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  • Question 1 - Which muscle is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve?

      Your Answer: Adductor magnus

      Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Superficial Peroneal Nerve

      The superficial peroneal nerve is responsible for supplying the lateral compartment of the leg, specifically the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles which aid in eversion and plantar flexion. It also provides sensation over the dorsum of the foot, excluding the first web space which is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

      The nerve passes between the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles along the proximal one-third of the fibula. Approximately 10-12 cm above the tip of the lateral malleolus, the nerve pierces the fascia. It then bifurcates into intermediate and medial dorsal cutaneous nerves about 6-7 cm distal to the fibula.

      Understanding the anatomy of the superficial peroneal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the lateral compartment of the leg and dorsum of the foot. Injuries or compression of the nerve can result in weakness or numbness in the affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old carpenter comes to your GP clinic with a gradual onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old carpenter comes to your GP clinic with a gradual onset of hand weakness over the past two months. You suspect compression of the anterior interosseous nerve.

      Which of the following findings would best support your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inability to oppose the thumb with the fingers

      Correct Answer: Inability to make an 'OK' symbol with thumb and finger

      Explanation:

      The inability to make a pincer grip with the thumb and index finger, also known as the ‘OK sign’, is a common symptom of compression of the anterior interosseous nerve (AION) between the heads of pronator teres. However, patients with AION compression can still oppose their finger and thumb due to the action of opponens pollicis, making the first option incorrect.

      The AION controls distal interphalangeal joint flexion by supplying the radial half of flexor digitorum profundus, pronator quadratus, and flexor hallucis longus. Therefore, loss of this nerve results in the inability to fully flex the distal phalanx of the thumb and index finger, preventing the patient from making an ‘OK sign’.

      While the AION does travel through the carpal tunnel, it is a purely motor fiber with no sensory component. Therefore, tapping on the carpal tunnel would not produce the characteristic palmar tingling. Tinel’s test is used to assess for carpal tunnel compression of the median nerve.

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a ladder while replacing roof tiles. He has a reduced Glasgow coma scale (GCS) and has vomited 4 times. According to his partner, he was unconscious for about 5 minutes before waking up and becoming increasingly drowsy over the next few hours.

      A CT head scan reveals a skull fracture and a hyper-dense biconvex lesion. Which of the meningeal layers is responsible for the biconvex shape of the bleed?

      Your Answer: Dura mater

      Explanation:

      The outermost layer of the meninges is known as the dura mater. A hyperdense biconvex lesion on a CT head, combined with the patient’s medical history, strongly suggests the presence of an extradural haemorrhage. This type of haemorrhage occurs between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull, and the biconvex shape is due to the dura mater’s strong attachment to the suture lines. The arachnoid mater is a thin meningeal layer that adheres to the internal surface of the dura mater, while the bone is not a meningeal layer but is fused with the outer layer of the dura through the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It’s important to note that the pia dura is not a layer of the meninges, and should not be confused with the pia mater or dura mater.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22.4
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  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl visits her GP with blisters around her mouth. The doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl visits her GP with blisters around her mouth. The doctor diagnoses her with non-bullous impetigo and expresses concern about the possibility of an intracranial infection spreading from her face to her cranial cavity through a connected venous structure. Which venous structure is the facial vein linked to that could result in this spread?

      Your Answer: Maxillary vein

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is connected to the ophthalmic vein, which can lead to infections spreading to the cranial cavity. However, the dual venous sinus and other external venous systems do not directly connect to the intracerebral structure.

      Understanding the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.

      The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

      In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the Emergency Department complaining of diplopia and ophthalmoplegia. Upon physical examination, it is found that his pupils are equal and reactive to light with an intact accommodation reflex. However, his right eye is abducted and looking downwards, while the rest of the examination is normal.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted in this case?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve III

      Explanation:

      A patient with a ‘down and out’ eye is likely experiencing a lesion to cranial nerve III, also known as the oculomotor nerve. This nerve controls all extraocular muscles except for the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles, and a lesion can result in unopposed action of these muscles, causing the ‘down and out’ gaze. Possible causes of cranial nerve III palsy include a posterior communicating artery aneurysm or diabetic ophthalmoplegia. In this case, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and absence of pupillary dilation suggest that diabetes is the more likely cause. Lesions to other cranial nerves, such as II, IV, V, or VI, would present with different symptoms.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      52.5
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  • Question 6 - As a final year medical student in the emergency department, you encounter a...

