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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports experiencing pain with eye movement and a decrease in colour vision. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed in her left eye, and visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the left eye.

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      A central scotoma is a common feature of optic neuritis, along with visual loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia (change in colour perception). Other classic signs on examination include a relative afferent pupillary defect. Unlike open-angle glaucoma, which typically causes painless, gradual loss of peripheral vision, optic neuritis often affects the central vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, causes sudden, painless loss of vision and is more common in people over 50. Optic nerve glioma, which is rare after age 20 and may be associated with neurofibromatosis, can cause visual defects and headaches but is not typically associated with eye movement pain or colour desaturation.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination series and wants to verify her immunity status. What is the best test to confirm her status?

      Your Answer: Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg; anti-HBs)

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding Their Significance

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers used to diagnose and monitor the disease, including antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg), anti-hepatitis B envelope antibody (anti-HBe), hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc).

      Anti-HBs is produced after a resolved infection or effective vaccination and is the only HBV antibody marker present after vaccination. High-risk individuals should have their anti-HBs level checked after completing their primary course of vaccination.

      HBeAg is a marker of infectivity and can serve as a marker of active replication in chronic hepatitis. It is not present following vaccination. Anti-HBe is a predictor of long-term clearance of HBV in patients undergoing antiviral therapy and indicates lower levels of HBV and, therefore, lower infectivity. Both HBeAg and anti-HBe remain negative following vaccination.

      HBV DNA is used to quantify viral load in a patient with proven acute or chronic hepatitis B infection. A positive result suggests not only the likelihood of active hepatitis but also that the disease is much more infectious as the virus is actively replicating. HBV DNA remains negative following vaccination.

      The presence of IgM anti-HBc is diagnostic of an acute or recently acquired infection. It remains negative following vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She has a history of depression and takes citalopram, smokes 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. During ileocolonoscopy, Crohn's disease is diagnosed, and she is treated with glucocorticoid therapy. What is the most crucial step to decrease the likelihood of future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

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    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.

      What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?

      Your Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property

      Explanation:

      If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/L on two occasions

      Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      To diagnose diabetes mellitus, fasting blood glucose levels should be above 7.0 or random blood glucose levels should be above 11.1. If the patient is asymptomatic, two readings are required for confirmation.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness in his fingers and soles of his feet. He was diagnosed with epilepsy in his early twenties and has been managing his seizures effectively. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is recognized to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
      What is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.

      Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
      C4 Low
      C3 Normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      628.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and nausea. He is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V2-V4, and troponin levels are elevated. The patient receives a STAT 300mg aspirin, and there are no immediate plans for primary PCI. According to the GRACE score, the 6-month mortality risk is 8.0%. The patient is stable. What is the best course of treatment going forward?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux, prasugrel or ticagrelor, and refer for coronary angiography within 72 hours

      Explanation:

      The current treatment plan of prescribing fondaparinux, clopidogrel, and scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months is incorrect. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for patients with a higher risk of bleeding or those taking an oral anticoagulant. Additionally, delaying definitive treatment for a high-risk patient by scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months could lead to increased mortality. Instead, a more appropriate treatment plan would involve prescribing prasugrel, unfractionated heparin, and a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor, and referring the patient for urgent PCI within 2 hours. However, it should be noted that this treatment plan is specific to patients with STEMI and access to PCI facilities.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical retinoids

      Correct Answer: Oral retinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.2
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  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever of one week. On evaluation, the child appears unwell, erythema of the palms and soles are noted, along with bilateral conjunctivitis. Examination of the oral cavity reveals cracked lips.
      In addition to the above findings, which one of the following features would prompt an urgent referral for echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Rash on the trunk and extremities

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features and Differential Diagnoses of Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of five. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a patient must have a fever for at least five days and four out of five classical features: bilateral, non-exudative conjunctival injection, changes in lips and oral cavity, oedema and erythema in the hands and feet, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. However, tonsillar exudate, leukopenia, neck stiffness, and small submental lymph nodes are not classical features of Kawasaki disease and should prompt consideration of other differential diagnoses. Patients with confirmed Kawasaki disease should undergo echocardiographic examination to detect potential coronary artery aneurysms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have been present for six weeks. At first, there was only one lesion, but more have appeared since then. During the examination, around 10 raised lesions with an umbilicated appearance, each around 1-2 mm in diameter, are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum is typically observed in children, but the following is a classical depiction of the condition.

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening for chromosomal abnormalities and an ultrasound assessment.
      She decides to proceed with testing, which assesses nuchal thickness, pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) and crown-rump length. She is told the pregnancy is a high risk for Down syndrome, and she and her partner are offered an amniocentesis.
      Which one of the following statements regarding amniocentesis is correct?

      Your Answer: It is associated with an increased risk of fetal limb defects

      Explanation:

      A 32-year-old woman visits the general surgery practice with a 2-year history of occasional abdominal discomfort, bloating and change in bowel habit, which alternates between loose stools and constipation. She reports that these episodes are most intense during her work-related stress and after consuming spicy food. There is no history of weight loss or presence of blood or mucus in the stool. Physical examination, including digital rectal examination, is unremarkable. Bloods, including full blood count, liver function test, thyroid function test and coeliac screen are all normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.6
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus. She denies any changes in her hearing or other ear-related symptoms. The PCP conducts ear and cranial nerve examinations, which reveal no abnormalities. The patient's medication list is reviewed.
      Which ONE medication from the following list is most likely responsible for the patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Quinine

      Explanation:

      Medication and Tinnitus: Understanding the Association

      Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head without an external source, can be distressing and may indicate an underlying condition. While it is often considered a minor symptom, certain medications have been associated with tinnitus. Quinine, commonly used to treat malaria, is one such medication. Other medications that may cause tinnitus include aspirin, aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. However, medications like spironolactone, salbutamol, metformin, and nifedipine are not associated with tinnitus. It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if experiencing tinnitus or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      334.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via...

    Correct

    • You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via caesarean section. The mother had an elective caesarean section at 38-weeks due to an active herpes infection. During examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. What would be your management plan for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Observation and supportive care

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn can be identified through a chest x-ray which may reveal hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. The appropriate management for this condition is observation and supportive care, including the administration of supplemental oxygen if necessary. Symptoms typically resolve on their own within a few days. The use of IV ceftriaxone, IV steroids, or urgent blood transfusion is not indicated in this case and therefore, incorrect.

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.3
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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.6
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
      Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:

      1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.

      2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.

      3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.

      5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.

      Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      9.6
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  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia

      Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.

      Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.

      Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.

      Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.

      Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.4
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has been diagnosed with bilateral bronchiectasis after undergoing a high resolution CT scan. What is the most crucial factor in managing his symptoms in the long run?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Postural drainage

      Explanation:

      To manage symptoms in individuals with non-CF bronchiectasis, a combination of inspiratory muscle training and postural drainage can be effective.

      Managing Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Spacing:

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.

      The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.

      The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      130.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?

      Your Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.7
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
      He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis

      Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.

      Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.

      Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.

      Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.

      Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.7
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?

      Your Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.

      For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.

      For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.4
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right knee. She is an avid runner and reports that the pain is most noticeable after exercise. She denies any swelling or redness in the joint and has not experienced any locking of the knee. Upon examination, the knee has a full range of motion, but there is sharp pain when palpating the lateral epicondyle of the femur, especially when the knee is flexed at 30 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent reason for knee pain, especially among runners. A typical history and examination for this condition involves assessing lateral knee pain in avid runners. In contrast, Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, would result in pain and swelling around the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans would cause joint locking, swelling, and tenderness. Patellar tendonitis would also cause post-exercise pain, but it would typically be located at the lower part of the patella.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.1
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
      Which of the following treatments would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?

      Your Answer: C6-C7

      Correct Answer: C7-C8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Reflexes

      Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.

      The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.2
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      5.9
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  • Question 31 - Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?

      Your Answer: Neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with weight loss, dry eyes...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with weight loss, dry eyes and palpitations. He reports feeling jittery and nervous for the past few weeks. Upon examination, a fine tremor, regular pulse of 105 bpm, exophthalmos and a moderate, smooth goitre are noted. The results of his thyroid function tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.03 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
      Free T4 38.5 pmol/l 12.0–22.0 pmol/l
      Free T3 11.8 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
      Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies Positive
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Thyrotoxicosis: A Brief Overview

      Thyrotoxicosis, or hyperthyroidism, can be caused by various conditions, including Graves’ disease, De Quervain’s thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, hypothyroidism, and toxic multinodular goitre. Among these, Graves’ disease is the most common cause, characterized by autoimmune dysfunction and typical hyperthyroid symptoms. About a third of patients with Graves’ disease also develop eye signs, while pretibial myxoedema or clubbing of the fingers may occur rarely. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is associated with transient hyperthyroidism following a viral infection and neck pain. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune condition, causes hypothyroidism instead of hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism presents with weight gain, fatigue, constipation, dry skin, and depression, and is characterized by raised TSH and reduced T4 or T3. Finally, toxic multinodular goitre is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the UK, presenting with a multinodular goitre and hyperthyroidism without Graves’ disease symptoms. However, in the case presented, the positive TPO antibodies and typical Graves’ disease symptoms make it the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
      Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

      Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      550
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - During a standard cranial nerve assessment, the subsequent results are noted: Rinne's test: Air...

    Correct

    • During a standard cranial nerve assessment, the subsequent results are noted: Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears Weber's test: Localises to the right side What is the significance of these test outcomes?

      Your Answer: Left sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old female sex worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female sex worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a high fever and severe headache. During the physical examination, you observe neck stiffness and mild photophobia, prompting you to perform a lumbar puncture. The results of the lumbar puncture reveal the presence of a yeast and a capsule in the CSF stained with India ink.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans is a yeast that has a protective capsule and requires oxygen to survive. It can thrive in both plants and animals, and when it infects humans, it causes cryptococcosis. While the infection typically affects the lungs, it can also lead to fungal meningitis and encephalitis in individuals with weakened immune systems. HIV-positive patients are particularly susceptible to this infection, and given the patient’s history as a sex worker, it’s possible that they have an undiagnosed HIV infection that has progressed to AIDS. Additionally, cryptococcus neoformans can be detected through india ink staining during a lumbar puncture.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been present for a few weeks. During examination, he displays erythematous, scaly lesions beneath his eyebrows, around his nose, and at the top of his chest. He also has a history of dandruff that he manages well with over-the-counter shampoos. What is the best course of treatment for the lesions on his face and trunk?

