in the morning for the first few hours of the day. Her mother and sister have a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). On examination, she has symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hand. Rheumatoid factor antibody, anti-nuclear antibody, and anti-dsDNA are all negative.
      Which of the following tests is the most suitable?

      Your Answer: Serum uric acid levels

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibody

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria such as those defined by the American College of Rheumatology. However, the college has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis that require patients to have at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. The criteria also include scoring based on joint involvement, serology (RF and ACPA), acute-phase reactants (CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 48-year-old woman is seen in rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is seen in rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis. Despite trying various medications, she has not experienced much relief from her symptoms. The rheumatologist decides to prescribe hydroxychloroquine for her.
      What are the potential adverse effects that the patient should be informed about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is known to have a severe and permanent side effect on the retina, known as ‘bull’s eye retinopathy’, which can result in significant visual loss. Recent studies suggest that this side effect is more common than previously thought, and the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends regular monitoring. While hydroxychloroquine may also cause keratopathy, this is considered less harmful. The other ocular effects listed as options are not associated with hydroxychloroquine.
      Long-term steroid use is known to cause cataracts and open-angle glaucoma.
      While case reports have linked bisphosphonates to scleritis and uveitis, there is limited data on this association. However, these conditions are commonly associated with rheumatological and inflammatory disorders.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee. An x-ray reveals osteoarthritis. He has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of osteoarthritis, the first-line medications are paracetamol and topical NSAIDs (if the affected area is the knee or hand). Oral NSAIDs should only be used as a second-line option due to their potential adverse effects.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.

      Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.

      Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral side of her left thigh for the past two weeks. The pain has been gradually worsening and extends downwards to just above her left knee. She reports that the pain is more intense when she sleeps on her left side and sometimes wakes her up at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes point tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the left hip, which triggers the radiation of the pain down the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when the hip is passively externally rotated. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of lower back pain that has been ongoing for the past week. The pain has gradually worsened over the last few days, and he is now unable to change his posture due to the severity of the pain. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use and had visited his GP earlier in the month for shortness of breath and a low-grade fever. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 40ºC, needle track marks on his forearm, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region, and severe restriction of movement in his back. A urine dip test reveals the presence of blood, but no other abnormalities are found. An MRI of the spine confirms a diagnosis of discitis. What other urgent investigations should be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Patients who use intravenous drugs and have infective endocarditis may exhibit symptoms of discitis.

      The patient in question displays signs of infective endocarditis, including a mild fever, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region (likely tricuspid regurgitation), and blood in their urine. Although these symptoms may seem unrelated, they are consistent with endocarditis. Septic emboli from the heart can travel to various parts of the body, causing inflammation and damage to tissues such as the intervertebral disc space and renal parenchyma. This can result in back pain and hematuria. It is important to rule out this condition by obtaining images of the heart.

      An MRI of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder would be an expensive way to diagnose kidney stones and would not provide any additional diagnostic benefit in this case. Surgical exploration is too invasive at this stage, and the issue lies with the heart rather than the kidneys. An X-ray of the kidneys would not be helpful in this situation.

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that does not affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities. What is the most precise diagnostic test for this patient's probable condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a diagnosis of systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus. You intend to initiate monotherapy with hydroxychloroquine. What particular monitoring should be considered before starting this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual acuity and fundoscopy

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which can be detected through visual acuity and fundoscopy. It is recommended to conduct baseline screening and annual screening after 5 years of use. Echocardiography, liver function tests, pregnancy tests, and tuberculosis screening are not necessary for monitoring hydroxychloroquine use.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with significant elbow pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with significant elbow pain, following a fall from a playground swing. He is unable to fully extend or supinate his elbow joint. Upon examination, there are no other alarming findings. X-ray imaging confirms a diagnosis of radial head subluxation. The child has been administered pain relief, which has provided some relief. What is the best course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Passive supination of the elbow joint whilst flexed to 90 degrees

      Explanation:

      Passive supination of the elbow joint at 90 degrees of flexion is the recommended treatment for subluxation of the radial head, which commonly occurs in young children due to pulling injuries. Pain management and reduction of the radial head into position are the main goals of management. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Open reduction and internal fixation (option A) and K-wire fixation (option B) are not necessary and too invasive for this condition. Cast immobilization and fracture clinic follow-up (option D) are not indicated as there are no fractures present. An intervention is necessary (option E) due to functional limitation and significant pain.

