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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Drug induced

      Correct Answer: Anxiety

      Explanation:

      Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options

      When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review of medication. He reports that his pain is no longer managed with paracetamol and 240 mg oral codeine per day. The doctor decides to initiate an opiate.
      Which of the following is the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer: Oral morphine 30 mg daily in divided doses

      Explanation:

      Starting Strong Opioids for Pain Management

      When beginning strong opioids for pain management, it is recommended to use regular oral sustained-release or immediate-release morphine, depending on the patient’s preference. Immediate-release morphine can be used as needed for breakthrough pain, but it should not replace regular oral morphine. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical starting dose of 20-30 mg of oral morphine per day is recommended. This can be divided into two doses of sustained-release morphine or taken as 5mg of immediate-release morphine every 4 hours. However, patients switching from a weak opioid may require a higher starting dose of 40-60mg per day.

      If oral opioids are not suitable, transdermal patches or subcutaneous infusions can be used as an alternative. In most cases, a general practitioner should not require specialist advice at this stage of pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently...

    Incorrect

    • A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'

      Correct Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'

      Explanation:

      The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      88.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.

      When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.

      What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Twenty-four hour ECG

      Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.

      For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years ago and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, indapamide 2.5mg od, and spironolactone 25 mg od. A trial of doxazosin was discontinued due to dizziness. Despite these medications, his blood pressure in clinic today is 160/100 mmHg, which is confirmed with a 24-hour blood pressure reading averaging 156/98 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Due to the significantly elevated blood pressure of this relatively young patient, despite being on four antihypertensive medications, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a secondary cause. Therefore, referral to secondary care is recommended for further investigation. As per NICE guidelines, if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after using the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four medications, it is advisable to seek expert advice if it has not already been obtained.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman who is four months pregnant is planning to travel to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is four months pregnant is planning to travel to Africa with her husband for his business. She visits your clinic as she needs to update her vaccinations.
      Which of the following vaccines is safe to administer during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Live, Antigenic, and Toxoid Vaccines

      Live vaccines are those that contain a weakened or attenuated form of the virus or bacteria they protect against. Examples of live vaccines include oral polio vaccines, measles, mumps, rubella, yellow fever, and BCG. These vaccines are effective because they stimulate the immune system to produce a strong and long-lasting response.

      Antigenic vaccines, on the other hand, contain a part of the virus or bacteria that triggers an immune response. Hepatitis A and B vaccines are examples of antigenic vaccines. They are indicated in cases where there is a risk of exposure to Hepatitis A or B.

      Toxoid vaccines contain a toxin produced by the bacteria they protect against that has been inactivated or detoxified. Tetanus vaccination is an example of a toxoid vaccine. These vaccines are effective because they stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies that neutralize the toxin.

      In summary, live, antigenic, and toxoid vaccines are all important tools in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. Each type of vaccine works differently, but all are designed to stimulate the immune system to produce a protective response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a fever for three days, and as this disappeared he was noted to have a rash.

      On examination he is noted to be apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Common Rashes and Their Characteristics

      Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash with lymphadenopathy. The rash is macular in nature and is usually seen in infants and young children.

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes target lesions with blistering. It is often caused by an allergic reaction to medication or an infection.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition that causes a petechial rash. This rash is caused by a low platelet count and can be seen in individuals of all ages.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs. It is often seen in children and is caused by inflammation of the blood vessels.

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This rash is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.

    A few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.

      A few months previously he had a private health screening that showed an abnormality on his liver function tests. He was subsequently told to see his GP for further advice. You can see that a liver function test done at that time showed a bilirubin level of 41 µmol/L (normal 3-20) with the remainder of the liver function profile being within normal limits.

      Prior to seeing you today a colleague has repeated the liver function with a few other tests. The results show a normal full blood count, renal function and thyroid function.

      Repeat LFTs reveal:
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/L
      ALT 35 U/L
      ALP 104 U/L
      Conjugated bilirubin 7 μmol/L

      He is well in himself and has no significant past medical history. General systems examination is normal.