      Your Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is typically characterized by a scaly rash around the peri-orbital and nasolabial areas, as well as dandruff. The recommended initial treatment is topical ketoconazole.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and despite attempting lifestyle changes, his HbA1c remains at 56 mmol/mol. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
      Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound revealed dilatation of the ureters. The boy's father remembers having a similar issue with a valve in his ureters during childhood, resulting in urine flowing back towards the kidneys. What is the most suitable test to assess the severity of the probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystography

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a likely cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children under 6 years old. The family history, age of the patient, and abnormal ultrasound findings suggest VUR as the underlying issue. To determine the severity of VUR, a voiding cystourethrogram (micturating cystography) is necessary. This test involves injecting dye into the bladder via a catheter and taking x-ray images while the child urinates. Early detection of VUR is crucial to prevent kidney scarring (reflux nephropathy).

      Bladder ultrasound is not an appropriate method for grading VUR severity. While ultrasound imaging of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, can be useful, it cannot grade VUR severity.

      A CT abdomen is not necessary and would expose the child to unnecessary radiation.

      A dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan can assess renal parenchymal defects resulting from VUR and is typically performed within six months of an acute infection in children with recurrent UTIs. However, it cannot grade the severity of VUR.

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He has been taking ramipril for 6 weeks and his blood pressure has been well controlled. His baseline creatinine level was 92 µmol/L. However, his most recent creatinine level has increased to 118 µmol/L and he is concerned about the potential impact on his kidney function.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Continue current dose of ramipril and check urea and electrolytes at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 68-year-old man presents with intermittent dull abdominal pain for the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with intermittent dull abdominal pain for the past few weeks. He reports no weight loss but has had one episode of dark, foul-smelling stool in the past week. On examination, he appears well and all vital signs are within normal limits. A rectal exam is unremarkable. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 112 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), a hematocrit of 0.38 L/L (normal range: 0.37-0.49 L/L), a mean cell volume of 70 fL (normal range: 80-101 fL), a mean cell hemoglobin of 28 pg (normal range: 27-34 pg), a platelet count of 165 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and a white blood cell count of 6.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Start ferrous sulphate with repeat full blood count in 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer on 2 week wait pathway

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.

      In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      109.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old woman with hypertension is taking multiple medications for her condition, including...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with hypertension is taking multiple medications for her condition, including aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, amiodarone and furosemide. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and her doctor orders pulmonary function tests, which reveal a restrictive ventilatory defect with decreased gas transfer.
      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, which is evident in the patient’s symptoms of dyspnea and restrictive lung disease on spirometry. However, other potential causes of restrictive lung disease should be investigated before attributing it solely to amiodarone use. Amiodarone can also lead to liver injury and thyroid dysfunction, so monitoring liver and thyroid function is important during treatment.

      Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough, which is the most frequently reported side effect and often leads to discontinuation of treatment. The exact mechanism of cough production is unclear, but it may involve increased levels of kinins and substance P due to ACE inhibition. Substituting with another antihypertensive drug, such as an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is typically necessary to alleviate the cough.

      Aspirin can exacerbate asthma in susceptible individuals, particularly those with Samter’s triad (nasal polyps, asthma, and aspirin sensitivity). However, the patient’s restrictive lung disease is not associated with aspirin use.

      Beta blockers like bisoprolol can cause bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma and COPD, making them contraindicated in asthma and requiring caution in COPD. However, the patient’s spirometry results suggest pulmonary fibrosis rather than bronchospasm.

      Furosemide can rarely cause bronchoconstriction, but it is not associated with the restrictive lung disease seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank haematemesis. She had been discharged just two months ago after receiving treatment for bleeding oesophageal varices. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for endoscopy after resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Recommend termination of pregnancy and administer antibiotic therapy

      Correct Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G

      Explanation:

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A mother brings her 6-week-old infant to your clinic suspecting that the baby...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 6-week-old infant to your clinic suspecting that the baby may have a squint. She has observed that the baby's eyes do not always appear to be looking in the same direction. However, she reports that the baby is developing well and there are no concerns regarding their vision.
      What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure dad that intermittent squint in newborns is normal

      Explanation:

      It is considered normal for newborns under 3 months to have intermittent squint due to their underdeveloped eye muscles. Therefore, there is no need for investigation. However, if the squint persists or there are concerns about the newborn’s vision, referral to secondary care is recommended. In older children, eye patches may be used to prevent lazy eye.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      329.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
      After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
      Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent

      Explanation:

      Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      159.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness in her hips and shoulders, low mood, and loss of appetite. The pain and stiffness is worst first thing in the morning. Blood tests are shown below:

      Hb 126 g/L
      Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 288 * 109/L
      (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.8 * 109/L
      (4.0 - 11.0)

      ESR 78 mm/hr
      Men: < (age / 2)
      Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)

      CRP 56 mg/L
      (< 5)

      The patient is suspected to have polymyalgia rheumatica and is started on prednisolone. However, after 3 weeks, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. Typically, patients with this condition experience a dramatic improvement in symptoms within two weeks of starting steroid treatment. Therefore, if there is no response, it is unlikely that polymyalgia rheumatica is the correct diagnosis. Other conditions that may be considered include rheumatoid arthritis, hypothyroidism, fibromyalgia, and polymyositis. Continuing with the same dose of prednisolone or increasing the dose is not recommended, as there should have been some response to the initial dose if polymyalgia rheumatica was present. Similarly, replacing oral prednisolone with IV methylprednisolone is not appropriate if there has been no response to the oral medication. Methotrexate is a second-line treatment option for polymyalgia rheumatica, but it is not the most appropriate next step if the diagnosis is uncertain.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic for advice on contraception. She has...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic for advice on contraception. She has started a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception as she suspects she may be going through menopause. She reports experiencing hot flashes and her last period was 9 months ago. What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 12 months after her last period

      Explanation:

      Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who reports experiencing auditory hallucinations that have...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who reports experiencing auditory hallucinations that have been occurring more frequently, now happening every day. Based on his history, which of the following factors is the most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders?

