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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in for a routine check-up. Upon examination, he appears healthy with no abnormal findings except for his blood pressure, which is measured at 160/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 16 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 163 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What additional factor would indicate that the cause of this presentation is chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: Haematuria

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia is a sign that the patient’s kidney disease is chronic rather than acute. This is because chronic renal failure can result in a lack of conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, which is necessary for intestinal calcium absorption. As a result, hypocalcaemia is a marker that suggests the kidney disease is chronic and not acute. Anuria, haematuria, and normal parathyroid hormone levels are not indicative of chronic kidney disease. Most patients with chronic kidney disease are asymptomatic until very late-stage renal disease occurs, at which point they may experience other symptoms such as oedema, anaemia, and pruritus. Oliguria is more suggestive of an acute kidney injury in this scenario.

      Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

      One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.

      In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick. He reports that his GP had prescribed him antibiotics for a chest infection. Upon examination, an ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). What medication is he likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides, particularly clarithromycin, due to its potential to prolong the QT interval and trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. This risk is higher in patients with an underlying channelopathy. Long QT syndrome can be caused by genetic factors such as potassium or sodium channel mutations, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypokalaemia. Certain drugs, including antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, and psychotropic medications, can also cause long QT syndrome.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 3 - An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication for a painful and swollen knee joint two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and their Association with Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the renal tubules and interstitium, often caused by medications. Here are some common medications and their association with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis:

      1. Prednisolone: This medication is safe to continue as it is already used as a management option for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      2. Allopurinol: This medication should be discontinued as it is known to cause acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      3. Amoxicillin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is one of the most common drug-related causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and may need to be withdrawn.

      4. Diclofenac: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as diclofenac, are another common cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be stopped in any form of acute kidney injury.

      5. Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are known to be a triggering medication for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be withdrawn promptly to allow for renal function recovery.

      It is important to be aware of these associations and to monitor patients for symptoms of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He is concerned that she is not growing as well as her classmates. The father reports that the child experiences foul-smelling diarrhoea about 3-4 times a week and complains of abdominal pain.
      During the examination, the girl has a distended belly and thin buttocks. She has fallen 3 centile lines and now falls on the 15th centile.
      What would be the most suitable first test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman visits the general practice clinic with complaints of itchy eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits the general practice clinic with complaints of itchy eyes and crusting on the eyelids. During examination, the upper lids near the eyelash follicles have small flakes of skin, and the eyelids are slightly swollen.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warm compresses and eyelid hygiene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Blepharitis

      Blepharitis is a common eye condition that causes inflammation of the eyelids. The most appropriate first-line treatment for blepharitis is self-care measures such as eyelid hygiene and warm compresses. This involves cleaning the eyelids with warm water and a diluted cleanser such as baby shampoo twice a day, and applying a warm compress to the closed eyelids for 5-10 minutes once or twice a day.

      Topical steroids are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, but may be used by secondary care clinicians to reduce inflammation. Topical chloramphenicol may be prescribed for anterior blepharitis if eyelid hygiene and warm compresses are ineffective, while oral tetracycline may be prescribed for posterior blepharitis with meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea if self-care measures are ineffective.

      It is important to note that topical ketoconazole is not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, as it is used for other conditions such as fungal skin infections and candidiasis. If self-care measures and prescribed treatments do not improve symptoms, further treatment or referral may be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home readings indicate an average blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg. He reports feeling generally well, and physical examination is unremarkable. Previous investigations have not revealed an underlying cause for his hypertension. Recent blood tests show normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. He is currently on ramipril, amlodipine, and bendroflumethiazide. What would be the most appropriate medication to add for the management of this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension and is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, the best option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. According to NICE guidelines, this patient has resistant hypertension, which is stage 4 of the NICE flowchart for hypertension management. Spironolactone can also be introduced at this stage, but only if the patient’s serum potassium is less than 4.5mmol/l, as spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Indapamide is not suitable for someone who is already taking a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide. Furosemide is typically used for hypertension management in patients with heart failure or kidney disease, which is not present in this case. Hydralazine is primarily used for emergency hypertension management or hypertension during pregnancy, not for long-term management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this morning. She usually takes it at 9am, but it's now 12:30 pm. What guidance should the doctor provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Progestogen Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - You are the foundation year two doctor on the paediatric medical assessment unit....

