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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old woman with stable sickle cell anaemia presents with an erythematous rash...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman with stable sickle cell anaemia presents with an erythematous rash all over her body, which is associated with painful swollen joints. On examination she has clinical signs of anaemia. The full blood count shows absent reticulocytes in the peripheral blood.
      Which pathogen is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 Infection: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, but can also be transmitted through contaminated surfaces. Children between the ages of 6 and 10 are most commonly affected, with up to 70% of the population having been infected by the age of 20. Susceptible adults can also become infected, often through exposure to the virus from their own children. Epidemics tend to occur every 4-5 years, with peak infection rates in the winter and spring.

      The most common symptom of parvovirus B19 infection is erythema infectiosum, a rash illness characterized by a red rash on the face and extremities. The rash typically appears 17-22 days after exposure to the virus and is preceded by mild fever and fatigue. In addition to the rash, more than 80% of adults with parvovirus B19 infection experience joint pain and swelling, particularly in the small joints of the hands and feet. A positive test for parvovirus B19-specific IgM indicates current or recent infection.

      While parvovirus B19 infection typically doesn’t cause significant anemia in individuals with normal red-cell lifespan and function, it can lead to a more severe form of anemia called aplastic crisis in individuals with shortened red-cell lifespan, such as those with sickle-cell anemia. During the acute phase of aplastic crisis, there is a lack of reticulocytes in the blood and erythroid aplasia in the bone marrow. However, recovery is typically marked by the presence of reticulocytosis and giant pronormoblasts in the bone marrow.

      In summary, parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including rash and joint pain. While typically not severe, it can lead to complications in individuals with certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene

      Explanation:

      When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - You see a 45-year-old accountant who has Crohn's disease. His Crohn's disease has...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 45-year-old accountant who has Crohn's disease. His Crohn's disease has been well controlled for the last 4 years but he has recently been troubled by bloody, frequent diarrhoea and weight loss. He also has multiple mouth ulcers currently and psoriasis. He takes paracetamol and ibuprofen PRN for occasional lower back pain, which is exacerbated by his work. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day but drinks very little alcohol.

      You discuss treatment options with him.

      What is a correct statement regarding Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Aphthous mouth ulcers are an extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease which is not related to disease activity

      Correct Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase the risk of Crohn's disease relapse

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease can manifest in various ways outside of the intestines, such as aphthous mouth ulcers which are linked to disease activity. However, psoriasis is an extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn’s disease that is not related to disease activity. It is important to note that NSAIDs may heighten the likelihood of a Crohn’s disease relapse. Unlike ulcerative colitis, smoking increases the risk of Crohn’s disease. Additionally, experiencing infectious gastroenteritis can increase the risk of Crohn’s disease by four times, especially within the first year following the episode.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start university in a few months. His friends have advised him to get vaccinated before he begins. He is of 'White British' ethnicity, has a clean medical history, and will be studying English at the University of Manchester. Which vaccine should he receive as part of the standard NHS immunisation program?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningitis ACWY

      Explanation:

      Due to a recent surge in meningitis W cases, the NHS is now advising all incoming students to receive the meningitis ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

    What features...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

      What features would lead you to suspect that this child has measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Violaceous papules on the wrists

      Explanation:

      Understanding Koplik Spots in Measles Diagnosis

      Koplik spots are a crucial clinical sign of measles infection, named after the American Paediatrician, Henry Koplik, who first described them in 1896. These spots appear as red spots with a bluish-white central dot on erythematous buccal mucosa, often described as looking like grains of salt on a wet background. They typically appear 1-2 days before the rash and may persist for a further 1-2 days afterwards.

      It is essential for healthcare professionals to recognize Koplik spots as a pathognomonic feature of measles infection. However, fewer doctors may know how to identify them. Other clinical signs, such as herald patches, sub occipital lymph nodes, oral ulceration, and violaceous papules on the wrist, are not specific to measles and may lead to misdiagnosis.

