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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to his Optician for a routine eye check-up. His intraocular pressure (IOP) is 30 mmHg. On examination, fundoscopy reveals cupping of the optic disc. He is referred for assessment with an Ophthalmologist; he is classed as being at high lifetime risk of visual impairment.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Timolol
Correct Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Overview of Glaucoma Medications
Glaucoma is a condition that can lead to vision loss and is often associated with high intraocular pressure (IOP). The first-line treatment recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence is a prostaglandin analogue such as latanoprost. Patients must meet certain criteria to receive this treatment. Brinzolamide and brimonidine are third-line treatments that may be used if a patient cannot tolerate a prostaglandin analogue or beta-blocker. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are used for allergic conjunctivitis and do not help manage ocular hypertension. Timolol is a beta-blocker that may be used if a patient cannot tolerate a prostaglandin analogue, but it is not a first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a unilateral painful red eye and photophobia. She has a known diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Anterior uveitis is a common manifestation of AS, occurring in 20-30% of patients, especially those who are HLA-B27 positive. Symptoms include a painful red eye, photophobia, increased lacrimation, and blurred vision. AACG, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden blockage of the anterior chamber angle, causing a sudden rise in intraocular pressure. It is less likely in this case as it is usually seen in patients over 60 years old and has no association with AS. Blepharitis, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and keratoconus are also unlikely diagnoses as they have different symptoms and no association with AS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to you with a complaint of blurred vision that has been worsening over the past 3 months. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. During the examination, you observe a shadow in the red reflex. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a gradual loss of vision over the past 2 years. She reports difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at dusk and in the early morning when walking her dog. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted line perception. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her knees, which she treats with paracetamol as needed. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?
Your Answer: Drusen
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and clinical findings suggest a diagnosis of dry macular degeneration, which is characterized by the presence of drusen – small yellowish deposits of lipids under the retina. The patient is experiencing a gradual loss of central vision, difficulty seeing in the dark, and distorted line perception on Amsler grid testing.
Hypertensive retinopathy can cause AV nicking, which is visible on fundoscopy, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Cotton wool spots, which are associated with hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy, are also an unlikely cause as the patient has no history of hypertension or diabetes, and these spots do not typically cause changes in vision. Cupping of the optic disc, seen in glaucoma, is also an unlikely diagnosis as the patient’s symptoms do not match those typically seen in glaucoma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 76-year-old man in your GP clinic who had been experiencing blurring of vision in his right eye for the past 5 months. He finally decided to seek medical attention because he felt his vision was becoming increasingly distorted. Upon examination, there were no signs of inflammation in either eye, and both corneas were clear with no fluorescein uptake. However, on dilated fundoscopy, you noticed yellowish deposits in the center of the macula in his right eye. What is the curative treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: High doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:Dry age-related macular degeneration, characterized by yellowish drusen deposits, currently has no cure. However, high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can be administered to slow down the progression of visual loss. On the other hand, wet AMD can be treated with intravitreal anti-VEGF injections, laser photocoagulation, and photodynamic therapy.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Ophthalmology department with a 3-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
On examination, visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Heart rate 80 bpm
Respiratory rate 20 per minute
Oxygen saturation 97% on air
Temperature 38.2 °C
Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?Your Answer: Cefuroxime and metronidazole IV
Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis
Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.
While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.
In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday evening. He describes this as a veil dropping over his left eye. The symptoms have since resolved and his vision is currently normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Explanation:Amaurosis fugax, or transient vision loss, is a common complaint that typically lasts from seconds to hours and may have an identifiable cause. It often presents as a grey curtain moving from the periphery towards the center of vision. Ischemic causes, such as giant cell arteritis, cerebrovascular ischemia, and retinal arteriolar emboli, are more common in patients over 45 years old. A monocular visual disturbance, as seen in this patient, is more likely to be due to a circulatory disturbance of the anterior circulation, such as the carotid artery.
Retinal detachment is a time-critical eye emergency that presents with floaters, flashing lights, field loss, and a fall in visual acuity. Patients with high myopia are at high risk. Over time, a shadow may appear in the peripheral visual field, which, if ignored, may spread to involve the entire visual field in a matter of days.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world and usually manifests after age 50. The disease is often bilateral and may be asymmetrical. Peripheral visual acuity is preserved in all forms of dry AMD, but the advanced, non-exudative form is associated with severe central visual-field loss.
Central retinal artery occlusion results in inner layer oedema and pyknosis of the ganglion cell nuclei, leading to ischaemic necrosis and opacification of the retina. The most common presenting complaint is an acute, persistent, painless loss of vision. A history of amaurosis fugax may be present.
Central retinal vein occlusion presents with variable visual loss, retinal haemorrhages, dilated tortuous retinal veins, cotton-wool spots, macular oedema, and optic disc oedema. Visual loss can be sudden or gradual, over a period of days to weeks, and ranges from mild to severe. Photophobia, pain, and eye redness may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a red left eye. She experiences a gritty sensation and feels the need to blink frequently to clear her vision. There is no pain or photophobia, and her pupil size is normal. She reports a significant amount of discharge from the affected eye and recently had a cold. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is a common condition that can be identified by symptoms such as redness in the eye, a gritty sensation, swollen conjunctivae, and discharge that crusts the eyelashes. However, if a patient presents with severe eye pain, photophobia, a small or abnormal shaped pupil, or blurred vision, it may indicate iritis and require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Similarly, acute glaucoma can cause severe eye pain, halos, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting, while keratitis can cause a painful, red eye with tearing, discharge, and decreased vision, particularly in contact lens wearers.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to an eye screening appointment, having been referred by her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes mellitus. At the appointment, there are no signs of diabetic retinopathy.
What is the most appropriate ongoing eye screening for this patient?Your Answer: Annual fundoscopy and visual acuity testing
Correct Answer: Annual visual acuity testing and retinal photography
Explanation:The Importance of Annual Eye Screening for Diabetic Patients
The National Health Service diabetic eye screening programme recommends that patients over the age of 12 with diabetes attend annual eye screening appointments. These appointments include visual acuity testing and retinal photography, which can detect changes consistent with background retinopathy or more severe forms of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with moderate, severe, or proliferative retinopathy will be referred for further assessment and may require more frequent screening following treatment.
Tonometry, which measures intraocular pressure, is also important in the diagnosis of glaucoma. However, the gold-standard test for diagnosing diabetic retinopathy is dilated retinal photography with or without fundoscopy. Retinal photographs are preferable to fundoscopy because they provide a clear view of the entire retina and can be compared with previous images to monitor disease progression.
It is important for diabetic patients to attend annual eye screening appointments, even if they have no changes in vision. Vision may be preserved until relatively advanced stages of the disease, and early detection of diabetic retinopathy can prevent irreversible loss of vision. Therefore, patients should not wait for changes in vision to occur before attending screening appointments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old individual who wears contact lenses was referred to a casualty ophthalmology clinic by their GP due to complaints about their left eye. The patient reports experiencing redness, pain, and a gritty sensation in the affected eye, as well as increased sensitivity to light. There is no discharge present. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Keratitis is characterized by symptoms such as a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness in the eye.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that has been bothering her for a day. She reports continuous tearing from the affected eye and experiences photophobia. Upon examination, fluorescein staining reveals a small, feathery area of abnormal uptake. However, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a corneal abrasion or dendritic corneal ulcer, with photophobia being a key indicator. However, the feathery pattern observed is more indicative of herpes simplex keratitis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and caution should be exercised in prescribing topical steroids as they may exacerbate the infection.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect?
Your Answer: Slowly reactive to accommodation but very poorly (if at all) to light
Correct Answer: Bilateral in 80% of cases
Explanation:Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil
Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.
Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 36-year-old entrepreneur arrives at Eye Casualty complaining of blurred vision in both eyes that started an hour ago. He reports seeing multiple wavy and shimmering lines in his peripheral vision that are gradually getting bigger. Upon examination with a slit lamp, the anterior chamber is clear and the fundus appears normal. What is the probable reason for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:Migraine sufferers often experience visual symptoms before the onset of a headache, such as wavy or shimmering lines known as a scintillating scotoma. It is important to obtain a thorough medical history as the patient may not mention a history of headaches. A normal eye exam is crucial for proper diagnosis. The other conditions listed have associated exam findings, such as cells in the anterior chamber for uveitis, a pale disc and relative afferent pupillary defect for optic neuritis, and a Weiss ring appearance with occasional hemorrhage for posterior vitreous detachment.
Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine
Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.
In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Orbit MRI
Correct Answer: Immediate canthotomy
Explanation:In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.
A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.
B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.
Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.
Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.
Ocular Trauma and Hyphema
Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.
To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a painful red eye. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus. He wears glasses for his hypermetropia.
Upon examination of the right eye, a ciliary injection accompanies a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The pain is exacerbated when assessing pupillary reaction, which is non-reactive. His visual acuity is markedly reduced in his right eye compared to his left.
Gonioscopy was performed, and the trabecular meshwork was not visualised. What is the first-line management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is to administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops. This condition is characterized by ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worsened symptoms with mydriasis, and haloes around lights. AACG is more common in individuals with hypermetropia. The presence of a fixed mid-dilated pupil and inability to visualize the trabecular meshwork are consistent with AACG. Pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine are all used to reduce intra-ocular pressure (IOP) and protect the optic nerve.
Administering gentamicin eye drops is not appropriate for this patient as it is an antibiotic used to treat eye infections such as microbial keratitis. The patient does not have risk factors for an eye infection and the examination findings are more consistent with AACG.
Prescribing prednisolone eye drops is also not appropriate as it is a steroid used to manage inflammatory eye diseases such as anterior uveitis. While anterior uveitis may present with a painful red eye, the examination findings for this patient are more suggestive of angle closure.
Similarly, prescribing cyclopentolate eye drops is not appropriate as it is a mydriatic eye drop that may worsen the patient’s symptoms by reducing the angle. Mydriatic eye drops may be used in the management of anterior uveitis, but the examination findings for this patient are more consistent with AACG.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You assess a patient in the Emergency Department who was admitted after a motorcycle accident. He is a diabetic patient, with multiple recent hospitalizations due to non-adherence to insulin therapy. Both of his pupils are small, responsive to accommodation, but unresponsive to light.
What is the most appropriate description of this situation?Your Answer: Marcus-Gunn pupil
Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:– Adie pupil: A condition where the pupil is constantly dilated and reacts slowly to light, but responds better to accommodation. It is caused by damage to the parasympathetic innervation of the eye due to viral or bacterial infection. It is more commonly seen in females and is often accompanied by absent knee or ankle jerks.
– Marcus-Gunn pupil: A relative afferent pupillary defect that is observed during the swinging light examination of pupil response. The pupils constrict less and appear to dilate when a light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. This condition is most commonly caused by damage to the optic nerve or severe retinal disease.
– Horner’s syndrome: A condition characterized by miosis (pupillary constriction), ptosis (droopy eyelid), apparent enophthalmos (inset eyeball), with or without anhidrosis (decreased sweating) occurring on one side. It is caused by damage to the sympathetic trunk on the same side as the symptoms, due to trauma, compression, infection, ischaemia, or other causes.
– Hutchinson’s pupil: A condition where the pupil on one side is unilaterally dilated and unresponsive to light. It is caused by compression of the occulomotor nerve on the same side, usually by an intracranial mass such as a tumor or hematoma.Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome
The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).
The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye pain. He has been unable to wear his contact lenses for the past day due to the severity of the pain. He describes the pain as intense and wonders if there is something lodged in his eye. Upon examination, diffuse hyperemia is observed in the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy, and there is a hypopyon present. Pupillary reaction is normal, but visual acuity is reduced on the left side, and the patient experiences some photophobia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:A hypopyon in anterior uveitis can be seen, but a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use suggest a diagnosis of keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. She has a past medical history of asthma and is allergic penicillin. On examination, the visual acuity is 6/24 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis. Vital observations are as follows: Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg Heart rate 80 bpm Respiratory rate 20 per minute Oxygen saturation 97% on air Temperature 38.2 °C What is first-line management for this patient?
Your Answer: Drainage of the orbit
Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Orbital Cellulitis in Penicillin-Allergic Patients
When treating orbital cellulitis in a patient with a penicillin allergy, it is important to choose the right antibiotics. Cefuroxime IV alone is not enough and should be combined with metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav IV is not appropriate for penicillin-allergic patients. Tazocin® IV should also be avoided. The best option is a combination of clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary unless there are signs of an abscess. By choosing the right treatment, we can effectively manage orbital cellulitis in penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore eyes that have persisted for several weeks. He denies any history of trauma and has not experienced any discharge. He has not noticed any blurred vision. The patient's medical history is significant only for back pain, which he is managing with paracetamol and amitriptyline. During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 corrected bilaterally, and there are no apparent corneal or pupillary abnormalities. His eyes are not red, and eye movements are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dry eye syndrome
Explanation:Dry eye syndrome is a common cause of bilateral sore eyes with a gritty or burning sensation. This can be treated with topical lubrication, such as hypromellose. While an examination may appear normal, fluorescein staining can reveal superficial punctate staining and Schirmer’s test may indicate reduced tear production. It is important to consider allergic conjunctivitis as a possible differential diagnosis, especially if symptoms persist for a prolonged period of time and there are no signs of conjunctival involvement.
Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome
Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.
Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an anticoagulation agent
Correct Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent
Explanation:Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male patient comes to the GP clinic complaining of pain and redness on his left upper eyelid. Upon examination, a tender papule with erythema is found at the left eyelid margin, with a small area of pus discharge. Additionally, there is slight redness of the conjunctiva. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hordeolum externum
Explanation:The individual is experiencing an infection in the glands of their external eyelid, which is classified as a type of stye known as hordeolum externum. It should be noted that a chalazion, also referred to as a meibomian cyst, typically occurs on the internal eyelid. Blepharitis, on the other hand, is characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins and does not typically result in a lump. Ectropion refers to the outward turning of the eyelids, while acne vulgaris does not typically impact the eyelids.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of stiffness and pain in his knee joints, painful urination, and a red eye with circumcorneal redness, hypopyon, and photophobia. What is the most probable reason for his red eye?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iritis
Explanation:When dealing with reactive arthritis, it is important to keep in mind that anterior uveitis may also be present in addition to conjunctivitis.
Since reactive arthritis is linked to HLA-B27, it is important to consider the possibility of iritis or anterior uveitis, even though conjunctivitis is more commonly seen as part of the triad of symptoms. The specific description of a red eye with circumcorneal redness and hypopyon suggests iritis rather than conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis typically causes a more generalized redness of the eye and hypopyon is not commonly observed. Corneal ulceration is unlikely in this case as there is no mention of increased fluorescein uptake on the cornea or a visible ulcer. Scleritis can be ruled out as it does not present with circumcorneal redness or hypopyon. While scleritis is associated with systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and other collagen/vascular disorders like Wegener’s granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa, and systemic lupus erythematosus, it is not associated with reactive arthritis. Blepharitis is also an incorrect diagnosis as there were no eyelid symptoms and blepharitis does not typically cause a red eye with photophobic symptoms.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner a week after experiencing an upper-respiratory tract infection. He reports developing erythema around his left eye and pain on eye movement since waking up this morning.
Upon examination of his left eye, the boy displays proptosis, restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). However, his right eye appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Eye Infections and Inflammations: Symptoms and Differences
Eye infections and inflammations can cause a range of symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between them to ensure appropriate treatment. Here are some common eye conditions and their distinguishing features:
Orbital Cellulitis: This is a serious condition that can cause erythema (redness) around the eye, pain on eye movements, restricted eye movements, proptosis (bulging of the eye), reduced visual acuity, and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). It is usually caused by the spread of infection from sinuses or trauma to the orbit. Treatment involves antibiotics and surgery if there is an orbital collection.
Conjunctivitis: This is a common condition that can accompany upper respiratory tract infections. It causes redness and discharge from the eye, but does not usually cause proptosis, restricted eye movements, or a RAPD.
Anterior Uveitis: This is an inflammation of the iris and ciliary body that causes a painful red eye, photophobia, increased lacrimation, and blurred vision. It does not usually cause erythema or proptosis.
Preseptal Cellulitis: This is a less serious condition that causes swelling and erythema of the eyelid, but does not cause proptosis, visual changes, or a RAPD. It is often confused with orbital cellulitis, but can be differentiated by the absence of these symptoms.
Blepharitis: This is an inflammation of the eyelid that causes swelling, erythema, and flakiness or scaliness of the eyelids. It does not usually cause proptosis or visual changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports no pain associated with the loss of vision. The patient explains that the loss of vision began as a dense shadow that started at the edges of her vision and moved towards the centre. She has a history of myopia and wears corrective glasses but has no other significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:The sudden painless loss of vision described in the history is most likely caused by retinal detachment. The classic symptom of a dense shadow starting from the periphery and progressing towards the center, along with the patient’s history of myopia, are highly suggestive of this condition. Urgent corrective surgery is necessary to address this issue.
Central retinal artery occlusion is less likely to be the diagnosis as there are no risk factors mentioned for thromboembolism or arteritis. Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion is a possibility but given the lack of risk factors and the patient’s history, retinal detachment is still the more likely cause.
It is important to note that vitreous detachment is not a direct cause of vision loss, although it may precede retinal detachment. Its symptoms typically involve floaters or flashes of light that do not usually interfere with daily activities.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has just been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. What is the most efficient way to slow down the advancement of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been identified as a risk factor for macular degeneration, while consuming a well-balanced diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables may help to slow down its progression. Ongoing studies are exploring the potential benefits of additional antioxidants in this regard.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurry vision in her left eye. She reports her vision in that eye as 'hazy and faded' which started a few hours ago. She also experiences pain that worsens with eye movement. There are no visible signs of trauma or infection on her eyes, and her recent HbA1c and capillary blood glucose levels are normal. What clinical manifestation is linked to the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)
Explanation:Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the past 2 years. His symptoms have worsened this year. He complains of bilateral itchy eyes and difficulty in doing school work due to excessive tearing. There is no history of nasal symptoms, asthma or eczema. On examination, there is conjunctival redness, bulging tarsal conjunctivae and mild eyelid swelling. What is the initial management approach for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical antihistamines
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient are indicative of allergic conjunctivitis. The initial treatment approach for this condition involves the use of topical antihistamines. In case of additional symptoms like rhinosinusitis, oral antihistamines may also be prescribed.
Understanding Allergic Conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis is a condition that can occur on its own, but is often associated with hay fever. It is characterized by bilateral symptoms such as conjunctival erythema and swelling, as well as itchiness and swelling of the eyelids. Those with a history of atopy may be more prone to developing allergic conjunctivitis, which can be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial (due to exposure to dust mites, washing powder, or other allergens).
When it comes to managing allergic conjunctivitis, first-line treatment typically involves the use of topical or systemic antihistamines. If these prove ineffective, second-line treatment options such as topical mast-cell stabilizers like Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil may be recommended. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for allergic conjunctivitis, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and reduce discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of burning and itching of his eyelids, particularly in the mornings. He reports feeling dryness and grittiness in his eyes and has stopped using contact lenses, opting for glasses instead. Upon examination, the GP notes redness, crusting, and slight swelling of the eyelid margins, as well as a small chalazion on the lower right lid. The patient's visual acuity remains unchanged and both conjunctivae are clear. What is the recommended first-line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular lid hygiene
Explanation:The initial and most important treatment for blepharitis, a common and chronic condition, is regular lid hygiene. Although there are different types of blepharitis, lid hygiene is the first-line treatment for all of them. The goal is to clear out any stagnant oily secretions, unblock meibomian glands, remove bacteria and flakes of skin, and soothe the eyelids. Patients should practice lid hygiene twice daily, which involves warmth, massage, and cleansing. There are many patient information leaflets available online that explain the process. Oral tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for blepharitis and is usually unnecessary if lid hygiene measures are followed. If symptoms persist, a course of oral tetracycline may be considered, especially in cases where meibomian gland dysfunction is prominent and there is associated rosacea. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not used in the management of blepharitis, as they are intended for allergic eye disease. Steroid eye drops are not a primary care treatment option for blepharitis and are not first-line, although they may be considered by specialists in cases resistant to other treatment measures.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with movement. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the eye clinic with a painful red eye after a minor injury. The doctor diagnoses her with a corneal ulcer in her left eye and prescribes topical antibiotics for treatment. She asks for a prescription of the same numbing eye drops that were used during the examination to use at home. What is the most appropriate pain management for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral analgesics
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe anaesthetic eye drops to patients with corneal ulcers as it can potentially worsen the condition by slowing down the healing process.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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