    Incorrect

    • You are the foundation year two doctor on the paediatric medical assessment unit. You are asked to clerk a 10-year-old boy who has been brought in by his father due to abdominal pain and strong smelling urine.

      A urine dip is positive for nitrites and leucocytes. You start treatment for a urinary tract infection. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is the most frequent organism responsible for UTIs in both children and adults. Streptococcus pneumonia is more commonly associated with pneumonia or otitis media, while Staphylococcus aureus is more likely to cause skin infections like impetigo. Herpes is a viral infection that causes oral or genital ulcerations and whitlow. Although not impossible, a fungal-induced UTI is unlikely.

      Investigating Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      When a child develops a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to consider the possibility of underlying causes and kidney damage. Unlike in adults, UTIs in children can lead to renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for imaging the urinary tract in children with UTIs. Infants under six months of age who have their first UTI and respond to treatment should have an ultrasound within six weeks. However, children over six months of age who respond to treatment for their first UTI do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection or recurrent infection.

      Features that suggest an atypical infection include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicemia, failure to respond to suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. If any of these features are present, further investigations may be necessary. Urine should be sent for microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months of age who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has woken him from sleep every night for the previous 7 days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 30 minutes and making him restless and agitated. It is associated with tearing from his left eye and nasal stuffiness. When he looked in the mirror during attacks, he had noted his left eyelid drooping. He remembers he had experienced similar symptoms for about a month last year, but that they had resolved spontaneously and he had not sought medical attention. Physical examination is normal. He is a lifelong smoker.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Trigeminal Neuralgia, Migraine, Temporal Arteritis, and Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Headache disorders can be challenging to diagnose due to overlapping symptoms. However, understanding the distinct characteristics of each disorder can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Cluster Headache: This disorder is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, lasting from a few minutes up to 3 hours. It may be accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion and has a circadian pattern of occurring every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period.

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This disorder is characterized by recurrent unilateral brief electric shock-like pains, limited to the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Pain is triggered by innocuous stimuli such as hair brushing and lasts from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes.

      Migraine: This disorder typically lasts 4-72 hours and is associated with unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting, or photophobia/phonophobia. It may be preceded by an aura.

      Temporal Arteritis: This disorder occurs in patients over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms.

      Paroxysmal Hemicrania: This disorder is related to cluster headache and presents with severe unilateral orbital pain, lacrimation, and nasal congestion. Episodes last only a few minutes and occur multiple times per day.

      It is important to note that each disorder has specific diagnostic criteria, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute episode of psychosis. The on-call doctor is consulted and prescribes medication, but the patient subsequently develops severe acute agitation and torticollis.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Common Drugs and Their Roles in Treating Extra-Pyramidal Side Effects

      Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSE) are a common occurrence in patients taking antipsychotic medications. Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic drug that is the first line treatment for EPSE, including torticollis. It can be administered orally or parenterally and is usually very effective.

      Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose. It has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, is used to reverse central sedative effects of benzodiazepines during anaesthesia or diagnostic, surgical or dental procedures. It has no role in the treatment of torticollis or other EPSE.

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is mainly used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Sodium thiosulphate, used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning, also has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Understanding the roles of these common drugs can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment for patients experiencing EPSE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted with community acquired pneumonia and AKI requiring IV antibiotics and fluids. She was delirious on admission but has been improving. Her confusion screen bloods show abnormal thyroid function tests:
      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin B12 550 pg/ml (110 - 1500)
      Folate 5.6 µg/ml (2.5 - 20)
      TSH 4.6 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
      Free T4 6.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Free T3 3.6 pmol/L (4 - 7.4)
      She is currently feeling much better on day 6 of her 7 day course of antibiotics and is asymptomatic. She takes bisoprolol, digoxin, ramipril, atorvastatin, and rivaroxaban regularly.
      What is the appropriate course of action for her abnormal thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her GP to repeat thyroid function tests (TFTs) in 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is common for elderly patients who are unwell to have abnormal thyroid function tests, known as sick euthyroid. This is likely the case for the woman in question, as she has no history of thyroid disease and is not taking levothyroxine. It may be reasonable to consider starting levothyroxine, but it would be preferable to wait until her current illness has resolved. Discontinuing her antibiotics before completing her course is not appropriate, as they are unlikely to be causing the abnormal TFTs and she is currently asymptomatic. It is also unnecessary to perform a radio-isotope scan, as there is no suspicion of malignancy. Her thyroid function tests tomorrow are expected to be similar.