    Incorrect

    • As a final year medical student in the emergency department, you encounter a 70-year-old woman who presents with a history of falling down the stairs at home. She reports a sudden onset of difficulty with speech and loss of the left side of her field of vision, and is currently experiencing vomiting. The department staff have arranged for a CT scan of her head, with a tentative diagnosis of either a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      What is the distinguishing factor between these two potential diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Strokes will present with a significant troponin rise

      Correct Answer: TIAs do not cause acute infarction

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to be based on tissue rather than time. It now refers to a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without resulting in acute infarction. Both TIAs and strokes can affect the spinal cord, brain, and retina, and both can cause symptoms that may require hospitalization. However, neither condition typically results in a significant troponin rise, which is more commonly associated with cardiac events.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      35.2
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis presents to the neurology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis presents to the neurology clinic with his spouse. The spouse reports observing rapid, involuntary jerky movements in the patient's body, which you suspect to be chorea. What is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease can cause chorea, which is characterised by involuntary, rapid, jerky movements that move from one area of the body to the next. Parkinson’s disease, hypothyroidism, and cerebellar syndrome have different symptoms and are not associated with chorea.

      Chorea: Involuntary Jerky Movements

      Chorea is a medical condition characterized by involuntary, rapid, and jerky movements that can occur in any part of the body. Athetosis, on the other hand, refers to slower and sinuous movements of the limbs. Both conditions are caused by damage to the basal ganglia, particularly the caudate nucleus.

      There are various underlying causes of chorea, including genetic disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease, autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and anti-phospholipid syndrome, and rheumatic fever, which can lead to Sydenham’s chorea. Certain medications like oral contraceptive pills, L-dopa, and antipsychotics can also trigger chorea. Other possible causes include neuroacanthocytosis, pregnancy-related chorea gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, polycythemia rubra vera, and carbon monoxide poisoning.

      In summary, chorea is a medical condition that causes involuntary, jerky movements in the body. It can be caused by various factors, including genetic disorders, autoimmune diseases, medications, and other medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      15
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  • Question 8 - A 82-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal and bone...

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal and bone pain. He appears confused, and his wife reports that he has been feeling down lately. After conducting blood tests, you discover that he has elevated levels of parathyroid hormone, leading you to suspect primary hyperparathyroidism.

      What bone profile results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Increased levels of calcium and decreased phosphate

      Explanation:

      PTH elevates calcium levels while reducing phosphate levels.

      A single parathyroid adenoma is often responsible for primary hyperparathyroidism, which results in the release of PTH and elevated/normal calcium levels. Normally, increased calcium levels would lead to decreased PTH levels.

      Vitamin D is another significant factor in calcium homeostasis, as it increases both plasma calcium and phosphate levels.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman presents with unsteadiness on her feet. She reports leaning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with unsteadiness on her feet. She reports leaning to her right and has sustained scrapes on her right arm from falling on this side. During her walk to the examination room, she displays a broad-based ataxic gait, with a tendency to lean to the right.

      Upon neurological examination, she exhibits an intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesia of her right hand. Her right lower limb is positive for the heel-shin test. Additionally, there is a gaze-evoked nystagmus of the right eye.

      What is the likely location of the brain lesion?

      Your Answer: Left cerebellum

      Correct Answer: Right cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Unilateral damage to the cerebellum results in symptoms that are on the same side as the lesion. In this case, if the right cerebellum is damaged, the individual may experience dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning dysarthria, and a positive heel-shin test. Damage to the left cerebellum would not cause symptoms on the right side. Damage to the left temporal lobe may result in changes in behavior and emotions, forgetfulness, disruptions in the sense of smell, taste, and hearing, and language and speech disorders. Damage to the right parietal lobe may cause alexia, agraphia, acalculia, left-sided hemi-spatial neglect, homonymous inferior quadrantanopia, loss of sensations like touch, apraxias, or astereognosis.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - An aging man with a lengthy smoking history is hospitalized for a planned...

