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Question 1
Correct
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A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?Your Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles
Explanation:Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall
The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.
Skin and Superficial Fascia
The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.Anterior Rectus Sheath
The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.Rectus Muscle
The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.Posterior Rectus Sheath
The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.Transversalis Fascia
The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.Conclusion
Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of vision problems. He has been experiencing difficulty while driving for the past few months, as he is unable to see cars approaching him from the sides of his vision. He suspects that this may also be the cause of his occasional headaches, but he does not report any pain around his eyes or any current headache. The patient has a history of peripheral vascular disease, type II diabetes, and short-sightedness, and he often neglects to wear his glasses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Correct Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from primary open-angle glaucoma, which causes gradual loss of peripheral vision. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, such as diabetes and myopia. The headaches are likely due to eye strain from not wearing glasses. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, and cataracts are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and risk factors.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and sweaty state in her bedroom. She is unable to provide a clear medical history. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.3°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and appears to be short of breath with a respiratory rate of 30. There is no stiffness in her neck, and her chest sounds clear upon auscultation. An arterial blood gas test taken with 15 l/min oxygen shows a pH of 7.29 (7.35-7.45), Pa O2 of 37 kPa (11-14), PaCO2 of 2.1 kPa (4.5-6), and lactate of 2.4 mmol/L (0.1-2.5). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meningitis
Correct Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:Signs of Aspirin Toxicity
Aspirin toxicity can be identified through several symptoms such as fever, sweating, tachypnoea, and acidosis. These signs indicate that the body is experiencing an overdose of aspirin. The presence of confusion is a clear indication of severe overdose. On the other hand, hypoxia is expected in severe asthma and Legionella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event. She undergoes exercise stress testing.
What is the most probable occurrence in this woman's skeletal muscles during exercise?Your Answer: Increased arteriolar diameter
Explanation:Factors Affecting Blood Flow in Exercising Muscles
During exercise, several factors affect blood flow in the muscles. One of these factors is the diameter of the arterioles, which can increase due to vasodilation of muscle arterioles. Another factor is the concentration of metabolites, such as adenosine, carbon dioxide, and lactic acid, which accumulate in the tissues due to oxygen deficiency and cause vasodilation.
As a result of these factors, blood flow to the muscles can increase up to 20-fold during exercise, which is the greatest increase in any tissue in the body. This increase in blood flow is mainly due to the actions of local vasodilator substances on the muscle arterioles.
However, the increased demand for oxygen during exercise can also lead to a decrease in oxygen concentration in the tissues. This, in turn, can cause an increase in vascular resistance, which can further affect blood flow to the muscles.
Overall, understanding the factors that affect blood flow in exercising muscles is important for optimizing exercise performance and preventing injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Correct Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.
If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.
Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.
Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.
Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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According to the Mental Health Act (1983), which section should be used to detain a teenage patient, already in hospital, who is suffering from acute psychosis and is attempting to leave the hospital against medical advice?
Your Answer: Section 135
Correct Answer: Section 5.2
Explanation:Mental Health Act Sections and Their Purposes
The Mental Health Act includes several sections that outline the circumstances under which a person can be detained for mental health treatment. These sections serve different purposes and have varying time limits for detention.
Section 5.2 allows for the detention of a patient who is already in the hospital for up to 72 hours. Section 5.4 allows a senior nurse to detain a patient for up to 6 hours without a doctor present.
Section 3 applies to patients with a known mental disorder who require detention for treatment. This section allows for admission for up to 6 months.
Section 2 applies to patients with an uncertain diagnosis who require detention for assessment. This section allows for detention for no longer than 28 days.
Section 135 is a police warrant that allows for the removal of a patient from private property to a place of safety.
Section 136 allows for the removal of a person with a mental illness from the community to a place of safety for further assessment. This can be a special suite in Accident & Emergency, a local psychiatry hospital, or a police station if specific criteria are met.
Understanding these sections of the Mental Health Act is important for ensuring that individuals receive appropriate care and treatment for their mental health needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman returns to your clinic complaining of constant feelings of sadness, loss of appetite, insomnia, and a lack of enjoyment in anything. Despite making lifestyle changes and setting small goals, she still feels hopeless and requests medication. You decide to prescribe sertraline. What drug should be avoided in patients taking an SSRI?
Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient with a known history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with nausea, diarrhoea, coarse tremor and unsteadiness on her feet. She is taking the following prescribed medications: clozapine 150 mg mane and 300 mg nocte, lithium carbonate 200 mg bd and sertraline 50 mg od. Blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Clozapine level 444 ng/ml 250 to 350 ng/ml
Lithium level 2.3 mmol/l 0.4–1.2 mmol/l
Blood glucose 6.1 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 4.5 × 109 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient in their 30s with these symptoms and medication history?Your Answer: Clozapine toxicity
Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms and Causes of Lithium and Clozapine Toxicity
Lithium toxicity occurs when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l, leading to gastrointestinal and central nervous system symptoms. At levels above 2.0 mmol/l, confusion, coma, and death may occur. Clozapine and lithium are not commonly co-prescribed, and lithium is not typically used to augment clozapine for psychotic symptoms. Clozapine toxicity causes lethargy, confusion, tachycardia, hypotension, and hypersalivation. Gastrointestinal infection due to clozapine-induced neutropenia is unlikely if the neutrophil count is normal. Hypoglycemia is not suggested with a blood sugar level of 6.1. Serotonin syndrome presents with tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea, confusion, seizures, fever, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. A CT scan reveals a ruptured diverticular abscess, and he undergoes a Hartmann's procedure and faecal peritonitis washout. postoperatively, he is transferred to HDU and given broad spectrum IV antibiotics. During surgery, he had poor urine output and low blood pressure, prompting the anaesthetist to administer fluids. The next day, the F1 for surgery notes that the patient had a urine output of 5 mls per hour for three hours and then complete anuria overnight. His blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, and his CVP is 10 cm. What is the probable cause of his anuria?
Your Answer: Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:Acute Tubular Necrosis and Tubulo-Interstitial Nephritis
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition that occurs when the kidneys experience prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, leading to the death of tubular epithelium. This can result in complete anuria, which is the absence of urine output. While a blocked catheter is unlikely, a bladder scan should be performed to rule it out. ATN can also be caused by nephrotoxins and sepsis. The condition usually recovers over a few days to weeks, but if the patient has underlying renal disease, the recovery may be partial, leading to long-term chronic kidney disease (CKD). Therefore, pre-renal failure should be corrected as quickly as possible to prevent irreversible damage.
Tubulo-interstitial nephritis (TIN) is a histological diagnosis that occurs when the tubules and interstitium of the kidney become inflamed due to drugs or infections. This can lead to the release of cytokines and infiltration by acute inflammatory cells, particularly lymphocytes and eosinophils. If the causative agent is removed, TIN can resolve. However, if it persists, tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis may occur, leading to end-stage renal failure. Oral steroids can be used to dampen the inflammation and prevent fibrosis, but they need to be started early in the disease course.
In summary, ATN and TIN are two conditions that can cause kidney damage and lead to CKD or end-stage renal failure. While ATN is caused by prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, TIN is caused by drugs or infections. Early intervention is crucial to prevent irreversible damage and promote recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: It often resolves with conservative management
Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)
Explanation:Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy using thiopentone and suxamethonium. She has never had an anaesthetic before. The patient is transferred from the anaesthetic room into theatre and you notice that she becomes difficult to ventilate with high airway pressures. She has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ, with equal chest rise and sats of 95% on 15 l of oxygen. On examining her cardiovascular system, she has a heart rate of 110 bpm with a blood pressure of 68/45 mmHg. She has an erythematosus rash across her chest and face.
What is your first line of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)
Explanation:Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Dosages
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first-line management for anaphylaxis is the administration of adrenaline, also known as epinephrine. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline should be given intramuscularly (im), and the dose can be repeated after 5 minutes if there is no response. In children, the dosage ranges from 150 to 500 micrograms depending on age.
Intravenous (iv) administration of adrenaline is not recommended at a concentration of 1 : 1000. However, iv adrenaline can be administered at a concentration of 1 : 10 000 by an anaesthetist, titrated according to effect. An adrenaline infusion may be necessary for cardiovascular support of the patient.
Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone are also part of the treatment for anaphylaxis, but adrenaline takes priority. The dosages of these drugs vary depending on the age of the patient and can be given either im or through a slow iv injection.
It is important to note that anaphylaxis is a medical emergency, and prompt treatment with the appropriate medications is crucial for a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol and half a bottle of rum following a recent breakup. Their medical history includes epilepsy treated with carbamazepine and depression treated with citalopram. They smoke 10 cigarettes a day and typically consume 4 units of alcohol per week. What aspect of their medical history places them at the greatest risk for liver damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epilepsy treatment
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is influenced by various factors such as liver function, medication use, and nutrition. Carbamazepine, a liver enzyme-inducing drug, is known to increase the risk of hepatotoxicity following an overdose. Contrary to popular belief, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity and may even have a protective effect. Citalopram treatment does not affect the hepatotoxicity of paracetamol overdose. Smoking history does not have any long-term impact on liver damage. The impulsive nature of the overdose is more of a psychiatric concern than a medical one related to hepatotoxicity.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of heartburn and epigastric pain that are affecting his daily routine. Upon endoscopy, a shallow ulcer is observed on the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be eroded by the ulcer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Gastrointestinal Tract
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by several arteries, each with its own unique function and potential for complications. Here are some of the main arteries and their roles:
1. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is often the culprit of gastrointestinal bleeding from peptic ulcer disease. It is the first branch of the common hepatic artery and runs behind the first part of the duodenum.