      What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Elevated Bilirubin Levels in Asymptomatic Patients

      This patient has an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is not experiencing any symptoms. The bilirubin level is twice the upper limit of normal, which has been confirmed on interval testing. The next step is to determine the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If greater than 70% is unconjugated, as is the case here, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome.

      If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, then no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor bilirubin levels in asymptomatic patients to detect any potential underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old boy with chronic cough and failure to thrive has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy with chronic cough and failure to thrive has been referred for a sweat test by the paediatricians. His parents come to see you to discuss what is involved in this test and how accurate it is.
      Select the single statement that is true regarding this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: False positives are seen in patients with hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Diagnosis and Testing Methods

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is responsible for regulating sweat, digestive juices, and mucous in the body. CFTR controls the movement of chloride and sodium ions across epithelial membranes, such as those found in the lungs. While most people have two working copies of the CFTR gene, only one is needed to prevent CF due to its recessive nature.

      Diagnosing CF involves identifying mutations in the CFTR gene, but this method has not replaced sweat testing as the primary diagnostic tool. Sweat testing involves injecting pilocarpine and collecting sweat to analyze sodium and chloride levels. This test is 98% sensitive, but it may be unreliable in patients under three weeks of age or those with hormonal issues like hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, or adrenal insufficiency.

      The Guthrie test is a screening test that can detect immunoreactive trypsinogen, which may be associated with CF, but it is not diagnostic. Further testing is required to confirm a diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the diagnosis and testing methods for CF is crucial in identifying and managing this genetic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory. He has felt more forgetful over the last six months; his wife mentions that he seems to ask the same questions repeatedly.
      The GP decides to conduct a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
      What is the most appropriate advice to provide the patient before this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The MMSE involves tests of immediate and delayed recall

      Explanation:

      The MMSE: A Test of Cognition and Recall

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used test to assess cognitive function in patients. It consists of 30 items that evaluate various aspects of cognition, including immediate and delayed recall, fine motor skills, calculation, language, and comprehension. One of the tasks involves asking the patient to recall three words immediately and later on in the test. A score of 27 or lower on the MMSE may indicate dementia.

      While the MMSE does test fine motor skills by asking the patient to copy intersecting pentagons, it may not be the best screening tool for general practice. GPs may find other tests, such as the 6-Item Cognitive Impairment Test or the GP Assessment of Cognition Test, more suitable for their needs.

      It’s important to note that the MMSE is not designed to assess affective disorders or delirium. Therefore, it should not be used for this purpose. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for clinicians to establish a baseline understanding of a patient’s cognitive state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A study conducted by the local public health team in the commissioning group...

    Incorrect

    • A study conducted by the local public health team in the commissioning group locality reveals that single men who claim disability benefit are 70% more likely to die due to alcohol misuse compared to single men of the same age who do not claim disability benefit. What is the correct interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confounding variables may have contributed to the higher risk of death due to alcohol abuse in the disability benefit group

      Explanation:

      The Complex Relationship Between Disability Benefit and Alcohol Abuse

      Patients who claim disability benefit are more likely to have social and medical comorbidity, making it difficult to compare them with age-matched controls without controlling for these variables. Factors such as poverty, poor housing, poor nutrition, smoking, and physical and mental illness are all likely to be more common in this group, which can increase the risk of death if the person also abuses alcohol.

      While all-cause mortality is likely to be higher in the benefit group, it is not possible to draw this conclusion from the available data. It is possible that increasing benefit could improve nutrition and other factors, potentially reducing the harmful effects of alcohol. However, this cannot be concluded from the data.

      The disability group does have a higher rate of alcohol-related deaths, but it is unclear whether this is due to a higher prevalence of alcohol abuse in this group. Therefore, it is not possible to claim an association between claiming benefit and alcohol abuse, let alone identify claiming benefit as a risk factor for alcohol abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old multiparous lady has been referred for a 75 g 2-hour oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old multiparous lady has been referred for a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test by the midwife. She is 34 weeks pregnant on her 3rd pregnancy. Her urine tested 1+ to glucose on two occasions and her midwife arranged for her to undergo further testing.