    Correct

    • An aging man with a lengthy smoking history is hospitalized for a planned coronary artery bypass graft surgery due to angina. After the procedure, he experiences a continuous hoarseness in his voice.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely to have been affected during the surgery, resulting in the man's hoarse voice?

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      During cardiac surgery, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve can be harmed because it originates beneath the aortic arch. This can result in a hoarse voice. However, it is not possible for the right nerve to be damaged during the procedure as it originates at the base of the right lung, below the right subclavian. Injuries to the vagus nerves would cause more complicated symptoms than just hoarseness. Additionally, the trachea is situated above the heart in the chest and is therefore unlikely to be affected by the surgery.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it is discovered that the patient has sensory loss in their middle finger. Which specific dermatome is responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer: C6

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The middle finger is where the C7 dermatome is located.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.8
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department after collapsing from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department after collapsing from a violent attack in an alleyway. He was struck with a wrench when he refused to hand over his phone. Upon arrival, his Glasgow coma scale was 11 (Eyes; 3, Voice; 4, Motor; 4). An urgent CT-scan revealed a large epidural hematoma on the left side of his brain. He was immediately referred to neurosurgery.

      The most likely cause of the epidural hematoma is a rupture of which artery that passes through a certain structure before supplying the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery supplies the dura mater and passes through the foramen spinosum. Other foramina and the structures that pass through them include the vertebral arteries through the foramen magnum, the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch) through the stylomastoid foramen, and the accessory meningeal artery through the foramen ovale.

      The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.

      In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man is having a wedge excision of his big toenail. When...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is having a wedge excision of his big toenail. When the surgeon inserts a needle to give local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sudden sharp pain. What is the pathway through which this sensation will be transmitted to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The Spinothalamic Tract and its Function in Sensory Transmission

      The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting impulses from receptors that measure crude touch, pain, and temperature. It is composed of two tracts, the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts, with the former transmitting pain and temperature and the latter crude touch and pressure.

      Before decussating in the spinal cord, neurons transmitting these signals ascend by one or two vertebral levels in Lissaurs tract. Once they have crossed over, they pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus. This pathway is crucial in the transmission of sensory information from the body to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli.

      Overall, the spinothalamic tract plays a vital role in our ability to sense and respond to our environment. Its function in transmitting sensory information is essential for our survival and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - Sophie is a 25-year-old female who has been experiencing trouble fitting into her...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old female who has been experiencing trouble fitting into her shoes and wearing her rings. She has a deep voice, stands at a height of 195cm, and her GP observes coarse facial features. Sophie mentions that she suspects her anterior pituitary gland may be producing an excess of hormones. Which hormone is likely being overproduced in Sophie's case?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone

      Explanation:

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old woman is receiving end-of-life care after being diagnosed with terminal lung...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is receiving end-of-life care after being diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. She has been experiencing increased pain over the last 2 weeks and has been prescribed a syringe driver with subcutaneous fentanyl to help manage her pain.

      What is the benefit of using fentanyl instead of morphine in this situation?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl has a faster onset than morphine

      Explanation:

      Fentanyl is a potent opioid that provides faster pain relief than morphine due to its higher lipophilicity, allowing it to quickly penetrate the central nervous system. However, it is important to note that both fentanyl and morphine can cause constipation and are highly addictive. Additionally, fentanyl is significantly more potent than morphine, with a potency of 80-100 times greater.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to her forearm following a robbery. Upon examination, there is numbness observed in the thenar eminence and weakness in finger and wrist flexion. Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thenar eminence and controlling finger and wrist flexion. Its palmar cutaneous branch supplies sensation to the skin on the lateral side of the palm, including the thenar eminence. The median nerve directly innervates the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus muscles, which are responsible for wrist flexion, as well as the flexor digitorum superficialis and lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles via the anterior interosseous nerve, which control finger flexion. Damage to the median nerve can result in weakness in these movements.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old motorcyclist is seeking treatment at your clinic after a bike accident...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old motorcyclist is seeking treatment at your clinic after a bike accident that occurred 10 months ago. The patient suffered a significant pelvic fracture, which has since healed. However, he is worried about the persistent numbness in his right leg. During the examination, he experiences difficulty in adducting his right hip against resistance and has reduced sensation around the medial aspect of his right thigh. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Obturator

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing decreased sensation in the inner thigh and weakened adductor muscles, which are both controlled by the obturator nerve.