      In addition to accurate diagnosis, infection control measures should be considered in the GP surgery/OOH setting. For example, scheduling appointments for suspected measles patients at the end of surgery to avoid sharing a waiting room with vulnerable individuals. It is also crucial for healthcare workers and carers to ensure they are immune or have received 2 × MMR vaccines themselves to prevent the spread of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her right eye. She describes it as feeling 'gritty' and notices watering. She also experienced some discharge from the eye upon waking up in the morning. Upon examination, the conjunctiva appears red and inflamed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics can be withheld

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conjunctivitis: Topical Antibiotics and Treatment Options

      Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is a condition characterized by inflamed conjunctiva, discharge, and gritty eye discomfort. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve spontaneously within 5-7 days, severe symptoms or rapid resolution may require the use of topical antibiotics such as chloramphenicol and fusidic acid. However, NICE guidelines recommend withholding antibiotics unless necessary. Bacterial and viral forms of conjunctivitis can be differentiated clinically, with purulent discharge indicating a positive bacterial culture. Mucopurulent discharge with crusting is suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis, while pruritis and petechial subconjunctival hemorrhages suggest a viral cause. While antibiotics can improve rates of clinical and microbiological remission, most cases resolve spontaneously. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if symptoms persist for longer than 5-7 days. Serious complications from untreated infective conjunctivitis are rare but can include epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue for the past 5 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      - Hb: 118 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin: 190 ng/mL (20 - 230)
      - Vitamin B12: 95 ng/L (200 - 900)
      - Folate: 4.8 nmol/L (> 3.0)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxycobalamin IM

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been running a fever and has been refusing to eat. His mother has observed some spots on his hands and buttocks. Upon examination, the child has a mild vesicular rash on his hands, buttocks, face, and a few spots on his ankles. His temperature is 38.1ºC. According to your records, he had Chickenpox when he was 10 months old. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a viral infection that typically impacts children who are under the age of 10. The symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, coughing, stomach pain, and a sore throat. Following these symptoms, mouth ulcers often develop, along with a rash that typically affects the hands and feet, but can also appear on the face, buttocks, legs, and genitals. This condition is generally harmless and resolves on its own, with treatment consisting of basic pain relief.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.

      For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.

      It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the surgery for a routine medical. He has now been training for 13 months.

      On examination he is bradycardic with a resting pulse of 40. His BP is 115/72 mmHg at rest. The LV impulse is laterally displaced and there is a systolic ejection flow murmur. You can hear a third heart sound.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Athletic Heart

      The athletic heart is a common occurrence in individuals who engage in prolonged periods of endurance training. It is characterized by a systolic flow murmur, LV enlargement, bradycardia, and third heart sounds. To differentiate it from cardiomyopathy, echocardiography is useful, with symmetric septal hypertrophy, normal diastolic function, and LVH <13 mm being features of athletic hearts. The BP response to exercise is normal, and LVH regresses in response to deconditioning. While persistent bradycardia and atrial arrhythmias are rare sequelae of the athletic heart picture, it is important to differentiate between a physiological S3 gallop (triple rhythm) and a pathological summation gallop. Although most GPs may struggle to differentiate third and fourth heart sounds, it is crucial to recognize that some signs can occur in 'normal' individuals as well as disease. Understanding the athletic heart is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a...

    Incorrect

    • A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her desire to start a family with her partner. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe to conceive.

      What would be the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment

      Explanation:

      Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine eight week check. She is anxious about cot death and wants to discuss the subject further.

      Which of the following statements about cot death is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more common in the winter months

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as cot death, is not fully understood and its exact cause is unknown. It is more common in infants under 5 months of age, especially premature babies who have had apnoeic episodes during resuscitation. However, the risk can be reduced by placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm mattress, avoiding loose covers, positioning the baby’s feet to the foot of the cot, maintaining a reasonable room temperature, not sharing a bed with the baby, using a dummy at bedtime, avoiding cigarette smoking, recognizing and treating illnesses, and breastfeeding. Media campaigns have helped reduce the number of cases over the years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know what condition he has developed.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rubella rather than measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suboccipital and post-auricular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Identifying Rubella and Measles: Common Symptoms and Differences

      Since the introduction of the MMR vaccine, cases of rubella and measles have become rare. However, it is still important to be able to identify the symptoms of these illnesses. While rubella can be difficult to diagnose due to its fleeting symptoms, cervical, suboccipital, and post-auricular lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the illness and may precede the rash.