      What is the threshold plasma glucose level for diagnosing gestational diabetes following a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.8

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes

      Gestational diabetes is a common condition that affects pregnant women. It is important to be familiar with the threshold levels of plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes using both a fasting and 75g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is different from that of non-pregnant or male patients.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, a woman should have either a fasting plasma glucose level of 5.6 mmol/litre or above or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 7.8 mmol/litre or above. For non-pregnant or male patients, the figures are 7 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l.

      It is recommended that patients should be offered a 75 g 2-hour OGTT if they have risk factors for diabetes or if they had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy. In 2015, NICE offered new advice that glycosuria of 2+ or above on one occasion or of 1+ or above on two or more occasions detected by reagent strip testing during routine antenatal care may indicate undiagnosed gestational diabetes. If this is observed, further testing should be considered to exclude gestational diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 14 - A researcher calculates various statistical values for a randomized controlled trial of a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher calculates various statistical values for a randomized controlled trial of a new drug vs an old drug that treats heart failure in elderly patients. She finds that the probability of type 1 error is 31%, the probability of type 2 error is 26%, the p-value is 0.04 and the confidence interval of 95%.

      What is the power of this study for elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.74

      Explanation:

      Power is the ability of a study to accurately identify an effect or difference, regardless of whether the hypothesis is accepted or rejected. It is calculated as 1 minus the probability of a type II error, which is the likelihood of failing to detect a true effect or difference. A study with high power has a low probability of type II error and can therefore more reliably detect real effects or differences. Conversely, as the probability of type II error decreases, the power of the study increases.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking to switch from her current Microgynon 30 COC to another option due to experiencing mood swings. The decision is made to start her on Marvelon. What guidance should be provided regarding transitioning to a new COC?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finish the current pill packet and the start the new COC without a pill free interval

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting advice from the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) regarding the omission of the pill free interval. The FSRH’s Clinical Effectiveness Unit has stated that the pill free interval doesn’t need to be skipped, while the BNF recommends skipping it if there are changes in progesterone. As there is no clear consensus, it is advisable to follow the BNF’s recommendation.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 16 - Recurrent chest infections/persistent cough are a common reason for adults to seek medical...

    Incorrect

    • Recurrent chest infections/persistent cough are a common reason for adults to seek medical attention. This can pose a diagnostic dilemma. What is the most probable cause for an adult presenting with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent 'normal' infections

      Explanation:

      Coughing is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors. Asthma, recurrent infections, and prolonged infections are very common causes of coughing. Cigarette smoking, habit or psychogenic cough, and idiopathic reasons are also common causes. Uncommon causes include aspiration, gastro-oesophageal reflux, incoordinate swallowing, intrabronchial foreign body, suppurative lung disease, and mediastinal or pulmonary tumors. Very rare causes include suppurative lung disease. Other less common causes of coughing include cystic fibrosis, post-infective conditions, tuberculosis, ciliary abnormalities, congenital abnormalities of the respiratory tract, and immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment

      Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.

      To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.

      While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.

      Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO)...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) when used in premature infants of less than 32 weeks gestation to reduce postnatal haemoglobin decline. Out of 29 infants given the treatment, none suffered serious side-effects.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nothing conclusive can be said, a larger study is needed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Further Study on Infant Drug Safety

      Although none of the 31 infants in the study experienced serious side-effects from the drug, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the drug is completely safe for all infants. If 3% of infants were to suffer from serious side-effects, it would only be expected to occur in 1 out of 30 infants, making it possible to have no occurrences in a small sample size. Therefore, a larger study is necessary to obtain a more accurate estimate of the percentage of infants who may experience serious side-effects. It is crucial to conduct further research to ensure the safety of infants who may be prescribed this drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 19 - Samantha is a 95-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 95-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She comes to see you for a medication review. She is on a cocktail of various medications including medications for chronic pain, hypertension and COPD. You think it is important to reduce her medications.