      Meanwhile, the femoral nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the front of the thigh, while the sciatic nerve is responsible for sensation in the back of the thigh.

      Additionally, the ilio-inguinal nerve is responsible for sensation in certain areas of the genital region, and the tibial nerve controls the movement of ankle muscles.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21
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  • Question 18 - A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he develops unilateral eye pain. Upon examination, he is found to have decreased visual acuity and colour saturation on his affected eye. His doctor suspects multiple sclerosis. What features would be expected on a T2-weighted MRI?

      Your Answer: Cortical atrophy

      Correct Answer: Multiple hyperintense lesions

      Explanation:

      MS is characterized by the spread of brain lesions over time and space.

      Dementia is often linked to cortical atrophy.

      If there is only one hyperintense lesion, it may indicate a haemorrhage rather than other conditions.

      A semilunar lesion on one side may indicate a subdural haemorrhage.

      Raised intracranial pressure, which can be caused by space-occupying lesions and haemorrhages, can be indicated by midline shift.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who is worried about his facial expressions. The boy has been experiencing difficulty using the muscles in his face for the past month. He also reports weakness in his arms, but no pain.

      During the examination, the GP observes that the boy's facial muscles are weak, he struggles to puff out his cheeks, and has difficulty raising his arms in the classroom. Additionally, the boy has abnormally large gastrocnemius muscles and his scapulae are 'winged'.

      Which nerve is responsible for innervating the muscle that prevents the scapulae from forming a 'winged' position?

      Your Answer: Lower subscapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The Serratus Anterior Muscle and its Innervation

      The serratus anterior muscle is a muscle that originates from the first to eighth ribs and inserts along the entire medial border of the scapulae. Its main function is to protract the scapula, allowing for anteversion of the upper limb. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which receives innervation from roots C5-C7 of the brachial plexus.

      Based on the patient’s clinical history, it is likely that they are suffering from muscular dystrophy, specifically facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. The long thoracic nerve is solely responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, making it a key factor in the diagnosis of this condition.

      Other nerves of the brachial plexus include the axillary nerve, which mainly innervates the deltoid muscles and provides sensory innervation to the skin covering the deltoid muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve is also a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi.

      the innervation of the serratus anterior muscle and its relationship to other nerves of the brachial plexus is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      116.4
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  • Question 20 - A laceration of the wrist produces a median nerve transection in a 50-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A laceration of the wrist produces a median nerve transection in a 50-year-old patient. The wound is clean and seen immediately after injury. Collateral soft tissue damage is absent. The patient asks what the prognosis is. You indicate that the nerve should regrow at approximately:

      Your Answer: 0.1 mm per day

      Correct Answer: 1 mm per day

      Explanation:

      When a peripheral nerve is cut, it causes bleeding and the nerve ends retract. The axon, which is the part of the nerve that transmits signals, starts to degenerate immediately after the injury. This degeneration occurs both in the part of the nerve that is distal to the injury and in the part that is proximal to the first node of Ranvier. As the degenerated axonal fragments are removed by phagocytosis, empty spaces are left in the neurilemmal sheath where the axons used to be.

      After a few days, axons from the proximal part of the nerve start to regrow. If they are able to make contact with the distal neurilemmal sheath, they can regrow at a rate of about 1 mm per day. However, if there is any trauma, fracture, infection, or separation of the neurilemmal sheath ends that prevents contact between the axons, the regrowth can be erratic and may result in the formation of a traumatic neuroma.