2. Short gastric artery: A branch of the splenic artery, this artery supplies the cardia and superior part of the greater curvature of the stomach.
3. Splenic artery: One of the three main branches of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the pancreas body and tail. It is at high risk of bleeding in severe pancreatitis due to its close proximity to the supero-posterior border of the pancreas.
4. Left gastric artery: Another branch of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery.
5. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, also a branch of the splenic artery, supplies much of the greater curvature of the stomach.
Understanding the roles and potential complications of these arteries is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is being evaluated after being hospitalized six weeks ago for an inferior myocardial infarction that was treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now curious about which foods he should steer clear of.
Which of the following foods should he avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cheese
Explanation:Post-MI Diet Recommendations
Following a myocardial infarction (MI), patients are advised to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. It is recommended to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, along with five servings of fresh fruits and vegetables daily and oily fish, is recommended.
However, it is important to note that the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another MI. While a healthy diet can provide the necessary nutrients, supplements are not recommended as they have not been proven to be effective in preventing cardiac events. It is important for patients to consult with their healthcare provider for personalized dietary recommendations following an MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Practice
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test
Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cullen’s sign
Explanation:Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings
Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:
1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.
2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.
3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.
5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man complained of abdominal pain and weight loss. Upon investigation, he was diagnosed with coeliac disease. The biopsy of his small intestine revealed blunting of villi with crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes ++. What is the stage of his disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:The Marsh Criteria: A Morphological Classification of Coeliac Disease Biopsy
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine, causing damage to the lining and leading to malabsorption of nutrients. The Marsh criteria is a morphological classification system used to diagnose coeliac disease through intestinal biopsy.
The classification system consists of four stages, with stage 0 indicating a normal biopsy and stage IV indicating total villous atrophy. In between, stages I-III show varying degrees of damage to the duodenal villi, intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypts.
Recently, the Marsh-Oberhuber classification was introduced, which subdivides stage III into three classes based on the degree of villous atrophy. Stage IV has been eliminated from this modified version.
In coeliac disease and other inflammatory conditions, such as milk protein allergy, the pattern of intraepithelial lymphocytes may be reversed. In stage I disease, only increased intraepithelial lymphocytes would be seen on biopsy, while stage 0 would appear normal. Class II disease would show normal duodenal villi, and stage IV would be associated with crypt atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since last night she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a temperature of 38.5ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ºC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test causes pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region, and he displays weakness on plantar flexion with decreased ankle reflexes. What is the root compression that this patient has experienced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression
Explanation:The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father due to a loud, harsh cough that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The child has also been more lethargic than usual. Although he appears to be in good health, you observe 2 coughing fits during the consultation, which cause the child distress and difficulty breathing, resulting in a loud, harsh inspiratory noise between coughing fits. The patient has no known allergies or medical history, but his vaccination record is unclear since he moved to the UK from another country 3 years ago. The patient's temperature is 37.5ºC.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe azithromycin and report to Public Health England
Explanation:Whooping cough must be reported to Public Health England as it is a notifiable disease. According to NICE guidelines, oral azithromycin can be used to treat the disease within the first 21 days of symptoms. If the patient presents later than this, antibiotic therapy is not necessary. Salbutamol nebulisers are not a suitable treatment option as antibiotics are required.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Early Pregnancy Unit with vaginal bleeding and an unknown gestational age. She reports no pain and is stable. This is her first pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a tubal pregnancy with a visible fetal heartbeat and an unruptured adnexal mass measuring 40mm. Her beta-hCG level is 5,200 IU/L. What is the initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical - laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to a paediatric gynaecologist. Her daughter is significantly shorter than her peers, has not yet started puberty, and is deaf in both ears. During the examination, the clinician observes neck webbing, a high arched palate, and low-set ears. Based on these findings, the clinician suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
What is the most appropriate chromosomal abnormality that characterizes Turner syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 45,X
Explanation:Understanding Sex Chromosome Abnormalities: Turner Syndrome, Triple X Syndrome, and Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Sex chromosome abnormalities can have significant impacts on an individual’s physical and developmental characteristics. Here, we will discuss three such abnormalities: Turner syndrome, triple X syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Turner syndrome, or monosomy X, occurs when an individual is missing an X chromosome. This condition affects approximately 1 in 2000 live female births and can result in lymphoedema, hypoplastic nails, heart murmurs, and a high risk of congenital hip dislocation. Individuals with Turner syndrome also experience short stature and do not experience the pubertal growth spurt. They may have absent breast development, primary or secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility due to ovarian failure. Treatment involves hormone replacement and growth hormone to increase growth rate.