      Understanding Sick Euthyroid Syndrome

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as non-thyroidal illness, is a condition where the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3 are low. However, it is important to note that in most cases, the TSH level is within the normal range, which is considered inappropriate given the low levels of thyroxine and T3. This condition is reversible and typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying systemic illness. As such, treatment is usually not necessary.

      In summary, sick euthyroid syndrome is a condition where the thyroid hormone levels are low, but the TSH level is within the normal range. It is a reversible condition that typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying illness. No treatment is usually required for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 12 - What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the advancement of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis in a 52-year-old woman who has been diagnosed through a liver biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP clinic as her sister was recently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP clinic as her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk and is considering genetic testing. However, there is no other history of breast cancer in the family. What specific information should lead to a referral to a breast specialist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her sister being 38-years-old

      Explanation:

      Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 14 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 36-year-old woman attends surgery concerned that her 42-year-old brother has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman attends surgery concerned that her 42-year-old brother has recently been diagnosed with adult polycystic kidney disease (PKD). She read online that it can run in families and is asking to be tested to ensure she does not have the condition.
      Which of the following tests is best to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonography of the renal tract

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests available to detect ADPKD, including ultrasonography, full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es), PKD1 and 2 gene test, and urinalysis.

      Ultrasonography is the preferred test for ADPKD as it can detect cysts from 1 to 1.5 cm without the use of radiation or contrast material. The sensitivity of ultrasonography for ADPKD1 is 99% for at-risk patients older than 20 years. The diagnostic criteria for ADPKD1 were established by Ravine et al. in 1994 and depend on the number of cysts present in each kidney and the age of the patient.

      FBC and U&Es are performed to check for any abnormalities in blood count and electrolyte levels. An increased haematocrit in the FBC may result from increased erythropoietin secretion from cysts.

      PKD1 and 2 gene test is recommended for young adults with negative ultrasonographic findings who are being considered as potential kidney donors. Genetic testing by means of DNA linkage analysis has an accuracy of >95% for ADPKD1 and ADPKD2.

      Urinalysis and urine culture are also performed to check for any abnormalities in the urine. Microalbuminuria occurs in 35% of patients with ADPKD, but nephrotic-range proteinuria is uncommon.

      Referral to a geneticist is not necessary at this stage, as initial tests such as ultrasonography can be requested by the general practitioner (GP) in the community. However, patients with ADPKD may benefit from genetic counselling to provide them with more information about their genetic condition and assistance in understanding any options that may be available. This may be with a genetic counsellor, a clinical geneticist or a specialist genetic nurse.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help in the early detection and management of ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 16 - What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ovulation

      Explanation:

      Types of Progestogen Only Pills

      Progestogen only pills (POPs) are a type of birth control pill that contain only progestogen hormone. There are two generations of POPs, with the second generation including norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and ethynodiol diacetate. The third generation of POPs includes desogestrel, which is also known as Cerazette. This new type of POP is highly effective in inhibiting ovulation in most women. One of the advantages of Cerazette is that users can take the pill up to 12 hours late, which is longer than the 3-hour window for other POPs. Overall, there are different types of POPs available, and women can choose the one that best suits their needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill and is not taking any other medications. What advice should be given to the patient regarding her medication before the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue taking the pill until four weeks before her operation

      Explanation:

      To lower the risk of a pulmonary embolism, it is advised to discontinue the use of contraceptive pills four weeks prior to undergoing an operation, as per NICE guidelines. This is because oral contraceptives are recognized as a risk factor for thrombosis.

      Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.

      It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months

      Explanation:

      Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.

      If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.

      Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.

      Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and swallowing difficulties, and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue fasciculations are present, and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyperreflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syringobulbia

      Explanation:

      Syringobulbia is a condition where a fluid-filled cyst/syrinx is present in the spinal cord, extending up to the medulla of the brainstem, causing cranial nerve palsies. It results in dissociated sensory loss and LMN signs at the level of the lesion, with UMN signs below the lesion. Cranial nerve involvement may include facial sensory loss, vertigo, nystagmus, facial, palatal, and laryngeal nerve palsy, and weakness, atrophy, and fasciculation of the tongue. This condition is different from cervical spondylosis, multiple sclerosis, and motor neuron disease, which have distinct clinical features. Syringomyelia is a similar condition, but it progresses slowly over years and affects the cervical area of the cord, leading to early loss of pain and temperature sensation, with preservation of light touch and proprioception. Syringobulbia is characterized by LMN lesions of cranial nerve XII, suggesting the lesion extends above the spinal cord and into the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are present at birth.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 23 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness....

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for elective surgery to repair an umbilical hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for elective surgery to repair an umbilical hernia. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and type two diabetes mellitus. He takes paracetamol 1 gram four times daily and metformin 500 mg once daily at breakfast. The surgery is expected to last for an hour and is scheduled for 11am. What is the appropriate management of his metformin on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue as normal

      Explanation:

      When a patient is scheduled for surgery, it can be confusing to know how to manage their medications. However, it is important for junior doctors to be knowledgeable in this area. Time-critical medications, such as those used for Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, and diabetes, should be taken up to two hours before surgery with clear fluids. For patients taking metformin, the medication should be continued as normal if taken once or twice daily. If taken three times daily, the lunchtime dose should be skipped. This is because metformin can increase the risk of acute kidney injury if a meal is missed during surgery. If the patient’s eGFR falls below 60, metformin should be avoided for 48 hours after surgery. If the patient has poor diabetes control or a longer surgery, variable rate intravenous insulin infusion may be used. All other medications used for type two diabetes should be stopped.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female presents to the gynaecology clinic with symptoms of endometriosis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the gynaecology clinic with symptoms of endometriosis and severe dysmenorrhoea. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced much relief. She has no immediate plans to start a family. What is the initial recommended treatment option, assuming there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents with shortness of breath. The full blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:

      Hb 12.4 g/dl
      Plt 137
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l
      PT 14 secs
      APTT 46 secs

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most probable diagnosis due to the paradoxical occurrence of prolonged APTT and low platelets.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes mellitus. At the appointment, there are no signs of diabetic retinopathy.
      What is the most appropriate ongoing eye screening for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual visual acuity testing and retinal photography

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual Eye Screening for Diabetic Patients

      The National Health Service diabetic eye screening programme recommends that patients over the age of 12 with diabetes attend annual eye screening appointments. These appointments include visual acuity testing and retinal photography, which can detect changes consistent with background retinopathy or more severe forms of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with moderate, severe, or proliferative retinopathy will be referred for further assessment and may require more frequent screening following treatment.

      Tonometry, which measures intraocular pressure, is also important in the diagnosis of glaucoma. However, the gold-standard test for diagnosing diabetic retinopathy is dilated retinal photography with or without fundoscopy. Retinal photographs are preferable to fundoscopy because they provide a clear view of the entire retina and can be compared with previous images to monitor disease progression.

      It is important for diabetic patients to attend annual eye screening appointments, even if they have no changes in vision. Vision may be preserved until relatively advanced stages of the disease, and early detection of diabetic retinopathy can prevent irreversible loss of vision. Therefore, patients should not wait for changes in vision to occur before attending screening appointments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old G2P1 woman presents to her midwife at 12 weeks gestation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old G2P1 woman presents to her midwife at 12 weeks gestation. She has a history of well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus and a family history of pre-eclampsia. Her urine dipstick and blood pressure are both normal. Based on this information, what advice should be given regarding her risk of developing pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take aspirin from 12 weeks gestation until delivery

      Explanation:

      A woman with a moderate or high risk of pre-eclampsia, such as this patient who has a family history of pre-eclampsia and type 1 diabetes mellitus, should take aspirin 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks gestation until delivery to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy

      Explanation:

      Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner of her mouth was drooping while brushing her teeth this morning. She is in good health but experienced pain behind her right ear yesterday and reports dryness in her right eye. Upon examination, she exhibits complete paralysis of the facial nerve on the right side, from the forehead to the mouth. There are no abnormalities found during ear, nose, and throat examination or clinical examination of the peripheral nervous system. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bell's palsy

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of an ear infection is unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and the results of their ear exam.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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