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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old retiree visits his GP as he is becoming increasingly breathless and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retiree visits his GP as he is becoming increasingly breathless and tired whilst walking. He has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 3 times a week. Over the past year he has noted that he can no longer manage the same distance that he used to be able to without getting breathless and needing to stop. He wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
      Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the cardiovascular system?

      Your Answer: Reduced VO2 max

      Explanation:

      Ageing and Cardiovascular Health: Understanding the Normal and Abnormal Changes

      As we age, our organs may still function normally at rest, but they may struggle to respond adequately to stressors such as exercise or illness. One of the key indicators of cardiovascular health is VO2 max, which measures the maximum rate of oxygen consumption during exercise. In normal ageing, VO2 max may decrease along with muscle strength, making intense exertion more difficult. However, significantly reduced VO2 max, left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), or stroke volume are not consistent with normal ageing. Additionally, hypotension or hypertension are not typical changes associated with ageing. Understanding these normal and abnormal changes can help us better monitor and manage our cardiovascular health as we age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.3
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  • Question 2 - A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial of b-blocker (sotalol), give anticoagulation and review in 1 week

      Correct Answer: IV flecainide

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:

      Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation

      Initial investigation

      The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.

      Medical cardioversion

      If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.

      Anticoagulation therapy

      If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.

      Trial of b-blocker

      Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.

      Intravenous adenosine

      This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.

      In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.6
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  • Question 3 - A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a...

    Correct

    • A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a group of first year medical students. She asks the students to work out the heart rate of a patient by interpreting his ECG taken during an episode of tachycardia.
      What is the duration, in seconds, of one small square on an ECG?

      Your Answer: 0.04 seconds

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Time Measurements

      When reading an electrocardiogram (ECG), it is important to understand the time measurements represented on the grid paper. The horizontal axis of the ECG represents time, with each small square measuring 1 mm in length and representing 40 milliseconds (0.04 seconds). A large square on the ECG grid has a length of 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. Five large squares covering a length of 25 mm on the grid represent 1 second of time. It is important to note that each small square has a length of 1 mm and equates to 40 milliseconds, not 4 seconds. Understanding these time measurements is crucial for accurately interpreting an ECG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.6
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  • Question 4 - An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, persistent truncus arteriosus, hypoplastic left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome

      Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.

      The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.2
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. Upon examination, his temperature is 37.1 °C; the blood pressure in his left arm is 174/96 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He has 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and his lower extremities are cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. Renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Coarctation of the Aorta, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Renal Artery Stenosis, Atrial Septal Defect, and Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis are all cardiovascular conditions that have distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Coarctation of the Aorta is characterized by hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Patients may also experience lower extremity claudication due to low oxygen delivery. Chest X-rays may reveal notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen.

      Patent Ductus Arteriosus refers to a persistent open lumen in the ductus arteriosus, causing a left-to-right shunt. A constant, machine-like murmur is detected on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome and reverse to become a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.

      Renal Artery Stenosis causes decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. A bruit is typically heard on auscultation of the abdomen, and creatinine levels may be elevated due to decreased renal perfusion.

      Atrial Septal Defect is a congenital abnormality that causes a left-to-right shunt. It can be detected by a fixed, widely split S2 on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.

      Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis refers to blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, causing lower extremity swelling, warmth, and erythema. It does not cause hypertension, claudication, or cool lower extremities. Lower extremity arterial insufficiency may cause claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.3
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.9
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  • Question 7 - A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken...

    Correct

    • A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken aback by the presence of calcification of a valve orifice located at the upper left sternum at the level of the third costal cartilage.
      Which valve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: The pulmonary valve

      Explanation:

      Location and Auscultation of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through its chambers. Each valve has a specific location and can be auscultated to assess its function.

      The Pulmonary Valve: Located at the junction of the sternum and left third costal cartilage, the pulmonary valve is best auscultated at the level of the second left intercostal space parasternally.

      The Aortic Valve: Positioned posterior to the left side of the sternum at the level of the third intercostal space, the aortic valve is best auscultated in the second right intercostal space parasternally.

      The Mitral Valve: Found posteriorly to the left side of the sternum at the level of left fourth costal cartilage, in the fifth intercostal space in mid-clavicular line, the mitral valve can be auscultated to assess its function.

      The Valve of the Coronary Sinus: The Thebesian valve of the coronary sinus is an endocardial flap that plays a role in regulating blood flow through the heart.

      The Tricuspid Valve: Located behind the lower mid-sternum at the level of the fourth and fifth intercostal spaces, the tricuspid valve is best auscultated over the lower sternum.

      Understanding the location and auscultation of heart valves is essential for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.6
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, weakness, lethargy, and a recent episode of syncope after running to catch a bus. She has a history of atrial flutter and takes bisoprolol regularly. During the physical examination, you notice a high-pitched, diastolic decrescendo murmur that intensifies during inspiration. She also has moderate peripheral edema. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic valve replacement followed by aspirin, clopidogrel and simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Diuretics, oxygen therapy, bosentan

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Hypertension

      Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is a condition that can cause shortness of breath, weakness, and tiredness. A high-pitched decrescendo murmur may indicate pulmonary regurgitation and PAH. Diuretics can help reduce the pressure on the right ventricle and remove excess fluid. Oxygen therapy can improve exercise tolerance, and bosentan can slow the progression of PAH by inhibiting vasoconstriction. Salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers are appropriate for COPD, but not for PAH. Salbutamol nebulizer and supplemental oxygen are appropriate for acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD, but not for PAH. Aortic valve replacement is not indicated for PAH. Antiplatelets may be helpful for reducing the risk of thrombosis. Increasing bisoprolol may be helpful for atrial flutter, but not for PAH. High-dose calcium-channel blockers may be used for PAH with right heart failure under senior supervision/consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      48.8
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.2
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man with a known harsh ejection systolic murmur on cardiac examination...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with a known harsh ejection systolic murmur on cardiac examination collapses and passes away during a sporting event. His father and uncle also died suddenly in their forties. The reason for death is identified as an obstruction of the ventricular outflow tract caused by an abnormality in the ventricular septum.
      What is the accurate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Types of Cardiomyopathy and Congenital Heart Defects

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart diseases that affect the structure and function of the heart muscle. There are different types of cardiomyopathy, each with its own causes and symptoms. Additionally, there are congenital heart defects that can affect the heart’s structure and function from birth. Here are some of the most common types:

      1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: This is an inherited condition that causes the heart muscle to thicken, making it harder for the heart to pump blood. It can lead to sudden death in young athletes.

      2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy: This is a rare form of cardiomyopathy that is caused by diseases that restrict the heart’s ability to fill with blood during diastole.

      3. Dilated cardiomyopathy: This is the most common type of cardiomyopathy, which causes the heart chambers to enlarge and weaken, leading to heart failure.

      4. Mitral stenosis: This is a narrowing of the mitral valve, which can impede blood flow between the left atrium and ventricle.

      In addition to these types of cardiomyopathy, there are also congenital heart defects, such as ventricular septal defect, which is the most common congenital heart defect. This condition creates a direct connection between the right and left ventricles, affecting the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively.

      Understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and congenital heart defects is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.8
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Cardiology (5/10) 50%
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