      In cases where the nerve injury is accompanied by significant soft tissue damage and bleeding (which increases the risk of infection), some surgeons may choose to delay the reattachment of the severed nerve ends for several weeks.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.3
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old female comes to see you with concerns about her vision. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female comes to see you with concerns about her vision. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past few weeks, which she first noticed while descending stairs. She now sees two images when looking at one object, with one image appearing below and tilted away from the other. She denies any changes in her taste or hearing. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and there is no evidence of nystagmus. Based on these findings, which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor

      Correct Answer: Trochlea

      Explanation:

      Torsional diplopia is a symptom that is commonly associated with a fourth nerve palsy, also known as a trochlear nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by the perception of tilted objects, as the affected individual sees one object as two images, with one image appearing slightly tilted in relation to the other. Fourth nerve palsy can also cause vertical diplopia, where two images of one object are seen, with one image appearing above the other. The affected eye may be deviated upwards and rotated outwards.

      Lesions in the eighth cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, can lead to symptoms such as hearing loss, vertigo, and nystagmus.

      Sixth nerve palsy, or abducens nerve palsy, can cause horizontal diplopia, where two images of one object are seen side by side. This is due to defective abduction, which prevents the eye from moving laterally.

      Third nerve palsy, or oculomotor nerve palsy, can result in diplopia, as well as a down and out eye with a fixed, dilated pupil.

      Seventh nerve palsy, or facial nerve palsy, can cause flaccid paralysis of the upper and lower face, loss of corneal reflex, loss of taste, and hyperacusis.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.9
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  • Question 22 - A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a laceration on his occiput. He is alert and oriented, following commands and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.

      What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to evaluate a patient’s level of consciousness by assessing their response to voice, eye movements, and motor function.

      GCS is frequently used in patients with head injuries to monitor changes in their neurological status, which may indicate swelling or bleeding.

      In this case, the patient’s eyes are open (4 out of 4), she is fully oriented in time, place, and person (5 out of 5), and she is able to follow commands (6 out of 6).

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 pm.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.1
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  • Question 23 - A 57-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a generalized tonic...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a generalized tonic clonic seizure. Routine laboratory tests come back normal, but a CT scan of the brain with contrast shows a densely enhancing, well-defined extra-axial mass attached to the dural layer. If a biopsy of the mass were to be performed, what is the most probable histological finding?

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas

      Correct Answer: Spindle cells in concentric whorls and calcified psammoma bodies

      Explanation:

      The characteristic histological findings of spindle cells in concentric whorls and calcified psammoma bodies are indicative of meningiomas, which are the most likely brain tumor in the given scenario. Meningiomas are typically asymptomatic due to their location outside the brain tissue, and are more commonly found in middle-aged females. They are described as masses with distinct margins, homogenous contrast uptake, and dural attachment. Psammoma bodies can also be found in other tumors such as papillary thyroid cancer, serous cystadenomas of the ovary, and mesotheliomas. The other answer choices are incorrect as they are associated with different types of brain tumors such as vestibular schwannomas, oligodendrogliomas, ependymomas, and glioblastoma multiform.

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      29.7
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  • Question 24 - Through which of the following foramina does the genital branch of the genitofemoral...

    Incorrect

    • Through which of the following foramina does the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve exit the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      As the genitofemoral nerve nears the inguinal ligament, it splits into two branches. One of these branches, known as the genital branch, travels in front of the external iliac artery and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. While in the inguinal canal, it may interact with the ilioinguinal nerve, although this is typically not relevant in a clinical setting.

      The Genitofemoral Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The genitofemoral nerve is responsible for supplying a small area of the upper medial thigh. It arises from the first and second lumbar nerves and passes through the psoas major muscle before emerging from its medial border. The nerve then descends on the surface of the psoas major, under the cover of the peritoneum, and divides into genital and femoral branches.

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve passes through the inguinal canal within the spermatic cord to supply the skin overlying the scrotum’s skin and fascia. On the other hand, the femoral branch enters the thigh posterior to the inguinal ligament, lateral to the femoral artery. It supplies an area of skin and fascia over the femoral triangle.

      Injuries to the genitofemoral nerve may occur during abdominal or pelvic surgery or inguinal hernia repairs. Understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial in preventing such injuries and ensuring proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.8
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold and pulseless white arm, indicating a possible brachial embolus. The patient undergoes a brachial embolectomy. What structure is most vulnerable to injury during this procedure?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The antecubital fossa is where the brachial artery and median nerve are located in close proximity. Surgeons typically access the brachial artery in this area for embolectomy procedures. However, care must be taken to avoid damaging the median nerve when applying vascular clamps to the artery.

