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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are consulted for advice on a 55-year-old man who visited his primary care physician 12 weeks after experiencing an inferior myocardial infarction. He has been experiencing persistent low mood that fluctuates throughout the day, tearfulness, and hopelessness. He has lost 6 kg of weight in the past 3 months, and his BMI is currently 19. Although he has fleeting thoughts of suicide, he assures you that he would not act on them as he does not want to cause any harm to his family. The GP informs you that he was diagnosed with depression 20 years ago after an overdose of paracetamol and was prescribed Citalopram.
Aside from the recent MI, the patient also has a diagnosis of Atrial Fibrillation, for which he is taking warfarin. He has been experiencing epigastric pain for the past 2 years, and an OGD 1 year ago revealed that he required treatment for a duodenal ulcer with adrenaline. Although his symptoms of epigastric pain have decreased since then, they are still present. There has been no repeat OGD.
What would be the safest course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe Sertraline
Correct Answer: Prescribe Mirtazapine
Explanation:Sertraline, an SSRI, is not a safe option for an individual with a history of bleeding duodenal ulcer and continuing symptoms as it can interfere with platelet aggregation and increase the risk of a GI bleed. Additionally, SSRIs interact with warfarin. Phenelzine, a MAO inhibitor, and Imipramine, a TCA, are also not recommended as they have been linked to ischaemic heart disease and sudden cardiac death, and are contraindicated in those with a history of ischaemic heart disease. MAO inhibitors are also thought to be arrhythmogenic and decrease LVF. Mirtazapine, on the other hand, is a safe option as it does not cause cardiac conduction disturbances and has good evidence of safety post-MI. It also has the added benefit of increasing appetite and weight gain, which would be advantageous for this individual. Mirtazapine does not interact with warfarin and does not affect platelet aggregation. It is generally considered safe and is often prescribed for the elderly and those with multiple medical problems. Mirtazapine is also relatively safe in overdose compared to other antidepressants.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher who spent two years teaching in a high-stress environment is referred by her primary care physician to your general medicine clinic for recurring migraines. During the medical history, it becomes apparent that she suffers from migraines and has a significant caffeine intake. Upon further questioning, she confides that she often experiences flashbacks of her time teaching and is having difficulty sleeping. She explains that she frequently feels anxious and has become socially withdrawn. She also reveals that she has been feeling increasingly depressed and has had occasional suicidal thoughts. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Anti-depressants and anti-psychotics as pharmacological therapies for PTSD
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Treatment Options for PTSD with Co-Existing Psychiatric Illnesses
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) often co-exists with other psychiatric illnesses, such as depression and substance misuse. Treatment for PTSD involves talking therapies, trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and eye-movement-desensitization and reprocessing. Pharmacological therapies, including anti-depressants and anti-psychotics, may also be useful. However, the use of sedatives and benzodiazepines is not recommended, and SSRI’s should be used with caution due to the risk of increased suicide risk in the short-term. Antipsychotic medication may be necessary in complex cases to manage psychotic symptoms, but the decision to start such medication should not be taken lightly. Reassurance is appropriate in cases where patients present with clear features of PTSD and co-existing psychiatric illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) visits the neurology clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of collapsing. These episodes involve a sensation of weakness that causes him to collapse to the ground. The episodes began about 8 months ago and happen multiple times a week. He does not believe that he loses consciousness during these episodes and has observed that emotional situations, particularly when he is laughing, can trigger the attacks. He has been feeling anxious and depressed lately, sleeping poorly with frequent nightmares.
His diabetes control has been poor in the past few months, and he has recently altered his insulin regimen to try to achieve better control. He has a sister who has a history of febrile convulsions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Recurrent hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Cataplexy
Explanation:Possible Causes of Sudden Loss of Muscle Tone and Collapse with Preserved Consciousness
Sudden loss of muscle tone and collapse with preserved consciousness can have various underlying causes. One possible cause is cataplexy, which is characterized by an abrupt loss of voluntary muscular function and tone triggered by emotional stimuli. Cataplexy is often associated with narcolepsy, a condition that causes excessive daytime sleepiness and involuntary sleep episodes. The presence of HLA DQB1*0602 is highly indicative of narcolepsy with cataplexy.
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may also present similarly to epileptic seizures, but the history of sleep disturbance makes cataplexy more likely in this case. Complex partial seizures, on the other hand, involve loss of awareness but not consciousness, and may manifest as uncontrolled repetitive movements. Recurrent hypoglycemia could also be a possibility, but sudden loss of muscle tone and collapse is not the only manifestation of this condition.
Finally, periodic paralysis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and abnormal potassium levels, may also cause sudden loss of muscle tone, but emotional stimuli are not typically involved. In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of sudden loss of muscle tone and collapse with preserved consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. He took fifteen 500mg tablets. He states that he wants to end his life and that he sees no purpose in living anymore. He had left a note for his girlfriend. On mental state examination, he displays poverty of thought, a flat affect, and signs of nihilistic delusions. He has a history of severe depression. Although he is medically stable, he is transferred to a psychiatric unit for further evaluation due to persistent suicidal thoughts. During his stay, he develops catatonia and refuses to eat or drink.
Is there an absolute contraindication for electroconvulsive therapy in this case?Your Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has only one absolute contraindication, which is raised intracranial pressure. However, there are several clinical situations where extra caution is necessary, making them relative contraindications.
ECT can cause an increase in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure, which is why raised intracranial pressure is an absolute contraindication. During the procedure, there is a parasympathetic discharge that can lead to bradycardia, atrial or ventricular premature beats, and sometimes asystole. Therefore, cardiac conductive disease is a relative contraindication.
After the initial parasympathetic stimulus, there is a sympathetic discharge that can cause tachycardia, hypertension, ST-segment depression, and T-wave inversion. Although it is not associated with myocardial enzyme changes, it can rarely cause ventricular tachycardia. Hence, uncontrolled hypertension and recent myocardial infarction are relative contraindications.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female is experiencing difficulty walking while recovering from spinal surgery in an inpatient rehabilitation unit. The surgery was performed six weeks ago by neurosurgeons from T2 to T4 to evacuate a spinal hematoma after she fell while playing netball. The patient has no prior medical history and gave birth to a healthy baby boy 18 months ago.
During examination, the patient exhibited normal tone in her upper and lower limbs. Her power was 5/5 on the MRC power scale, and she had normal sensation to cotton wool, pin prick, and proprioception. Reflexes were present (2+) in her biceps, triceps, supinator, patella, and ankles, and both plantars were downgoing. However, her gait was markedly abnormal, with both feet sliding along the floor for 80 meters without lifting between steps. The patient's cognition was intact. What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies and electromyography
Correct Answer: Education and reassurance
Explanation:The patient’s gait does not match any known pattern of organic pathology, as they are able to perform ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion despite being unable to lift their feet. This suggests a combination of recent organic and inorganic pathology, which is common in functional neurological disorders. Further MRI imaging, electrophysiology, or lumbar puncture are unlikely to provide useful information and may unnecessarily medicalize the disorder. Instead, management should focus on education and reassurance, emphasizing that the issue is a conceptualization problem rather than a problem with the brain or nerves. If the patient does not respond to initial management, psychiatric input and cognitive behavioral therapy may be beneficial.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fevers and feeling generally unwell for the past 3 days. He recently returned from a 2 week stay with his brother who lives in a different state. He reports a mild non-productive cough and shortness of breath, but denies any vomiting, diarrhea, dysuria, or abdominal pain. His medical history includes epilepsy, schizophrenia, hypertension, and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.3 ºC, heart rate of 111 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. His chest x-ray is clear and blood tests reveal a low white blood cell count and elevated CRP. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current condition?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine, an antipsychotic medication, can cause life-threatening agranulocytosis/neutropenia, which can be monitored through regular full blood counts. This patient likely missed his monitoring appointment while traveling and is now experiencing neutropenic sepsis. Clobazam can cause drowsiness and confusion, while phenytoin and sodium valproate have extensive side effect profiles that include rare occurrences of leucopenia. Other side effects of these medications include tremors, gum hypertrophy, acne, hirsutism, nausea, diarrhea, weight gain, and extrapyramidal symptoms.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40 year old caucasian man visits his doctor due to concerns about sudden weight gain. He has gained 8kg in the past 6 months despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine. The doctor decides to conduct further tests and discovers the following irregularities. The patient informs the doctor that he was previously taking medication for bipolar disorder, but it was changed a year ago due to abnormal movements. He has also been taking medication for nausea and recently started taking medication for breast enlargement.
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dl
Platelets: 150 * 109/l
White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
Neutrophils: 1.8 * 109/l
Lymphocytes: 1.2 * 109/l
Eosinophils: 1.0 * 109/l
Fasting blood sugar: 11.2 mmol/l
Prolactin: 270 mu/l
Electrocardiogram: sinus rhythm 80/min QTC 470 ms
Which medication is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Constipation/intestinal obstruction is a common side effect of clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia and for patients with tardive dyskinesia from previous antipsychotic use. This medication can also cause neutropenia, eosinophilia, and QTc prolongation, as well as weight gain and reduced insulin tolerance, which are all present in this patient.
Haloperidol, another antipsychotic, can also cause QTc prolongation but is less likely to cause weight gain and reduced glucose tolerance than clozapine. It is associated with tardive dyskinesia more frequently than clozapine and may have been the previous medication for this patient due to hyperprolactinemia and tardive dyskinesia.
Bromocriptine is a treatment that reduces prolactin levels and does not cause reduced glucose tolerance or neutropenia.
Domperidone can cause prolonged QTc but does not explain the other abnormalities seen in this patient.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband. She tells you that she is not real and is living in a dream, that she does not exist in this world.
Her husband tells you that she barely eats, sleeps for long periods in the day and wakes in the early hours of the morning. She says she became preoccupied and very low in mood after some problems at work. Most recently, she had tried to jump out of the car whilst they were driving to the hospital.
On examination, she stares continuously at the wall, mumbling only that she is in a dream, nothing is real and she’s not really here. She looks unkempt and as if she has not been taking good care of herself.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 189 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/
Creatinine (Cr) 90 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.8 mu/l 0.4 - 5.0 mu/l
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective in this case?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:Delusional depression with Cotard syndrome is a severe form of depression where patients believe they are already dead and do not exist. This condition can cause early morning waking, daytime somnolence, and poor appetite. Tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs, and major tranquillisers are less effective in treating this condition. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the most successful treatment option for this patient, as it can have a rapid and positive impact on their symptoms.
Citalopram and fluoxetine are not recommended in the initial stages of treatment due to the risk of increasing agitation, which can lead to an increased risk of suicide. Amitriptyline is not usually effective as monotherapy and is more effective when combined with an anti-psychotic. Haloperidol may be used to manage delusions in patients with this form of depression, but it is usually combined with a second antidepressant medication. Overall, ECT is the most effective treatment option for delusional depression with Cotard syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old accountant presents with an acute inferior myocardial infarction and is urgently scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes a day and hypercholesterolaemia. He occasionally drinks alcohol but denies any drug use.
The next day, he experiences restlessness, rapid heartbeat, and excessive sweating. His blood pressure is 160/75 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 110 and regular rhythm. Although his ECG does not show any new ischaemic changes, there is significant baseline interference due to the development of a tremor.
What is the appropriate course of action for his management?Your Answer: IV fluid loading
Correct Answer: Reducing course of oral benzodiazepines
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Suspected Alcohol Withdrawal and Chest Pain
When managing a patient with suspected alcohol withdrawal and chest pain, it is important to consider the appropriate interventions. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is alcohol withdrawal, and the patient is exhibiting signs of anxiety and sympathetic activation. Therefore, a reducing course of oral benzodiazepines is the most appropriate intervention.
While maintaining right ventricular filling pressure is important, there is no indication for IV fluid loading in this patient as their blood pressure is well-preserved and there are no new ECG changes. Similarly, there is no need to return to the catheter lab as there is no evidence of new ischemia on the ECG.
IV metoprolol is not necessary as the patient’s blood pressure is maintained and there are no indications of new ischemia. IV thrombolysis is also not indicated in the absence of new ischemia. Overall, the management of this patient should focus on addressing their alcohol withdrawal symptoms while monitoring for any changes in their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 19-year-old man is being reviewed before discharge from the Neurology Ward. He was admitted electively for the second time for video and EEG telemetry to characterize witnessed seizures. His mother shows a home video of him behaving irrationally, pacing, and then falling to the floor. He shakes all four limbs and then suddenly stops. He remains groggy for several hours following the event and has been hospitalized on at least five occasions. These events happen at least three times per week, but none have been captured by video telemetry or EEG during his 5-day admission. He has no family history of epilepsy, although his mother is diabetic.
Clinical examination is unremarkable, and an MRI head has shown no intracranial or localizing lesions. Blood tests recorded at a recent Emergency Department presentation are within normal limits.
What is the next appropriate management step?Your Answer: Measure serum insulin and C-peptide levels
Explanation:When managing a patient with suspected factitious disorder and seizures, it is important to consider the appropriate diagnostic and treatment options. In this case, a young man with access to diabetic medication presents with frequent seizure attacks that cannot be confirmed as epilepsy through standard investigations. This raises concerns about insulin misuse, which is further evidenced by the presence of hypoglycemia and low potassium levels. To confirm this diagnosis, measuring serum insulin and C-peptide levels is recommended.Initiating phenytoin should be avoided in this case, as there is no evidence to support a diagnosis of epilepsy and the drug has a narrow therapeutic window with potential fatal complications. Discharging the patient back to primary care is also not recommended, as the factitious disorder requires a thorough psychological assessment and the patient is causing harm to themselves.If a diagnosis of epilepsy is confirmed through clinical evidence and investigations, initiating levetiracetam may be appropriate. However, repeat MRI brain with gadolinium enhancement is not necessary if the previous imaging was normal and there is no change in the clinical phenotype. Repeat imaging may be considered if there is a change in seizure semiology or progression of an underlying neurological abnormality. Overall, careful consideration of the diagnostic and treatment options is crucial in managing a patient with suspected factitious disorder and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with sharp, stabbing abdominal pain that has been present for several days. She reports feeling nauseated but has not vomited and has not noticed any changes in bowel or urinary habits. Her periods are irregular but not heavy, and her last period was two weeks ago. She had previously attended another hospital where she underwent various investigations, including an ultrasound of the abdomen, which all came back normal. However, she believed that the staff were incompetent and that something was amiss, resulting in her being escorted out of the hospital by security due to aggressive outbursts. On examination, she appeared cooperative and animated, with multiple recent scars across her abdomen and left arm. She occasionally takes cocaine and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week, and she lives with her boyfriend and is unemployed. Her vital signs are normal, and her tests show a haemoglobin level of 155 g/L, mean cell volume of 95 fL, white cell count of 6.1 ×109/L, platelets of 202 ×109/L, serum sodium of 139 mmol/L, serum potassium of 4.2 mmol/L, serum urea of 4.9 mmol/L, and serum creatinine of 78 µmol/L. What does this patient exhibit?
Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorders and their Manifestations
Personality disorders are characterized by a set of enduring patterns of behavior, cognition, and inner experience that deviate from cultural norms and cause significant distress or impairment. Different types of personality disorders have distinct manifestations. For instance, borderline personality disorder is often marked by idealization and rejection of others, sudden aggressive outbursts, and self-harm, along with a history of substance abuse. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is associated with aggression, violence, criminal tendencies, and a lack of empathy or remorse. Narcissistic personalities tend to have an inflated sense of self-importance, a preoccupation with fantasies of success or power, and a tendency to display arrogance. Anxious personalities are often shy, feel inadequate, and avoid responsibilities, while affective personalities have lifelong difficulties regulating their moods. these different manifestations can help clinicians diagnose and treat personality disorders more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of confusion, difficulty walking, and urinary incontinence that have been getting worse over the past two months. Upon examination, he displays mild cognitive dysfunction and gait ataxia. A CT scan of his brain shows enlarged ventricles with no signs of obstruction to CSF outflow. A lumbar puncture reveals normal CSF pressure and constituents. What is the most effective management step to take?
Your Answer: CSF drainage via repeated lumbar puncture
Explanation:Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus: Symptoms and Treatment
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms, including dementia, gait disturbance, and incontinence. This condition is caused by impaired cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) absorption, leading to episodes of increased pressure. While ventricular enlargement may not always indicate hydrocephalus, other symptoms strongly suggest the diagnosis. Treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus typically involves CSF shunting, but in equivocal cases, therapeutic CSF drainage via lumbar puncture may be performed to determine if permanent drainage is necessary. Intracranial pressure monitoring is a more invasive alternative to diagnose episodes of increased pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic accompanied by his wife. He has been experiencing strange noises and occasional non-threatening voices for the past two months. His wife reports that he also hears music. Upon further questioning, he admits to feeling more withdrawn lately and spending most of his time doing nothing. He has been experiencing poor sleep and frequently wakes up at 2-3 am. His appetite has decreased, resulting in a weight loss of approximately 10 kg over the past three months. He confesses to consuming one and a half bottles of whisky daily. During the conversation, he appears calm, speaks clearly and articulately, but has poor attention. He does not exhibit any tremors, and his three-minute recall of a given address is impaired. There is no indication of delusions or paranoid symptoms, and he does not display any clouding of consciousness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Major depression with psychosis
Explanation:Psychotic Disorders and Depression: Symptoms and Characteristics
Psychotic disorders and depression can present with a variety of symptoms and characteristics. Major depression is often characterized by psychomotor retardation, anorexia, weight loss, and insomnia, while psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations may also occur. In cases where psychotic symptoms are present, treatment with both an antidepressant and an antipsychotic is recommended.
Alcohol-induced psychotic disorder with hallucinations is characterized by auditory hallucinations, typically maligning, reproachful, or threatening voices. These hallucinations usually last less than a week, and after the episode, most patients realize the hallucinatory nature of the symptoms.
Korsakoff’s psychosis is characterized by both anterograde and retrograde amnesia, with confabulation early in the course. In psychotic depression, the depression is of psychotic intensity with delusional convictions of disease, putrefaction and poverty, contaminating others or causing evil. There may also be hallucinations, typically accusing or derogatory voices.
Schizophrenia is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, negative symptoms (such as blunted affect and poverty of speech), and disorganized behavior. the symptoms and characteristics of these disorders is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic with severe dermatitis on both hands. He lives with his brother and has a history of heroin use, occasional methadone use, and has been drug-free for a year. His brother reports finding a bottle of bleach in the patient's room and catching him repeatedly using it to scrub his hands. The patient is visibly upset and expresses feeling helpless in controlling his actions. What is the initial recommended course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive behaviors and thoughts that are difficult to control and cause distress. The most common symptom is repetitive handwashing, as seen in this patient. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the first-line treatment for OCD, as it helps patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors.
Quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, which is not the correct diagnosis for this patient. Citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is a second-line agent for OCD treatment and can be used in addition to CBT. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, may provide acute relief for anxiety but is not effective in managing OCD.