Triple X syndrome, or trisomy X, occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome. This condition is not usually inherited and does not have physical features associated with it. Females with triple X syndrome tend to be taller than peers with a normal female karyotype and have normal pubertal development and fertility. However, they may experience learning difficulties and delayed development of speech and motor skills.
Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome, resulting in a male patient with a tall stature and sparse pubic/axillary and facial hair. They have a delayed puberty and hypogonadism, and are infertile. Patients with Klinefelter’s are also at an increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus, breast cancer, and extragonadal germ cell tumours. Treatment involves androgen supplementation and may require behavioural therapy as well.
Understanding these sex chromosome abnormalities can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate treatment for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Explanation:Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions
When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.
Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.
Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side for the past two weeks. These headaches occur at least once a day, often at night, and last for about an hour. He has also noticed tearing from his right eye and blockage of his right nostril during the headaches. However, at the time of examination, he was not experiencing any headache and there were no physical abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men, with a ratio of 10:1 compared to women. These headaches usually occur at night, particularly in the early morning. They are characterized by paroxysmal episodes, which means they occur in clusters. One of the distinguishing features of cluster headaches is the presence of autonomic symptoms, such as lacrimation, ptosis, pupil constriction, nasal congestion, redness of the eye, and swelling of the eyelid.
It is important to note that individuals with cluster headaches typically have normal examination results between attacks. This means that there are no visible signs of the headache during periods of remission. the symptoms and characteristics of cluster headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is undergoing an OGD to investigate dysphagia related to her known achalasia. During the procedure, a mass is observed in the middle third of her oesophagus, without other abnormalities detected beyond this point. What type of cancer is most likely present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:The risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma is higher in individuals with Barrett’s oesophagus, whereas those with achalasia are at a greater risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
Creatinine 88 µmol/l γGT 33 u/l
Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast
Explanation:The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient has visited the smear test clinic at her GP practice for a follow-up test. Her previous test was conducted three months ago.
What would have been the outcome of the previous test that necessitated a retest after only three months for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inadequate sample
Explanation:In the case of an inadequate smear test result, the patient will be advised to undergo a repeat test within 3 months. If the second test also yields an inadequate result, the patient will need to undergo colposcopy testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right eye and reduced visual acuity. He complains of watery eyes and photophobia. Upon examination, inflammatory cells are found in the anterior chamber. The patient is typically healthy, but has been receiving treatment from the Physiotherapy Team for back pain. What investigation would be most useful in identifying the underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI pelvis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Workup of Anterior Uveitis with Back Pain
Anterior uveitis is a condition characterized by an acutely red painful eye with blurred vision, eye watering, and photophobia. In young men, it is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, which presents with lower back pain. Definitive diagnosis requires evidence of sacroiliitis, which can take years to show up on plain X-rays. However, changes can be seen earlier on MRI of the sacroiliac joints. Patients may also have raised ESR, normochromic anemia, and mildly raised alkaline phosphatase. HLA-B27 may also be raised.
An ESR test may be useful as part of the workup, but it would not help determine the specific underlying cause of the symptoms. Increased intraocular pressure is seen in patients with glaucoma, which may present with an acutely painful red eye, but it would not explain the presence of inflammatory cells or back pain. An MRI brain may be used in the workup of optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. However, multiple sclerosis does not explain the back pain. Positive rheumatoid factor would indicate an underlying diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which can be associated with scleritis but not uveitis. Back pain is also less likely in rheumatoid arthritis, as it typically affects the smaller joints first and would be less common in someone of this age.
Therefore, an MRI of the pelvis is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient with anterior uveitis and back pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female complains of pain on the radial side of her wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process. During examination, she experiences pain when she abducts her thumb against resistance. Additionally, when she flexes her thumb across the palm of her hand, pain is reproduced by movement of the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:The described test is the Finkelstein test, which is used to diagnose De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid process due to inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Option 1 is incorrect as the test is not Tinel’s sign, which is used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Option 3 is incorrect as polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with pain in the shoulder and pelvic muscle girdles but with normal power. Option 4 is incorrect as rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with pain in the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP) and the proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP). Option 5 is also incorrect.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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