      Contrary to popular belief, both rubella and measles have a prodromal phase of lassitude, fever, headache, conjunctivitis, anorexia, and rhinorrhoea, which can be mistaken for a cold. However, symptoms are typically more severe in measles. Additionally, while the rash in rubella is pink and lasts about three days, the rash in measles is darker and fades in three to four days, often leaving a brown discoloration. Both rashes start on the face before spreading.

      It is important to note that patients with measles commonly have a high fever, which is not mentioned in this scenario. Furthermore, Koplik’s spots, small red spots with a white dot in the center, are often found on the mucosa inside the cheek opposite the second molar teeth during the prodromal illness in measles.

      In summary, being able to identify the common symptoms and differences between rubella and measles can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by an out-of-hours doctor two weeks ago. She reports experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the past six months, which have become increasingly severe and often wake her from sleep. She denies vomiting or diarrhea but notes increased frequency of urination. She has a poor appetite and has lost no weight. On examination, there is no clinical evidence of anemia or jaundice, and PR examination is normal. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Ovarian Cancer: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Tumour Markers

      Patients with ovarian cancer often present with vague abdominal symptoms that may have been wrongly attributed to other conditions such as urinary tract infection or irritable bowel syndrome. The key to establishing a diagnosis is to first think of ovarian cancer as a possibility and then, as always, to obtain a thorough history.

      It helps to think of risk factors as well, because we know that certain factors are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. These include obesity, late menopause, nulliparity, diabetes, and endometriosis. In terms of symptoms, patients may experience vague abdominal pains, early satiety, and urinary frequency/urgency.

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts. CA125 is a tumour marker associated with ovarian cancer and is a valuable test in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer with regard to initial primary care investigations. NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing.

      In summary, a high index of suspicion is needed when considering ovarian cancer as a possibility. It is important to take into account risk factors and symptoms, and to consider the use of tumour markers such as CA125 in certain clinical contexts. By being aware of these factors, healthcare professionals can help to ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old female attends for a repeat COCP prescription. She was recently started...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female attends for a repeat COCP prescription. She was recently started on the COCP as a treatment for endometriosis at the Gynaecology OPD. She is sexually active and asks about her risk of unintended pregnancy using this as the sole method of contraception.

      The risk of unintended pregnancy in the first year of typical use of the COCP is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 in 100 women

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Methods and Their Associated Risks of Unintended Pregnancy

      When it comes to preventing unintended pregnancy, not all contraceptive methods are created equal. The risk of unintended pregnancy in the first year of typical use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is 9%, but with perfect use, it drops to 0.3%. However, the risk of unintended pregnancy is even lower with other methods such as the progestogen implant (0.05%), the LNG-IUD (0.2%), and the copper IUD (0.8%) for typical use. The highest risk of unintended pregnancy is associated with the typical use of DMPA, which has a 6% failure rate. It’s important to consider these risks when choosing a contraceptive method that works best for you.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man with a lengthy COPD history calls for guidance. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a lengthy COPD history calls for guidance. He has been experiencing increased shortness of breath for the past two days and has been using his inhalers more frequently. He is coughing up clear sputum and has no fever, chest pain, or haemoptysis. He is uncertain whether to take his 'rescue' medications. What is the best advice to give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a course of prednisolone

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests including an antibiotic only when the sputum shows signs of being purulent.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump in her throat that she has been feeling for the past six months. She reports feeling the lump even when she is not swallowing. Upon examination, her oropharynx, ears, nose, and neck appear normal. She is also a non-smoker.
      What would be a significant cause for worry in a patient with these symptoms who is 50 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided ear pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Unilateral Ear Pain and Globus Sensation

      Unilateral ear pain in adults with normal otoscopy findings may indicate cancer of the base of the tongue, especially if accompanied by persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, weight loss, or a swelling in the neck. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include smoking and alcohol consumption. However, if the pain is worse between meals and eating or drinking alleviates the symptoms, it is more likely to be globus sensation, which is the feeling of a lump in the throat that doesn’t affect swallowing function. If the symptom persists for six months without affecting swallowing, it is less likely to be a worrying cause such as laryngeal or esophageal cancer. Intermittent symptoms are also less likely to indicate a malignant cause, as they are typical for globus and often exacerbated by stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia....