      Which of the following tools can assist you with this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: STOPP tool

      Explanation:

      The STOPP tool is designed to pinpoint medications that pose a greater risk than therapeutic benefits in specific conditions.

      To identify medications that can be discontinued in elderly patients, healthcare professionals use the STOPP tool.

      The START tool assists doctors in determining which medications are appropriate for older adults.

      In the UK, the Yellow Card scheme enables the recording of medication side effects.

      The Rockwood frailty scale is utilized to identify frailty in older individuals.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 20 - A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands suggestive of contact dermatitis, possibly related to wearing protective gloves at work. She requests confirmatory tests.
      Select the single test that is most likely to be helpful establishing the diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch testing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Patch Testing for Contact Allergic Dermatitis

      Patch testing is a diagnostic tool used to identify substances that may be causing delayed hypersensitivity reactions, such as contact allergic dermatitis. This type of reaction occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen, resulting in a localized rash or inflammation. During patch testing, diluted chemicals are placed under patches on a small area of the back to produce a reaction. The chemicals included in the patch test kit are the most common offenders in cases of contact allergic dermatitis, including metals, rubber, leather, hair dyes, formaldehyde, lanolin, fragrance, preservatives, and other additives. If a patient has identified a possible allergen, such as shavings from the inside of gloves, it can be included in the test. Patches are removed after 48 hours, and the skin is inspected for reactions. The patient may return after 96 hours to check for late reactions.

      Skin-prick testing, intradermal testing, and measurement of specific IgE are used to investigate immediate hypersensitivity reactions. However, direct exposure to gloves is not usually helpful in diagnosing contact allergic dermatitis, as the patient needs to continue wearing them. Additionally, not all cases of hand eczema are allergic in origin and may be caused by constitutional eczema or irritant dermatitis. In these cases, patch testing may be negative or show an irrelevant result. Understanding patch testing and its limitations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and treat contact allergic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.

      You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Urea 4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l

      You decide to review his medications.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with concerns about coeliac disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with concerns about coeliac disease. She reports feeling uncomfortable after consuming wheat, but doesn't experience diarrhoea. What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood test for immunoglobulin A (IgA) anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG)

      Explanation:

      First-line Testing for Coeliac Disease

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that the first-line testing for coeliac disease should be for immunoglobulin A (IgA) anti-tissue transglutaminase, replacing IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) as the most appropriate initial test. Total IgA is also typically measured. However, false negatives may occur if there is an IgA deficiency. In such cases, positive testing should prompt referral for biopsy. False-negative results may also occur in patients who have abstained from gluten for some time. Antigliadin antibodies are no longer used routinely due to their low specificity and sensitivity. Faecal fat is a nonspecific sign of malabsorption and can be positive in many other conditions, such as chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and following gastrectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis 4 weeks ago, which was successfully treated without any complications. Her urine culture did not show any resistant or atypical organisms. However, she has a history of recurrent lower UTIs and is feeling frustrated as she has had 6 episodes in the past year, which has put a strain on her new relationship. She has tried cranberry juice and probiotics, but they did not provide any relief.

      You ordered an abdominal ultrasound, which came back normal, and her post-void volume was 25 ml. After reviewing her behavioral and self-hygiene measures, you have identified sexual intercourse as the only trigger.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotic prophylaxis for single-dose use with sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      For women who experience regular urinary tract infections (UTIs) following sexual intercourse, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a single-dose oral antibiotic prophylaxis to be taken with sexual intercourse. This is in line with NICE guidance, which also advises first-line measures such as avoiding douching and occlusive underwear, wiping from front to back after defecation, and maintaining adequate hydration. Daily antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for premenopausal, non-pregnant women with an identifiable trigger, but may be considered for those who continue to have recurrences with single-dose antibiotic prophylaxis regimens. Vaginal oestrogen cream is recommended for postmenopausal women, while referral to secondary care is only necessary for certain groups, such as those with suspected cancer or persistent haematuria. A self-taken vulvovaginal swab for STIs is not necessary unless there are symptoms of vulvovaginitis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 25 - What is a negative prognostic factor for individuals with multiple sclerosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a negative prognostic factor for individuals with multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male sex

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. The prognosis of MS varies depending on several factors. Some features are associated with a good prognosis, such as being female, having a young age of onset (20s or 30s), having relapsing-remitting disease, experiencing sensory symptoms only, having a long interval between the first two relapses, and experiencing complete recovery between relapses.