      Your Answer: Having a parent with schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders is a person’s family history.

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.

      Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.

      Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.9
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  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
      What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?

      Your Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy

      Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.

      Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.

      Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.

      Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      6.7
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  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
      Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.

      Your Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)

      Explanation:

      The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.2
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  • Question 53 - A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.6
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  • Question 54 - A 25-year-old man presents with a two week history of diarrhoea. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a two week history of diarrhoea. He reports that his bowel movements have not been normal for the past few months and he frequently experiences urgency to use the toilet. However, these symptoms had been improving until two weeks ago. He has also noticed blood in his stool for the past week and feels like he hasn't fully emptied his bowels after going. Despite these symptoms, he has not experienced any weight loss and has a good appetite. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen but no guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum, which then spreads continuously but never beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are usually insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain, particularly in the left lower quadrant. In addition, patients may experience extra-intestinal features such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

      To diagnose ulcerative colitis, a colonoscopy with biopsy is generally done, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings of ulcerative colitis include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa that has the appearance of polyps, inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria, neutrophils migrating through the walls of glands to form crypt abscesses, depletion of goblet cells and mucin from gland epithelium, and infrequent granulomas.

      A barium enema may also be used to diagnose ulcerative colitis, which shows a loss of haustrations, superficial ulceration, and pseudopolyps. Long-standing disease may cause the colon to become narrow and short, leading to a drainpipe colon appearance. It is important to note that while some features are present in both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, some are much more common in one of the conditions, such as colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic methods for ulcerative colitis can help with early detection and management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.5
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  • Question 55 - A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated with triple therapy for a duodenal ulcer and has a medical history of GORD, bipolar syndrome, and a previous heart attack. What factor in his medical history increases his susceptibility to a Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole use

      Explanation:

      C. difficile infection (CDI) is caused by disruptions in the normal gut flora, which leads to increased colonization of C. difficile and the release of toxins that cause inflammation. Established risk factors for CDI include the use of antibiotics, protein pump inhibitors, antidepressants, and conditions that affect the immune system or decrease gastric acid secretion. Bowel and early emergency surgery have also been associated with higher rates of CDI, while there is no established link between CDI and extraintestinal surgery. GORD, T2DM, and lithium are not specifically linked to higher rates of CDI, but obesity, which can be linked to many conditions and medications, is a known risk factor. Interestingly, studies have shown that statins may have a protective effect against CDI, possibly through alterations in the microbiota or reduction of inflammation in endothelial cells.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague was killed in the line of duty. She reports experiencing recurrent nightmares and flashbacks for the past 4 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR are both effective methods for managing PTSD.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.2
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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain in his right elbow...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain in his right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He reports dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever, and recently returned from a trip to the Far East where he had unprotected sex. He has also developed macules and pustules on his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It affects 1-2% of patients who have had these infections, with Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia causing diarrheal illness that can lead to reactive arthritis, and Chlamydia trichomonas and Ureaplasma urealyticum causing STDs. Those who are HLA-B27-positive are at a higher risk of developing reactive arthritis. Symptoms include acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, enthesitis causing plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinosis, and back pain from sacroiliitis and spondylosis. Other symptoms may include acute anterior uveitis, circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagia, nail dystrophy, mouth ulcers, and bilateral conjunctivitis. The classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis may also be present. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms and history of unprotected sexual intercourse suggest reactive arthritis as the correct diagnosis. Other potential diagnoses, such as UTI, HIV, psoriatic arthritis, and syphilitic arthritis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor regarding a patient who is five days old and displaying symptoms of cyanosis, tachypnoea, and weak peripheral pulses. Your suspicion is that the patient has a duct dependent cardiac lesion. Once this is confirmed, what would be the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins can maintain the patency of a patent ductus arteriosus, which can be beneficial in cases of duct dependent cardiac lesions such as tetralogy of Fallot, Ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia, and pulmonary stenosis. These conditions may be diagnosed before birth or present with symptoms such as cyanosis, tachypnea, and weak peripheral pulses at birth. While surgery is often the definitive treatment, keeping the duct open with prostaglandins can provide time for appropriate management planning. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome, which can cause liver and brain edema and be fatal. Indomethacin and other medications may also be used to close the duct.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of snoring in adolescents?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of snoring in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Snoring is not a symptom of Kallman’s syndrome, which is a condition that leads to delayed puberty due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

      Snoring in Children: Possible Causes

      Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.

      In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old patient scheduled for inguinal hernia repair is discovered to have MRSA...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient scheduled for inguinal hernia repair is discovered to have MRSA during pre-admission screening. Should any treatment be provided to him?

      Your Answer: Nasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine for the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 61 - As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting...

    Correct

    • As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting a cognitive assessment of Harold, an 82-year-old man who is suspected of having dementia. After administering the Addenbrooke's Cognitive Exam-3 (ACE-3), Harold scores 68 out of 100 with a global deficit in all domains tested. Based on this information, what condition do you suspect Harold may have?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrookes Cognitive Exam (ACE-3) is a reliable tool for detecting dementia, with a score of 82 or less indicating a strong likelihood of dementia. The exam assesses five domains: Memory, Attention, Fluency, Language, and Visuospatial. Alzheimer’s dementia typically results in a global deficit across all domains, with later deficits in memory and attention due to damage in the medial temporal lobe. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects fluency and language due to damage in the frontal lobe. Vascular dementia deficits vary depending on the location and severity of previous strokes, and there is no consistent pattern seen in ACE-3 examinations. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a precursor to many forms of dementia, with an ACE-3 score of 82-88 indicating MCI. In this scenario, the patient’s score of 68 rules out MCI as a diagnosis.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. The risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease include increasing age, family history of the disease, and certain genetic mutations. Inherited forms of the disease are caused by mutations in the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 genes. Additionally, the apoprotein E allele E4 and Caucasian ethnicity are also risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, cortical plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles are present due to the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Furthermore, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are partly made from a protein called tau, which interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 19-9?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      CA 19-9 and Pancreatic Cancer

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.

      Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.

      Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.

      Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.

      In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      2.2
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  • Question 63 - A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were part of a routine health screening conducted three days ago. He is currently on day five of antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated by one of your colleagues. Apart from this recent infection, he has no medical history and no new symptoms to report. His renal function is normal, and the rest of his blood tests are as follows:
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 540 * 109/l
      - WBC: 13 * 109/l
      - MCV: 76 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 330 * 109/l
      All values were normal one year ago. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      This man is suffering from microcytic anemia, which is typically caused by a lack of iron. It is important to note that he was unwell when his blood was taken, as inflammation can cause ferritin levels to rise and potentially mask true iron deficiency. Therefore, additional iron studies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. While thalassemia can also lead to microcytic anemia, his previous blood test showed no abnormalities.

      Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.

      In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      3
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  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.

      Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - An 81-year-old man who is a resident in a nursing home reports feeling...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man who is a resident in a nursing home reports feeling tired and cold all the time. Blood tests are arranged which show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 12.8 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
      Free T4 (thyroxine) 6.8 pmol/l 12.0-22.0 pmol/l
      Free T3 (triiodothyronine) 2.6 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
      Which of the following is the best action to take?
      Select the SINGLE best action from the list below.

      Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 25 µg once daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in an Elderly Patient: Recommended Treatment and Monitoring

      For an elderly patient with overt hypothyroidism, immediate treatment is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). The recommended starting dose of levothyroxine is 25 µg once daily, with regular monitoring of response every 3-4 weeks until a stable TSH has been achieved. After that, a blood test should be performed at 4-6 months and annually thereafter. The goal of treatment is to resolve symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism, normalize TSH and T3/T4 levels, and avoid overtreatment, especially in elderly patients who are at risk of developing cardiac disease. Inappropriate treatments, such as carbimazole or radio-iodine therapy, should be avoided. It is crucial to avoid overtreatment, as it can worsen the patient’s condition and put them at risk of developing myxoedema coma, which can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 32-year-old woman complains of right elbow discomfort for a few weeks. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of right elbow discomfort for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the lateral aspect of the forearm and pain on passive extension of the wrist, with the elbow fully extended. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Golfer’s elbow

      Correct Answer: Tennis elbow

      Explanation:

      Tennis elbow is inflammation of the wrist extensor tendon at the insertion site into the lateral epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates down the forearm. Cubital tunnel syndrome is compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing sensory changes and weakness of hand muscles. Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing paraesthesia and motor deficits in the first three digits. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation of the wrist flexor tendon at the site of insertion into the medial epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates into the forearm. Olecranon bursitis is inflammation of the bursa overlying the olecranon process, causing a swelling that may be tender or painless.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of dizziness and shortness...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of dizziness and shortness of breath on exertion for the past 3 days. He reports experiencing palpitations during this time but denies any chest pain or cough. The patient has a history of hypertension and angina, for which he takes amlodipine and GTN spray, respectively. Upon examination, he appears alert and oriented, but his vital signs reveal a heart rate of 170 BPM, respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min, and blood pressure of 72/50 mmHg. An ECG shows a narrow complex irregular tachycardia without P waves. What is the most crucial next step in management?

      Your Answer: Electrical cardioversion

      Explanation:

      In the case of an acute presentation of atrial fibrillation with signs of haemodynamic instability such as hypotension or heart failure, the correct treatment is electrical cardioversion. This is because the patient is at risk of going into cardiac arrest and needs to be returned to normal sinus rhythm immediately to prevent end organ damage. Giving a bolus of IV saline is not recommended as it will not push more blood into the ventricles and could even be harmful. Starting high dose aspirin or bisoprolol is not appropriate in this situation. Digoxin is only considered as a second line treatment for stable patients, so pharmacologic therapies are not considered until after cardioversion has been attempted and blood pressure returns to normal.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.

      The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      88.8
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
      What is the initial approach to managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan nasal spray

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.

      Understanding Headaches in Children

      Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.

      Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.

      In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3984
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  • Question 71 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      2250.1
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genital herpes

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. The medical team suspects neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a feature of this condition?

      Your Answer: Renal failure

      Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      135.1
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking Sinemet (co-careldopa) prescribed by her neurologist. However, she is experiencing severe nausea as a side effect. What is the best anti-emetic medication to recommend?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinsonism and Its Causes

      Parkinsonism is a term used to describe a group of neurological disorders that share similar symptoms with Parkinson’s disease. The causes of Parkinsonism can vary, with some cases being drug-induced, such as the use of antipsychotics or metoclopramide. Other causes include progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, Wilson’s disease, post-encephalitis, and dementia pugilistica, which is often seen in individuals who have suffered from chronic head trauma, such as boxers. Additionally, exposure to toxins like carbon monoxide or MPTP can also lead to Parkinsonism.

      It is important to note that not all medications that cause extra-pyramidal side-effects will lead to Parkinsonism. For example, domperidone does not cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore does not cause these side-effects. Understanding the various causes of Parkinsonism can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as prevention in some cases. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can tailor treatment plans to address the specific needs of each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a...

    Correct

    • As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a 34-year-old woman who fell and struck her head while drinking three hours ago. Your consultant instructs you to confirm the absence of any clinical indications of a base of skull fracture. Which of the following is not linked to a base of skull injury?

      Your Answer: Stellwag's sign

      Explanation:

      The base of the skull is made up of three bony fossae: the anterior, middle, and posterior. These structures provide support for various internal structures within the cranium. If these bones are fractured, it can result in damage to associated neurovascular structures, which can have external manifestations in areas such as the nasal cavity or auditory canal. Bleeding from ruptured vessels can lead to haemotympanum or Battle’s sign in the mastoid area, while ruptured CSF spaces can cause CSF rhinorrhoea and otorrhoea. Stellwag’s sign, on the other hand, is not related to base of skull trauma and refers to reduced blinking.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd for pain management. What dosage of oral morphine solution should be prescribed for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 30 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The breakthrough dose should be 10 mg, which is one-sixth of the total daily morphine dose of 60 mg (30 mg taken twice a day).

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      57.7
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  • Question 77 - A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is...

    Correct

    • A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
      Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.

      Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.

      In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.

      Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.5
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  • Question 78 - A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her new bracelet. The possibility of a nickel allergy is being considered. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nickel Dermatitis

      Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.

      To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. Symptoms of nickel dermatitis can include redness, itching, and swelling of the affected area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Refer to vascular surgeon

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis, and how does it affect patients of different ages?

      Your Answer: Pyrazinamide

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      55.4
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  • Question 81 - A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      743.6
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  • Question 82 - A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
      Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?

      Your Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.

      One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.

      Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.

      It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks. She has been unwell with a cough and cold for one week. The rash is purpuric, macular and symmetrical to both buttocks and legs, and is non-blanching.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?
      Select the SINGLE cause from the list below.

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Common Childhood Vasculitis

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a common vasculitis of childhood that affects small vessels. It typically occurs in children, with 50% of cases in under-5s. The exact cause of the immune-mediated vasculitis is unknown, but it commonly follows a viral or streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Classic features include a non-blanching rash (palpable purpura, usually of the lower limbs), abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement/glomerulonephritis.

      Possible complications of HSP include glomerulonephritis and renal failure, gastrointestinal bleed/intussusception, and pulmonary hemorrhage. Treatment is usually supportive, and the condition is self-limiting in most patients.

      Other conditions, such as intertrigo, meningococcal disease, slapped cheek disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences. For example, intertrigo affects skinfolds, meningococcal disease presents with red flags such as fever and headache, slapped cheek disease has a facial rash that precedes a rash on the limbs, and SLE typically has vague and insidious systemic symptoms before skin changes.

      Investigations for HSP include bloods, blood pressure monitoring, and urinalysis. Treatment usually involves observation and monitoring, with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief and sometimes corticosteroids given.

      In summary, HSP is a common childhood vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement. It often follows a recent illness such as an upper respiratory tract infection and is usually self-limiting. Other conditions may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.9
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities

      When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.

      In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 82-year-old man and his daughter visit you for a medication review. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man and his daughter visit you for a medication review. The patient has been experiencing memory loss and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia at a memory clinic three months ago. He also has a medical history of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and atrial fibrillation. Considering his dementia, which medication should you contemplate discontinuing?

      Your Answer: Alendronic Acid

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Dementia has several causes, most of which are irreversible and progressive. Although medications can slow down the progression, healthcare providers must ensure that their patients are not taking drugs that could exacerbate the condition. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidelines for withdrawing medications that may be harmful to the elderly. For instance, tricyclic antidepressants should not be prescribed to patients with dementia as they can worsen cognitive impairment.

      Understanding Dementia: Features and Management

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. However, diagnosing dementia can be challenging and often delayed. To aid in the assessment of dementia, NICE recommends the use of cognitive screening tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener (10-CS) and the 6-Item cognitive impairment test (6CIT) in non-specialist settings. On the other hand, assessment tools such as the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS), General practitioner assessment of cognition (GPCOG), and the mini-mental state examination (MMSE) are not recommended for non-specialist settings.