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia

      It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.

      NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 26 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a lump in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a lump in her left breast.

      On questioning, she says she first noticed this lump eight weeks ago. There is no change in size in relation to the menstrual cycle. There is no family history of breast cancer.

      On examination, the lump measures 3 × 4 cm and it is firm, but not tender and not mobile. The other breast is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibroadenosis

      Explanation:

      Breast Lump Characteristics and Possible Diagnoses

      The characteristics of a breast lump can provide clues to its possible diagnosis. A firm, non-mobile lump in a woman with a history of it raises the suspicion of breast carcinoma. On the other hand, breast cysts are usually tender and their symptoms are related to the menstrual cycle. Fat necrosis, which is the death of fat cells, is preceded by a history of trauma. Lastly, a fibroadenoma is non-tender and highly mobile. It is important to note that these characteristics are not definitive and a proper diagnosis can only be made through medical examination and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip radiating to her buttock, thigh, calf and ankle. She has a good range of movement in the hip and no focal tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Sciatica from Other Causes of Leg Pain

      Leg pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to accurately diagnose the underlying issue in order to provide appropriate treatment. Sciatica is a common cause of leg pain, but it is not a diagnosis in itself. Rather, it is a description of symptoms that can be caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve. Other conditions that can cause leg pain include osteoarthritis of the hip, polymyalgia rheumatica, sacroiliitis, and trochanteric bursitis. Each of these conditions presents with unique symptoms and requires a different approach to treatment. By carefully evaluating a patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate diagnostic tests, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cause of leg pain and provide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents with a lump above his right knee that seems...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a lump above his right knee that seems to relate to the lower right anterior thigh.

      On examination, you can feel a soft tissue swelling that relates to the anterior right thigh. It is felt deep to the surface and is 3-4 cm in diameter. It is non-painful and feels fixed and immobile.

      The patient is unable to identify any specific precipitant and has never had any similar 'lumps' of this nature in the past.

      Which of the following factors should most strongly prompt urgent referral of this patient for a suspected sarcoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: That the swelling is fixed and immobile

      Explanation:

      Identifying Suspicious Lumps: Indicators of Soft Tissue Sarcoma

      The nature of a palpable lump is crucial in determining whether a patient requires urgent referral for suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma. If the lump is greater than 5 cm in diameter, deep to fascia, fixed or immobile, painful, increasing in size, or a recurrence after previous excision, an urgent referral is necessary. In this case, the lump is deeply felt and fixed, indicating a potential diagnosis of soft tissue sarcoma. These features are the most concerning and should be carefully evaluated to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment. Proper identification of suspicious lumps is essential in the early detection and management of soft tissue sarcoma.

      Spacing:

      The palpable nature of the swelling is extremely important in patients presenting with a palpable lump. An urgent referral for suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma should be made if the lump has any of the following features:

      – greater than about 5 cm in diameter
      – deep to fascia, fixed or immobile
      – painful
      – increasing in size, or
      – a recurrence after previous excision.

      In this case, we have a deeply felt lump that is fixed and immobile. It is these features that would be the most concerning with regard to a potential diagnosis of soft tissue sarcoma.

      Proper identification of suspicious lumps is essential in the early detection and management of soft tissue sarcoma. These features are the most concerning and should be carefully evaluated to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 29 - A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.

      If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

      Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.

      Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.

      Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
    Two days earlier he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
      Two days earlier he had become confused. His daughter led him into the house where he apparently sat down at her request and had a glass of water. He then wandered around the house confused, but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his daughter, though continuing to ask similar questions repeatedly.
      After four hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Brief Overview

      Transient global amnesia is a rare condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. It is characterized by a temporary vascular insufficiency of both hippocampi, which results in a sudden onset of memory loss. However, despite the memory loss, individuals retain their awareness of personal identity and normal cognitive function.

      The episode usually lasts less than 24 hours, and the memory loss is often limited to recent events. The cause of transient global amnesia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain. While the condition can be alarming, it is generally not considered to be a serious or life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
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