      Subluxation of the Radial Head in Children

      Subluxation of the radial head, also known as pulled elbow, is a common upper limb injury in children under the age of 6. This is because the annular ligament covering the radial head has a weaker distal attachment in children at this age group. The signs of this injury include elbow pain and limited supination and extension of the elbow. However, children may refuse examination on the affected elbow due to the pain.

      To manage this injury, analgesia is recommended to alleviate the pain. Additionally, passively supinating the elbow joint while the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees can help treat the injury. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain persists or worsens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 79-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of worsening pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of worsening pain in her left knee for the past 6 months. The pain is more pronounced during the day and subsides at night or when she is at rest. She experiences increased stiffness in the morning, which takes around 15 minutes to resolve. She denies any joint problems in the past and is currently taking amlodipine for hypertension, which is well controlled. She has no known drug allergies. What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol and topical NSAIDS

      Explanation:

      It is likely that this woman is suffering from osteoarthritis in her right knee. Patients with osteoarthritis typically experience morning symptoms lasting less than 30 minutes. The recommended first-line pharmacological treatments for knee or hip arthritis are paracetamol and topical NSAIDs. Methotrexate is typically used for rheumatoid arthritis, while oral bisphosphonates are more appropriate for osteoporosis and not recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoarthritis. Following the analgesia ladder, patients should start with simple analgesia and increase dosage as needed. For those with hip or knee osteoarthritis, topical NSAIDs are preferred over oral NSAIDs.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.

      Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.

      Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is not well controlled. His rheumatologist suggests starting him on a new medication. In cases of predominantly axial disease, how many non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs must be ineffective before anti-TNF alpha inhibitors can be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      In cases of axial ankylosing spondylitis that have not responded to two different NSAIDs and meet the criteria for active disease on two separate occasions 12 weeks apart, the use of anti-TNF alpha inhibitors is recommended. Additionally, physiotherapy should be incorporated throughout the treatment process.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of back pain. He reports experiencing a sharp, burning pain in the middle of his back over the past few days. The pain is severe enough to wake him up at night and he has found little relief with paracetamol. He is requesting a stronger medication. He denies any leg weakness, urinary incontinence, or numbness.

      The patient has no other medical conditions, but he recalls being informed of an irregular prostate during his last visit with his primary care physician six months ago. He received letters for further testing but did not attend the appointments.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately refer him to the hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      When patients present with back pain, thoracic pain should be considered a warning sign. In this particular case, the patient’s back pain has several red-flag features, including its location in the middle of the back, sudden onset and progression, night pain, and recent prostate exam results. These symptoms are highly indicative of metastatic prostate cancer with spinal cord compression, which is a medical emergency. Immediate hospital assessment is necessary, along with a whole-body MRI and treatment such as high dose dexamethasone, radiotherapy, and surgery if needed. Any response that fails to recognize the urgency of this situation is incorrect.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a football injury resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a football injury resulting in a fracture. Despite reduction, the patient is experiencing severe pain, especially during passive stretching. The affected arm is visibly swollen, and the patient reports tingling sensations in their hand and forearm. What type of fracture is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supracondylar fracture

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is often linked to fractures in the supracondylar region of the arm and the tibial shaft in the lower leg. Symptoms include excessive pain, especially during passive stretching, as well as swelling and paraesthesia in the affected limb. Late signs may include numbness and paralysis.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that his fingers turn white and become numb when exposed to cold, and then turn blue upon rewarming. His medical history is unremarkable, and he works in construction. On examination, there is no evidence of digital ulcers, calcinosis, chilblains, rash, or arthralgia. His blood results show a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelet count of 260 * 109/L, WBC count of 6.2 * 109/L, and ESR of 10mm/hr. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of vibrating tools

      Explanation:

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in his back that radiates to his right groin. The pain started three days ago, has been progressively worsening, and is exacerbated by walking. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. He also reports feeling feverish and experiencing chills for the past 24 hours.