Eye movement desensitization therapy is used to treat post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which can overlap with OCD, but there are no symptoms of PTSD in this case. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat OCD to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female psychiatric nurse presents to the emergency department following a 2-minute tonic-clonic generalised seizure, which self-terminated. Whilst taking the history the following morning, she tells you that over the last 48 hours she has become increasingly unwell. She has been feeling increasingly anxious and has been having insomnia and vivid nightmares which wake her from sleep. She says that everything around her no longer looks real but more like a photocopy. Bowel and bladder movements have been normal. She feels generally weak and asks the lights to be dimmed in the examination room. When the nurse bell goes off in the next cubicle, she has to cover her ears.
On examination, she appears anxious, she is perspiring, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 142/86 mmHg, heart rate 115/min regular, sats 98% on air. You notice a fine tremor, especially in the hands and eyelids. GCS = 15. Oriented in time place and person. When you examine her, she tells you that it feels as if her legs are floating off the bed even though they are stationary. There is no flushing of the face
From looking at the computer records, you can see that she has a history of panic disorder treated with PRN lorazepam and sertraline 1 year ago. and has been treated for depression in the past. You also note from your records that she presented to A+E 5 days ago due to stress as she was sacked from her job.
Hb 136 g/l
Platelets 232 * 109/l
WBC 6.9 * 109/l
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 3.8 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 81 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atypical Panic attack secondary to panic disorder
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepine withdrawal
Explanation:Withdrawal from benzodiazepines can lead to various physical symptoms, including sweating, tachycardia, and fine tremors in the tongue, eyelids, and hands. It can also cause insomnia, nightmares, anxiety, phobic symptoms, hypersensitivity to light, sounds, and touch, as well as derealisation and kinaesthetic hallucinations. Other symptoms may include malaise, tinnitus, and delirium.
Several factors in the patient’s history suggest that benzodiazepine withdrawal is the likely diagnosis. She has a history of panic disorder and previous dependence on benzodiazepines. As a psychiatric nurse, she may have access to these drugs off prescription. Additionally, her recent job loss may have caused her to run out of her supply and experience withdrawal symptoms.
An overdose of benzodiazepines would not produce the same symptoms as withdrawal, and LSD intoxication would not explain the seizure or kinaesthetic hallucination. While panic attacks may share some features with this presentation, they would not account for all of the patient’s symptoms.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has come to the Outpatient Clinic with complaints of memory difficulties over the past few years. He has been unable to maintain a steady job due to this issue. He experiences extreme fatigue at work, often falling asleep at his desk. Additionally, he suffers from frequent headaches that last for 1-4 hours, occurring on most days of the week. These headaches are bi-frontal and throbbing in nature. He has also experienced sudden falls to the ground on a few occasions. When questioned further, he reports trouble sleeping at night and occasionally waking up unable to move. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Narcolepsy: Modafinil, Paroxetine, Sodium Valproate, Amitriptyline, and Carbamazepine
Narcolepsy is a condition that typically presents in the teens or 20s and is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations. While not all of these symptoms need to be present for a diagnosis, a multiple sleep latency test can confirm the condition. Narcolepsy is often associated with HLA DR2 and DQB1*0602. Modafinil is a useful treatment option for excessive sleepiness in narcolepsy patients. Paroxetine, sodium valproate, amitriptyline, and carbamazepine are not typically used in the treatment of narcolepsy, as they are more commonly used for depression, epilepsy, bipolar disorder, and partial seizures, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 29-year-old woman who has been admitted to the ward after taking an overdose of Paracetamol. She is causing a disturbance on the ward and her partner informs you that she has a gambling addiction and has spent a significant amount on credit cards for unnecessary items. When you approach her, she is highly agitated and threatens to open an Emergency exit from the third floor ward, claiming that she can fly. She has declined observations from the nursing staff and has removed her N-acetylcysteine IV.
What is the most suitable pharmacological intervention in this case?Your Answer: Oral Risperidone
Correct Answer: IM Lorazepam
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Manic Episode
When a patient presents with an acute manic episode and poses a risk to themselves and others, immediate treatment is necessary. The most effective sedative agent in this situation is IM Lorazepam, with a usual dose of 1.5-5mg that can be repeated every 4 hours. Oral Carbamazepine is an alternative for chronic therapy for manic-depressive disorder, while IM Haloperidol should be avoided due to the risk of acute dystonias in young women. Oral Lithium is the standard chronic therapy for manic-depressive disorder but may increase agitation during the short term. Oral Risperidone is an option for patients with significant delusions when sedatives such as Lorazepam fail to control behavior during the short term. It is important to consider the individual patient’s needs and risks when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of sudden weakness in his left arm and leg for the past 30 minutes. He reports no significant medical history or family history of stroke or heart disease.
On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 72 bpm, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. The power of the left arm and leg is 0/5, while the right arm and leg have full strength. The bilateral plantar response is flexor.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Dual antiplatelet therapy
Correct Answer: Reassurance and physical and cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition characterized by neurological symptoms that cannot be explained by a medical condition. The first line of management for this disorder is reassurance and education about the condition. Patients with motor complaints may benefit from physical therapy and cognitive behavioural therapy.
Mechanical thrombectomy is not indicated in the management of conversion disorder. It is used in patients with acute ischaemic stroke presenting within the window period. Dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin infusion are also not useful in the management of conversion disorder.
Thrombolysis with intravenous alteplase is not recommended for patients with conversion disorder, even if they present with unilateral weakness. The diagnosis of conversion disorder should be made after excluding other medical conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and general lethargy that have been ongoing for two months. She has a history of psychiatric illness and is currently taking medication for it. The patient is a smoker, consuming 12 cigarettes per day, and drinks approximately five units of alcohol per week.
During examination, the patient is found to be obese with a BMI of 32.3 kg/m2, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted during the examination.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 133 g/L (115-165)
- White cell count: 5.6 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 136 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 4.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 88 µmol/L (60-110)
- Fasting glucose: 15.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Serum calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
- Serum phosphate: 0.96 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- 24-hour urine volume: 2.1 litres
- Dipstick urine Glucose +
Which of the following agents could be responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Drug-Induced Diabetes and Other Side Effects
This patient is showing symptoms of new onset diabetes mellitus, which is confirmed by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. However, the low daily urine volume of 2.1 L suggests that diabetes insipidus is not the cause. Among the listed drugs, atypical antipsychotics like olanzapine, risperidone, and clozapine have been linked to hyperglycemia and insulin resistance. Although the exact mechanism is not clear, discontinuing the medication may help resolve the diabetes. These atypical agents are becoming more popular because they have fewer extrapyramidal and anticholinergic side effects compared to traditional antipsychotics like haloperidol, which has been associated with hypoglycemia. Lithium, on the other hand, is known to cause diabetes insipidus and thyroid dysfunction. Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, can cause dry mouth and constipation, while valproate, used to treat manic disorders, can lead to leukopenia, deranged liver function tests, and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband. He is very concerned because she appears to fall asleep suddenly during normal activities such as cooking, sometimes while walking and even whilst in the middle of a conversation. On examination her BMI is 28, with BP 140/70 mmHg. Neurological examination is unremarkable.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol
Fasting glucose 5.2 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest narcolepsy, a disorder characterized by sudden falls and lapses into sleep during normal activities. However, a proper diagnosis requires sleep studies to rule out other sleep disorders such as obstructive sleep apnea. Modafinil, a CNS stimulant, may be used to increase wakefulness and performance, but potential p450 interactions should be considered. Atypical epilepsy, syncope, and transient global amnesia are unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s history and symptoms. Obstructive sleep apnea is also unlikely due to the absence of snoring and normal BMI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male is brought to the psychiatrist by his father, who is worried about his son's inability to maintain healthy relationships. The patient himself denies any issues and claims to have many close friends.
During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that he displays inappropriate sexual behavior and uses his physical appearance to seek attention. He also tends to exaggerate events and stories, always portraying himself as the main character. Many of his stories involve excessive emotional reactions.
What is the most precise diagnosis for this personality disorder?Your Answer: Narcissistic
Correct Answer: Histrionic
Explanation:The correct personality disorder for the patient is histrionic personality disorder, which is characterized by excessive attention-seeking, emotional overreaction, inappropriate sexual seductiveness, self-dramatization, and a tendency to consider relationships as more intimate than they actually are. However, the incorrect personality disorders are antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder, which have different symptoms such as breaking the law, unstable self-image, difficulty making decisions without reassurance, and a grandiose sense of self-importance, respectively.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a complaint of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for the past 24 hours. He has been feeling generally unwell for the last six months since losing his job as a taxi driver. He lives alone at home following a recent divorce and has no significant medical history or family history. On examination, he is found to be trembling and sweaty with a heart rate of 130 bpm and regular blood pressure. His temperature is 36.9 oC. Investigations reveal normal results for haemoglobin, white cell count, creatinine, urea, bicarbonate, corrected calcium, phosphate, sodium, potassium, and troponin T. An echocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with a normal ST segment, and a chest X-ray is unremarkable. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)
Explanation:The patient in this case is displaying symptoms of hyperarousal and cardiac-related issues, which are typical of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). GAD is characterized by autonomic and somatic symptoms, such as dizziness, palpitations, sweating, tachycardia, chest pain, tightness, and difficulty breathing. The patient has undergone adequate investigations ruling out organic causes of his symptoms. His recent loss of job, social isolation, and divorce put him at significant risk of an anxiety-related episode.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is unlikely as the troponin and ECG results are normal, and the patient has no significant risk factors.
Conversion disorder is a possibility, but the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical neurological presentation of a psychological stressor.
Phobic disorder is also unlikely as there is no identifiable trigger for the patient’s symptoms.
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a differential diagnosis, but the patient’s Well’s Score is low, and he has no history of haemoptysis. A CT pulmonary angiogram may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old professional has been referred due to excessive drinking for the past two weeks. He has been feeling low for about a month, frequently crying and lacking interest in both work and sex. He acknowledges having experienced similar low periods in the last decade. However, he also describes having phases of high energy, during which he is sociable, productive, and positive. He claims to abstain from alcohol during these times. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar II disorder
Correct Answer: Cyclothymic disorder
Explanation:Mood Disorders
A cyclothymic disorder is a type of mood disorder that involves experiencing numerous periods of both depression and hypomania for at least two years. However, these periods do not meet the criteria for major depressive episodes. On the other hand, a major depressive disorder is characterized by a severe dysphoric mood and persistent loss of interest or pleasure in all usual activities.
Bipolar I disorder is another type of mood disorder that involves severe alterations in mood, including episodes of mania and depression that are usually episodic and recurrent. However, the symptoms of this patient were too mild to fulfill the full diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. In dysthymic disorder, the patient’s mood is chronically depressed with never a manic or hypomanic episode for at least two years.
Lastly, bipolar II disorder is characterized by one or more major depressive episodes, at least one hypomanic episode, and no manic episodes. It is important to understand the differences between these mood disorders to properly diagnose and treat individuals who may be experiencing them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to the clinic with symptoms of low mood, anhedonia, and anergia. During the mental state examination, the patient exhibits passive suicidal ideation, psychomotor agitation, and poverty of thought. It is noted that the patient was recently prescribed a new medication for the treatment of Huntington's chorea.
Which medication could be responsible for the patient's current presentation?Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Reserpine
Explanation:Drug induced depression can be caused by VMAT inhibitors like reserpine, which is commonly used as a dopamine-depleting agent in the treatment of Huntington’s chorea. It is important to rule out organic and drug induced causes before diagnosing a mental health disorder, as several drugs including isotretinoin and VMAT inhibitors have been linked to depression. The patient’s clinical features suggest depression, which may be a result of the reserpine treatment.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 4-week history of constipation not relieved by over the counter laxatives. His past medical history was significant for hypertension, COPD and schizophrenia. His current medications include ramipril, clozapine and tiotropium. He denied weight loss, poor appetite or other alarming symptoms. His family history was significant for bowel cancer with his father and uncle having died of colon cancer aged 78 and 82 respectively. His sister had a hysterectomy at the age of 72 but he was not sure why.
On examination, his blood pressure was 126/80 mmHg lying and 118/82 mmHg standing. Pulse was 65/min. Clinical examination did not reveal any significant findings.
Investigations:
Hb 135 g/l
MCV 83 fl
Platelets 410 * 109/l
WBC 6.8 * 109/l
Creatinine 91 umol/L
Urea 4.5 umol/L
Na+ 142 mmol/L
K+ 4.0 mmol/L
Corrected Calcium 2.4mmol/L
FOB negative
Abdominal X-ray faecal loading
What is the most likely cause of constipation in this case?Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 17-year-old high-school student is brought to the Neurology Outpatient Clinic as an emergency extra due to three falls at home and crashing the family car. Her mother is concerned because she has started to walk funny. The patient has no medical history, is not on any medication, and denies smoking or using alcohol or illicit drugs. Her father has epilepsy, and her mother has type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. One of her younger brothers had suffered from acute lymphoblastic leukaemia but is now in remission. She has recently broken up with her boyfriend of three years and has a pet dog and a parrot. She is three weeks away from taking her A-level examinations. On examination, she has a coarse tremor on movement, a broad ataxic gait, nystagmus, past-pointing, and diplopia. The rest of the exam was normal. Investigations reveal abnormal results for Haemoglobin, White Cell Count, Sodium, Creatinine, Bilirubin, and Alanine aminotransferase. CT head demonstrates a normal brain, and no abnormalities are seen on U/S liver and bile ducts are of normal calibre. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine overdose
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Woman with Cerebellar Symptoms and Abnormal Liver Function Tests
This young woman presents with cerebellar symptoms and abnormal liver function tests. The history reveals that she has access to carbamazepine, which can cause dose-dependent unwanted effects such as diplopia, nystagmus, ataxia, and hyponatremia. Hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy are also possible. However, paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune hepatitis, and chronic alcoholism are also potential causes.
Multiple sclerosis typically presents with a patchwork of symptoms and may include optic neuritis as the initial feature. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare condition associated with certain cancers and anti-Yo antibodies. Autoimmune hepatitis may cause abnormal liver function tests but is not usually associated with cerebellar signs. Chronic alcoholism seems unlikely given the patient’s age and academic achievements, and the absence of raised GGT levels.
Overall, the patient’s access to carbamazepine, cerebellar symptoms, and abnormal liver function tests suggest that carbamazepine overdose is the most likely cause of her symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 35-year-old woman who is presenting with symptoms of emotional distress. She reports experiencing intense anxiety and fear for the past eight months, accompanied by palpitations, tremors, sweating, and a sensation of suffocation. There is no identifiable trigger for these episodes, which typically last for 10-15 minutes and can occur in various settings, including when she is at rest. However, they are most frequent when she is riding on an escalator. She has no signs of psychosis. She has visited the Emergency department twice, believing she was having a heart attack, but all tests were normal. She had similar episodes five years ago, which gradually resolved. Her mother had a history of depression, and her father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Her overall physical health is good, and she is alert and oriented. Her cognitive abilities are intact, except for mild difficulty concentrating. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Panic disorder
Explanation:Panic Disorder
Panic disorder is a condition characterized by sudden and intense episodes of anxiety or fear accompanied by physical symptoms such as palpitations and a feeling of suffocation. To differentiate it from a specific phobia, some of these attacks must occur without any environmental trigger. Unlike somatisation disorder, which is a chronic condition characterized by multiple symptoms and health seeking, panic disorder occurs in discrete bursts. The patient in question does not exhibit major depressive symptoms, making it unlikely that she is suffering from depression. Additionally, an adjustment disorder is unlikely as there is no antecedent event that could have brought on her symptoms.
Research has shown that abnormal discharge from the locus caeruleus in the midbrain is implicated in panic attacks. The locus caeruleus is the origin of most brain noradrenergic pathways. the underlying causes of panic disorder can help healthcare professionals provide effective treatment and support to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to a psychiatric clinic following a referral from his GP due to his eccentric behavior. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. There is no history of substance abuse.
Upon examination, he appears disheveled and is dressed entirely in black clothing. He is accompanied by his mother.
During the interview, it becomes apparent that he has always been perceived as strange by others and has difficulty forming social connections. He experiences anxiety in social situations and is fixated on ghosts, even going so far as to attempt to purchase ghost-hunting equipment. He occasionally feels the presence of spirits in his home as a cold breeze.
Throughout the interview, his affect is inappropriate, and he avoids eye contact while laughing at unusual points in the conversation.
What is the appropriate diagnosis for this personality disorder?Your Answer: Antisocial
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with no previous medical history. She has an intense fear of germs and spends up to two hours each day washing her hands. She feels that she is constantly dirty and cannot shake the feeling. Additionally, she checks the locks on her doors multiple times before leaving the house due to concerns about security. During the examination, she appears to be in a depressed mood and speaks slowly but coherently. What is the recommended initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Clomipramine
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a condition characterized by repetitive behavior that is intrusive and time-consuming. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the first-line treatment for OCD, as it has been shown to be effective in reducing symptoms. Antidepressant medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), can also be considered as an alternative or adjunct to CBT. However, CBT should be offered as the initial treatment option.
In severe cases or when there are dissociative symptoms or a history of personality disorder, CBT in combination with an antidepressant may be recommended. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is not typically offered as a first-line therapy for OCD.
Antipsychotics may be used as an augmentation of SSRI or TCA treatment in OCD, but this is not a first-line therapy. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not appropriate for OCD as it is primarily used to treat schizophrenia.
Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is used for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder and is not recommended for OCD. Overall, CBT is the most effective treatment option for OCD, with medication as a potential adjunct in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with significant mood swings that began a month after he had an asymptomatic thyroid nodule removed two years ago. He experiences about three weeks of intense energy, euphoria, and hyperactivity followed by a week of depression where he sleeps excessively and feels immobile. This pattern of alternating periods of depression and elation, with a few 'normal' days, has occurred multiple times since. The patient denies any substance abuse. Mild thyroid hypofunctioning was detected in his last thyroid function tests, but there are no clinical signs of thyroid disease on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar II disorder
Correct Answer: Bipolar I disorder
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder and its Treatment Options
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by severe mood swings, including episodes of mania and depression. Bipolar I disorder is marked by recurrent and episodic mood alterations, while bipolar II disorder involves major depressive episodes and at least one hypomanic episode. Patients with bipolar disorder, particularly those with bipolar II disorder, are often misdiagnosed as having unipolar depression. It is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment for acute episodes and maintenance therapy.
A mixed state can occur in both bipolar I and bipolar II disorder, where the patient experiences both depressive and mood-elevated symptoms simultaneously. Dysthymic disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by chronic depression without any manic or hypomanic episodes for at least two years.
Sodium valproate and carbamazepine are the first-line treatments for prophylaxis of manic and depressive episodes in bipolar I disorder. Lithium may be used if these anticonvulsants are ineffective. In the initial stages of manic episodes, drugs with potent sedative effects such as clonazepam, lorazepam, and haloperidol may be added. These drugs can be tapered and discontinued as soon as the initial phase of the manic episode subsides and the effects of anticonvulsants or lithium are seen clinically.
Overall, the different types of bipolar disorder and their treatment options is crucial for effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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