      In primary care, blood screening is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes of dementia such as hypothyroidism. NICE recommends several tests including FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics for further management. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions and provide information on the aetiology of dementia to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.

      In summary, dementia is a complex condition that requires careful assessment and management. The use of appropriate screening tools and tests can aid in the diagnosis and management of dementia, while neuroimaging can provide valuable information on the underlying causes of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      57.2
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  • Question 87 - A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to ask about the national screening programme...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to ask about the national screening programme for colorectal cancer. What is the correct statement regarding this?

      Your Answer: Patients after the age of 60 are offered a surveillance colonoscopy every 5 years until 75

      Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) test kits are sent every 2 years to all patients aged 60-74 years in England, 50-74 years in Scotland

      Explanation:

      To screen for colorectal cancer, faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are utilized. Patients aged 60-74 years in England and 50-74 years in Scotland receive screening kits every 2 years. If the test results are abnormal, the patient is provided with the option of undergoing a colonoscopy.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      36.4
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  • Question 88 - Crohn's disease is characterized by which of the following features? Please select the...

    Incorrect

    • Crohn's disease is characterized by which of the following features? Please select the ONE most characteristic feature from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Correct Answer: Skip lesions

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease that affect the gastrointestinal tract. Crohn’s disease can occur anywhere along the GI tract, while ulcerative colitis typically only affects the large intestine.

      One characteristic of Crohn’s disease is the presence of skip lesions, or areas of inflammation discontinuity. The colon wall may also appear thickened and have a cobblestone appearance. In contrast, ulcerative colitis shows continuous inflammation in affected areas, with a thinner colon wall and ulcers limited to the mucous lining of the large intestine.

      Both diseases can cause rectal bleeding, but it is more common in ulcerative colitis. Other symptoms of ulcerative colitis include frequent stools and mucus discharge from the rectum, while Crohn’s disease often presents with prolonged diarrhea and abdominal pain.

      Pseudopolyps, or benign lesions originating from the mucosa, can occur in both diseases but are more prevalent in ulcerative colitis. Crypt abscess formation, characterized by intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and crypt abscesses, is a hallmark of ulcerative colitis.

      Management of these diseases includes medical therapy, endoscopy, and surgery for complications such as bleeding or obstruction. Understanding the differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and reduced grip strength for the past 3 weeks. She denies any history of trauma. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the radial styloid and painful resisted abduction of the thumb.
      Which of the following examination findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Positive Finkelstein’s test

      Explanation:

      Common Orthopedic Tests and Their Relevance to De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the first extensor compartment of the wrist, causing inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Several orthopedic tests can help diagnose this condition, including Finkelstein’s test, Tinel’s sign, Froment’s sign, and Phalen’s test. However, the squeeze test is not relevant to the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      Finkelstein’s test involves flexing the thumb across the palm of the hand and moving the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. This action stresses the affected tendons and reproduces pain in a positive test. Tinel’s sign is used to diagnose compressive neuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, by tapping the site of the nerve and causing paraesthesia in the distribution of the nerve in a positive test. Froment’s sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy by assessing the action of the adductor pollicis, while Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome by flexing both wrists fully and pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together for 60 seconds.

      Understanding the relevance of these orthopedic tests can aid in the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.9
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  • Question 90 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. An F1 administers metoclopramide, but 20 minutes later the patient reports feeling as though his eyes are stuck in an abnormal position and he cannot move them. What is the likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonia

      Explanation:

      The administration of metoclopramide can result in extrapyramidal side effects, with acute dystonia being the earliest and most common. This can lead to oculogyric crises, particularly in young individuals. Long-term side effects may include akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. The patient’s history does not suggest an allergic reaction, as there were no symptoms such as facial or lip swelling, breathing or circulatory issues, or the presence of a rash.

      Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.

      However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.

      Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      20.2
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  • Question 91 - Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?

      Your Answer: Too frequent skin disinfection and destruction of the normal skin flora

      Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions

      Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.

      The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.

      Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.

      While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.

      The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.

      Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.

      In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 45-year-old teacher who was previously healthy was discovered unconscious on the ground....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher who was previously healthy was discovered unconscious on the ground. Upon admission, assessment showed weakness on the right side of their body, with their leg more affected than their arm and face, and significant difficulty with speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: An occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA)

      Explanation:

      A blockage in the left middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a common cause of cerebral infarction. The symptoms experienced will depend on the extent of the infarct and which hemisphere of the brain is dominant. In right-handed individuals, over 95% have left-sided dominance. Symptoms may include weakness on the opposite side of the body, particularly in the face and arm, as well as sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. If the left MCA is affected, the patient may experience expressive dysphasia in the anterior MCA territory (Broca’s area) if it is their dominant side, or neglect if it is their non-dominant side. A tumour in the left cerebral hemisphere or thalamus would have a more gradual onset of symptoms, while an occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery would produce left-sided weakness. The region affected and presentation of each type of artery involvement is summarized in a table.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      101.6
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  • Question 94 - As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has...

    Correct

    • As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Following the FRAX/NOGG guidance and the results of her DEXA scan, you have prescribed alendronic acid as part of her treatment plan. During your counseling session, she asks why she cannot take this medication like her other medications after breakfast. What is the potential risk if she does not take the medication as instructed?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal reaction

      Explanation:

      When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth...

    Incorrect

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      55.9
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  • Question 96 - A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
      Which of the following new agents would you add in?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.

      Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.

      Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.

      According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      126.4
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  • Question 97 - A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation...

    Incorrect

    • A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation of rotation and extension at the affected hip joint, and a radiograph shows a dense flattened and fragmented femoral head on the affected side.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Juvenile rheumatoid (idiopathic) arthritis (JIA)

      Correct Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ Disease: Avascular Necrosis of the Proximal Femoral Head in Children

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head, which is caused by a compromised blood supply. It typically affects children aged 4-10, with boys being affected more frequently than girls. The disease presents with a painless limp and limited range of motion of the affected hip, followed by hip pain as necrosis develops.

      The diagnosis of Perthes’ disease is suspected clinically, and radiographs may be normal initially or show only a non-specific effusion. As the condition progresses, the joint space between the ossified femoral head and acetabulum widens, and narrowing or collapse of the femoral head causes it to appear widened and flattened. Eventually, femoral head collapse may ensue.

      Other conditions that may present similarly to Perthes’ disease include slipped upper femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and congenital dislocation of the hip. However, each of these conditions has its own unique features and diagnostic criteria.

      Overall, Perthes’ disease is a generalised disorder of cartilage development that predisposes children to repeated episodes of infarction in the proximal femoral epiphysis. The most significant factors determining prognosis are onset in the older child, epiphyseal protrusion, extensive involvement of the epiphysis, and arrest of subcapital growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.1
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  • Question 98 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of deteriorating vision. Upon examination with mydriatic drops, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is discovered. The patient is referred to an ophthalmologist. However, later that evening while driving home, he experiences reduced visual acuity and pain in his left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Although mydriatic drops can cause acute angle closure glaucoma, this situation is more frequently encountered in exams than in actual medical practice.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.4
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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old man collapses at work with chest pain. He is rushed to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man collapses at work with chest pain. He is rushed to the Emergency Department where he is diagnosed with ST-elevated myocardial infarction. After undergoing successful percutaneous coronary intervention, he is deemed fit for discharge home after a 3-day hospital stay. The patient had no prior medical history and was not taking any regular medications. He also has no known allergies. What is the recommended combination of medications for his discharge?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin, amlodipine, aspirin and clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin, ramipril, clopidogrel, aspirin and carvedilol

      Explanation:

      After an ACS, it is recommended that all patients receive a combination of medications to reduce the risk of future coronary events. This includes dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), an ACE inhibitor, a beta-blocker, and a statin. The correct option for this patient would be a combination of atorvastatin, ramipril, clopidogrel, aspirin, and carvedilol. Atorvastatin is given to reduce cholesterol and prevent further coronary plaque formation, while ramipril is used to prevent cardiac remodeling and preserve left ventricular systolic function. Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is given to reduce the risk of thrombosis formation after PCI. Finally, beta-blockers such as carvedilol are used to improve prognosis, reduce the risk of arrhythmias, and have cardioprotective effects.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      96.6
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  • Question 100 - A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-resolution CT scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 101 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Administer varicella-zoster vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

      If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.

      Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 102 - A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
      Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 103 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences bloating that is relieved by defecation and finds relief with hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan). She denies any weight loss and has no relevant family history. Coeliac disease screening was negative and both full blood count and CRP were normal. Despite being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and given dietary advice and antispasmodics, she disagrees with the diagnosis and requests further investigations. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure that further tests are not required at this stage

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use faecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening in symptomatic patients who are under the age of 60. This woman is displaying symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and has normal blood results, without any red flag symptoms. Repeating the full blood count is unlikely to provide any additional information. The use of steroids and azathioprine is not appropriate for treating irritable bowel syndrome, as they are typically used for ulcerative colitis, which is not likely in this case.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      72.5
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  • Question 104 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.

      Your Answer: Arrange routine mammography

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team

      Explanation:

      Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team

      Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.

      For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.

      Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      33.6
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  • Question 105 - A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
      Investigation Result Normal reference range
      Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
      Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers

      Explanation:

      Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions

      Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:

      Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.

      Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.

      Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.

      Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.

      Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      35.9
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  • Question 106 - A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision where he was the driver. A lorry in front lost control and caused significant damage to his car, resulting in the dashboard and footwell being pushed forward. The patient is currently stable but complains of severe pain in his right leg. Upon examination, his right leg is internally rotated, slightly flexed, adducted, and shortened compared to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior hip dislocation

      Explanation:

      When a person has a posterior hip dislocation, their leg will appear shortened and internally rotated. This type of injury often occurs during car accidents, especially when the driver slams on the brakes to avoid a collision. The impact from the front of the car is then transferred through the leg to the hip joint, causing the femoral head to move behind the acetabulum. Pelvic fractures, on the other hand, typically cause pain when walking or touching the area, as well as instability, nerve or blood vessel damage in the leg, and signs of injury to pelvic organs such as bleeding from the rectum or blood in the urine. Anterior hip dislocations are less common than posterior ones, but they can cause the leg to appear abducted and externally rotated, with a noticeable bulge in the femoral head. These types of dislocations are often associated with hip prostheses. Finally, femoral shaft fractures can cause swelling, deformity, and shortening of the leg. Because such fractures require a significant amount of force to occur, there is usually also damage to the surrounding soft tissues and bleeding.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, with no leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.