      The patient has no significant medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, drinks 30 units of alcohol per week, and injects heroin daily. Upon examination, his heart rate is 96/minute, respiratory rate is 14/minute, blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 98%. His temperature is 38.4 ºC.

      During examination of the spine and right hip, he experiences pain on movement of the hip joint, particularly flexion, but is not tender on palpation of the spine or hip joint. There is no evidence of swelling or erythema of the spine or hips, and no difference in temperature. Abdominal examination reveals a soft and non-tender abdomen, without organomegaly and present bowel sounds. The kidneys are non-ballotable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliopsoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with fever and back or flank pain, it is important to consider the possibility of an iliopsoas abscess. This condition is indicated by pain in the hip joint area, along with a fever and pain during movement. Iliopsoas abscess occurs when there is a collection of pus within the iliopsoas muscle, which extends from the T12 – L5 vertebrae to the femur’s lesser trochanter. Intravenous drug use is a risk factor for developing this condition.

      Vertebral osteomyelitis, on the other hand, usually presents with tenderness, swelling, and weakness of the surrounding muscles over the infected vertebrae. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head may cause groin pain, but given the patient’s fever and IVDU status, an iliopsoas abscess is more likely. Kidney stones can cause constant pain from the loin to the groin, while appendicitis usually presents with pain in the umbilical region or right iliac fossa. The patient’s normal abdominal exam also makes appendicitis less likely.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling...

    Incorrect

    • A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling on her outstretched left hand during recess. She is experiencing pain and swelling around her left elbow and forearm.
      Upon examination:
      Heart rate: 92/minute. Respiratory rate: 20/minute. Blood pressure: 102/70 mmHg. Oxygen saturations: 99%. Temperature: 37.5 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
      Left arm: the elbow is swollen and red. The skin is intact. The joint is tender to the touch and has limited range of motion. Sensation is normal. Pulses are present.
      Right arm: normal.
      X-rays of the patient’s left elbow and forearm reveal a proximal fracture of the ulna with a dislocation of the proximal radial head.
      What is the term used to describe this injury pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monteggia fracture

      Explanation:

      A Monteggia fracture is characterized by a dislocated proximal radioulnar joint and a fractured ulna. This type of fracture is most commonly observed in children aged 4 to 10 years old. To differentiate it from a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture and a dislocated distal radioulnar joint, one can associate the name of the fracture with the affected bone: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Bennett’s fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with complaints of heightened pain and stiffness in her wrists and fatigue for the past week. Upon examination, there is slight swelling and tenderness in both wrists. The patient has been taking sulfasalazine for the past 5 years without any issues. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone IM

      Explanation:

      Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. The bilateral swelling and tenderness in the wrists presented by the patient is a typical symptom of an acute flare of rheumatoid arthritis. According to NICE guidelines, oral or intramuscular steroids are recommended for the treatment of such flares. Methylprednisolone is the most appropriate choice as it primarily inhibits proinflammatory cytokine production, providing rapid relief from pain and discomfort by reducing inflammation.

      In addition to steroids, the patient’s sulfasalazine dose may be increased or changed to another DMARD. Steroids can be used as a bridging treatment to control inflammation while the DMARD takes effect. Leflunomide would be prescribed if sulfasalazine is not managing the rheumatoid arthritis effectively. TNF inhibitors such as etanercept or infliximab are indicated only after an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate.

      Although paracetamol can be useful for baseline pain management, it is not the most appropriate treatment for this flare of rheumatoid arthritis. Steroids are required to reduce inflammation and form a crucial part of the patient’s management.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (9/14) 64%
Passmed