-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.
He experiences four attacks within six months, prompting you to prescribe allopurinol to reduce his serum urate level.
What target level of serum urate would you aim for?Your Answer: <4 µmol/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Recommended Levels of Homocysteine
Homocysteine is a naturally occurring amino acid in the body that can be harmful in high levels. The upper limit of normal for homocysteine was previously set at 0.42 µmol/L, with reducing levels below that considered acceptable. However, recent guidelines have recommended even lower levels, with most sources suggesting levels below 0.36 µmol/L and the latest guidelines aiming for 0.30 µmol/L. It is important to monitor homocysteine levels and take steps to reduce them if they are too high, as elevated levels have been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and other health issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.
During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?Your Answer: MRI lumbosacral spine
Correct Answer: No investigation necessary
Explanation:Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.
CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.
MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.
While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.
Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.
Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man complains of pain and numbness extending from the buttocks down the legs when he walks about 200 metres. His legs become weak and he has to stop. To obtain relief, he has to sit down. His femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are easily palpable in both legs. He has type 2 diabetes.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurogenic Intermittent Claudication
Neurogenic intermittent claudication is a condition that produces fatigue, weakness, leg numbness, and paraesthesiae. The narrowing of the spinal canal or neural foramina is the primary cause of this condition. Lumbar spinal stenosis is the most common cause of neurogenic intermittent claudication, which results from the loss of disc space, osteophytes, and a hypertrophic ligamentum flavum. The symptoms of this condition can be relieved by sitting, leaning forward, putting the foot on a raised stool or step, or lying supine rather than prone.
However, other conditions can also cause neurogenic intermittent claudication. Diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia, mechanical low back pain, and peripheral vascular disease are some of the differential diagnoses that need to be considered. Diabetic neuropathy can cause peripheral sensorimotor or proximal motor neuropathy, but there is no indication of sensory or motor changes in this case. Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that affects multiple sites and can cause various symptoms, including fatigue, sleep disturbance, paraesthesia, memory disturbance, restless legs, problems with bladder and bowel, and psychological problems. Mechanical low back pain usually occurs after a precipitating event that produces immediate low back pain, which can radiate to the buttocks and thighs. Peripheral vascular disease can cause intermittent claudication, but the presence of palpable pulses makes it an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
The main reason for the increased mortality risk in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, compared to the general population, is:
Your Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory joint diseases increase the risk of premature death, mainly due to cardiovascular disease, which is comparable to the risk in diabetes mellitus. Traditional risk factors and the inflammatory effect of rheumatoid arthritis on the endothelium contribute to this increased risk. In addition to cardiovascular disease, infection, respiratory disease, and malignancies are also leading causes of excess mortality in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis have an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer, which may be due to inflammation and medication effects. Concurrent therapy, often immunosuppressive, may contribute to mortality in rheumatoid arthritis, with drugs such as steroids linked to heart attacks and kidney function decline. Kidney disease is also more common in people with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at increased risk of anxiety, depression, and low self-esteem, with high levels of associated mortality and suicide. Disability and loss of function can lead to depression, but medication side-effects, gender, or age may also contribute.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the benefits of acupuncture?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Exploring the Benefits of Acupuncture: Cochrane Reviews
Cochrane reviews have extensively examined the potential benefits of acupuncture in various medical conditions. However, most of these reviews have concluded that there is insufficient evidence to support the use of acupuncture and that further high-quality research is necessary. This applies to conditions such as asthma, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and smoking cessation.
Nonetheless, Cochrane reviews suggest that acupuncture may be a valuable non-pharmacological tool for patients with frequent episodic or chronic tension-type headaches. Studies also indicate that acupuncture may be as effective as, or even more effective than, prophylactic drug treatment for migraines, with fewer adverse effects.
Other areas where acupuncture has shown positive results include chronic neck pain, chronic low back pain, in vitro fertilisation, nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy, and postoperative nausea. Despite the need for further research, these findings suggest that acupuncture may have potential benefits in certain medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.
Knee Problems in Older Adults
As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.
Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.
Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following features is not typically seen in Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Learning difficulties
Explanation:Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports a sensation of locking and a painful clicking when extending her knee. There is no history of recent trauma. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort during knee flexion and extension.
What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Patellar subluxation
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. X-rays and MRI are used for diagnosis, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary for further management.
While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case in this scenario. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, causes vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the pain, swelling, and knee clunking in this case are more indicative of a more serious condition.
Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee.
Signs of OCD include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed. Wilson’s sign can also be used to detect a medial condyle lesion. Diagnosis is typically made through X-rays and MRI scans, which can show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies and evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage, and assess the stability of the lesion.
Early diagnosis is crucial in managing OCD, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion. Treatment options may include rest, physical therapy, and surgery in severe cases. By understanding OCD and its symptoms, patients can seek early intervention and prevent further damage to their joints.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.
What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine
Explanation:When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mammography
Explanation:Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site
Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)