      Anatomy of the Brachial Artery

      The brachial artery is a continuation of the axillary artery and runs from the lower border of teres major to the cubital fossa where it divides into the radial and ulnar arteries. It is located in the upper arm and has various relations with surrounding structures. Posteriorly, it is related to the long head of triceps with the radial nerve and profunda vessels in between. Anteriorly, it is overlapped by the medial border of biceps. The median nerve crosses the artery in the middle of the arm. In the cubital fossa, the brachial artery is separated from the median cubital vein by the bicipital aponeurosis. The basilic vein is in contact with the most proximal aspect of the cubital fossa and lies medially. Understanding the anatomy of the brachial artery is important for medical professionals when performing procedures such as blood pressure measurement or arterial line placement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.1
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old female is being followed up in the epilepsy clinic after switching...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female is being followed up in the epilepsy clinic after switching from lamotrigine to carbamazepine for her generalised tonic-clonic seizures. What is the mechanism of action of her new medication?

      Your Answer: Binds to sodium channels to decrease their refractory period

      Correct Answer: Binds to sodium channels to increase their refractory period

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine binds to voltage-gated sodium channels in the neuronal cell membrane, blocking their action in the inactive form. This results in a longer time for the neuron to depolarize, increasing the absolute refractory period and raising the threshold for seizure activity. It does not bind to potassium channels or GABA receptors. Blocking potassium efflux would increase the refractory period, while promoting potassium efflux would hyperpolarize the cell and also increase the refractory period. Benzodiazepines bind allosterically to GABAA receptors, hyperpolarizing the cell and increasing the refractory period.

      Understanding Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, and Adverse Effects

      Carbamazepine is a medication that is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used to treat trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder. Chemically similar to tricyclic antidepressant drugs, carbamazepine works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, there are some adverse effects associated with carbamazepine use. It is known to be a P450 enzyme inducer, which can affect the metabolism of other medications. Patients may also experience dizziness, ataxia, drowsiness, headache, and visual disturbances, especially diplopia. In rare cases, carbamazepine can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome, leucopenia, agranulocytosis, and hyponatremia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.

      It is important to note that carbamazepine exhibits autoinduction, which means that when patients start taking the medication, they may experience a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks of treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to be closely monitored by their healthcare provider when starting carbamazepine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache rated at 10/10 in severity, which he describes as the worst headache he has ever had. During the examination, the doctor observes photophobia and a decreasing level of consciousness in the patient.

      What potential underlying risk factor could have contributed to this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication for individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a group of connective tissue disorders characterized by joint hypermobility, hyper-extensive skin, and easy bruising. It should be noted that acute kidney injury is not a risk factor, but adult polycystic kidney disease may increase the likelihood of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 28 - In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve...

    Correct

    • In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve situated?

      Your Answer: Between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles

      Explanation:

      The biceps and brachialis muscles are located on either side of the musculocutaneous nerve.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male visits the doctor with concerns about altered sensation in his...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male visits the doctor with concerns about altered sensation in his legs. Upon examination, the doctor observes diminished vibration sensation in his legs, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. The doctor suspects that the patient may be suffering from subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

      What vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which typically presents with upper motor neuron signs in the legs, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. Meanwhile, a deficiency in vitamin B1 (thiamine) leads to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Peripheral neuropathy is a common result of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency, while angular cheilitis is associated with a lack of vitamin B2 (riboflavin).

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries about the feeling in her legs. She is experiencing decreased light-touch sensation and proprioception in both legs. Her blood work reveals a deficiency in vitamin B12.

      What signs are most probable for you to observe in Samantha?

      Your Answer: Positive Babinski sign

      Explanation:

      The presence of a positive Babinski sign may indicate subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, which is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. This condition primarily affects the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, which are responsible for fine-touch, proprioception, and vibration sensation. In addition to the Babinski sign, patients may also experience spastic paresis. However, hypotonia is not typically observed, as this is a characteristic of lower motor neuron lesions. It is also important to note that temperature sensation is not affected by subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, as this function is mediated by the spinothalamic tract.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.2
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