      To remember these prognostic features, it can be helpful to think of the typical patient carrying a better prognosis than an atypical presentation. It is important to note that while these features may indicate a better prognosis, they do not guarantee a positive outcome. MS is a complex disease, and each person’s experience with it is unique. Therefore, it is essential to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage symptoms and develop an individualized treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - The mother of a 6-year-old girl contacts you for a prescription. During the...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 6-year-old girl contacts you for a prescription. During the night, the child had complained of an itchy bottom, and upon inspection, the parents found a few live tiny white worms near the anus. What advice should you give regarding household contacts?

      Advice: It is important to treat all household contacts, including parents and siblings, as they may also be infected with the same type of worm. They should also practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and keeping fingernails short, to prevent the spread of infection. Additionally, it may be helpful to wash all bedding, towels, and clothing in hot water to eliminate any remaining eggs or larvae.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat all household contacts with oral mebendazole

      Explanation:

      If a patient is diagnosed with threadworms, also known as pinworms, it is recommended that all household contacts receive treatment, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. Mebendazole should be taken by all family members on the same day, except for pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 2 years old. Strict hygiene measures are advised for these exceptions to disrupt the life cycle of the worms. The adhesive tape test is preferred over a stool sample for lab testing confirmation, but in this case, it is not necessary as all household contacts should be treated. Permethrin is a topical insecticide used for treating scabies.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A researcher is designing a crossover trial to study the efficacy of a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is designing a crossover trial to study the efficacy of a new antiviral medication versus a placebo for treating influenza in elderly patients. The medication being studied has a very short half-life. The sample size that is available to the researcher for this trial is small but there is a long time period available for the trial to be completed. All of the elderly patients that have agreed to take part in the study are expecting to receive the active treatment.
      Which of these factors may make a crossover trial unsuitable in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The natural course of the disease

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Conducting a Crossover Trial

      When considering conducting a crossover trial, there are several factors to take into account. Firstly, the natural course of the disease being studied should be considered, as crossover trials are less suited to studying self-limiting illnesses. Secondly, the expectations of the patients regarding the treatment they will receive should be taken into account, as all participants will receive both the active treatment and the placebo. Thirdly, the half-life of the medication should be considered, as drugs with a long half-life may confound the results. Fourthly, the sample size required for a crossover trial is typically smaller than for other types of trial. Finally, the time available for the trial to be completed should be considered, as crossover trials consist of two study periods and may take longer than parallel designs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with cyclical pelvic pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition from the options provided below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progestogen should be considered.

      Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any progestogen options can be considered. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is preferred.

      Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis. While it may provide some relief for pelvic symptoms during menstruation, it is not a treatment for the condition. It may be used to alleviate cramps associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

      Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient as it may delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family soon.

      Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a suitable long-term solution for managing symptoms.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication can be prescribed alongside goserelin to prevent a tumour flare during the initial period of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Management of Prostate Cancer with Goserelin

      Goserelin is a medication used in the management of prostate cancer. As a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, it works by lowering testosterone levels. However, in some men, it can cause a temporary worsening of symptoms known as a ‘tumour flare’ during the initial stages of treatment. To prevent this, bicalutamide, an anti-androgen, can be used concurrently with the LHRH agonist for 4-6 weeks.

      In addition to managing tumour flare, medroxyprogesterone acetate and cyproterone acetate can be used to treat hot flashes associated with LHRH agonist use. Tamoxifen is another treatment option for gynaecomastia, a side effect of long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer. Finally, tamsulosin is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare providers can better manage prostate cancer and its associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

End Of Life (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed