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Question 1
Correct
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A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture
Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A previously fit 36-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of shortness of breath, a productive cough and flu-like symptoms. There is no past medical history of note. He is a non-smoker and exercises regularly. On examination, he appears unwell. There is reduced chest expansion on the left-hand side of the chest and a dull percussion note over the lower lobe of the left lung. The GP suspects a lobar pneumonia.
Which organism is likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Causes of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a lower respiratory tract infection that can be acquired outside of a hospital setting. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can result in lobar or bronchopneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another cause of CAP, often presenting with flu-like symptoms and a dry cough. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause CAP, as well as other infections such as otitis media and acute epiglottitis. Legionella pneumophila can cause outbreaks of Legionnaires disease and present with flu-like symptoms and bibasal consolidation on a chest X-ray. While Staphylococcus aureus is not a common cause of respiratory infections, it can cause severe pneumonia following influenzae or in certain populations such as the young, elderly, or intravenous drug users. Proper classification of the type of pneumonia can help predict the responsible organism and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath. She has also suffered from dull right iliac fossa pain over the past few months. Past history of note includes tuberculosis at the age of 23 and rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, her right chest is dull to percussion, consistent with a pleural effusion, and her abdomen appears swollen with a positive fluid thrill test. She may have a right adnexal mass.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Chest X-ray Large right-sided pleural effusion
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 335 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 175 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
CA-125 250 u/ml 0–35 u/ml
Pleural aspirate: occasional normal pleural cells, no white cells, protein 24 g/l.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome
Explanation:Possible Causes of Pleural Effusion: Meig’s Syndrome, Ovarian Carcinoma, Reactivation of Tuberculosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Cardiac Failure
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. There are various possible causes of pleural effusion, including Meig’s syndrome, ovarian carcinoma, reactivation of tuberculosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and cardiac failure.
Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the association of a benign ovarian tumor and a transudate pleural effusion. The pleural effusion resolves when the tumor is removed, although a raised CA-125 is commonly found.
Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries is another possible cause of pleural effusion. However, if no malignant cells are found on thoracocentesis, this diagnosis becomes less likely.
Reactivation of tuberculosis may also lead to pleural effusion, but this would be accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats, and fever.
Rheumatoid arthritis can produce an exudative pleural effusion, but this presentation is different from the transudate seen in Meig’s syndrome. In addition, white cells would be present due to the inflammatory response.
Finally, cardiac failure can result in bilateral pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography
Explanation:CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism
Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.
It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has been experiencing a productive cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, and general malaise for the past week. Upon testing his sputum, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial phase of treatment. What drugs will he take during the continuation phase, which will last for four months after the initial two-month phase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin + Isoniazid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tuberculosis: Medications and Considerations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The following are some of the medications used in the treatment of TB, along with important considerations to keep in mind:
Rifampicin + Isoniazid
This combination is used in the initial treatment of TB, which lasts for two months. Before starting treatment, it is important to check liver and kidney function, as these medications can be associated with liver toxicity. Ethambutol should be avoided in patients with renal impairment. If TB meningitis is diagnosed, the continuation phase of treatment should be extended to 10 months and a glucocorticoid should be used in the first two weeks of treatment. Side effects to watch for include visual disturbances with ethambutol and peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid.Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide is used only in the initial two-month treatment, while rifampicin is used in both the initial and continuation phases.Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
These medications are used only in the initial stage of TB treatment.Rifampicin alone
Rifampicin is used in combination with isoniazid for the continuation phase of TB treatment.Rifampicin + Ethambutol
Rifampicin is used in the continuation phase, while ethambutol is used only in the initial two-month treatment.It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for TB, taking into account individual patient factors and potential medication side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients
COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and cough. He reports experiencing more difficulty breathing and a sharp pain in his third and fourth ribs. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals an enlargement on the right side of his hilum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma
The patient’s heavy smoking history, recent onset of cough, and bony pain strongly suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The appearance of the chest X-ray further supports this diagnosis. While COPD can also cause cough and dyspnea, it is typically accompanied by audible wheezing and the presence of a hilar mass is inconsistent with this diagnosis. Neither tuberculosis nor lung collapse are indicated by the patient’s history or radiographic findings. Hyperparathyroidism is not a consideration unless hypercalcemia is present. Overall, the evidence points towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of productive cough with green sputum and a one day history of palpitations. She also had some rigors and fever. On examination:
Result Normal
Respiratory rate (RR) 26 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Sats 96% on air 94–98%
Blood pressure (BP) 92/48 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
Heart rate (HR) 130 bpm 60–100 beats/min
Some bronchial breathing at left lung base, heart sounds normal however with an irregularly irregular pulse. electrocardiogram (ECG) showed fast atrial fibrillation (AF). She was previously fit and well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Treatment for AF in a Patient with Sepsis
In a patient with sepsis secondary to pneumonia, the new onset of AF is likely due to the sepsis. Therefore, the priority is to urgently treat the sepsis with intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. If the AF persists after the sepsis is treated, other options for AF treatment can be considered. Bisoprolol and digoxin are not the first-line treatments for AF in this case. Oral antibiotics are not recommended for septic patients. Flecainide may be considered if the AF persists after the sepsis is treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.
Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.
Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus
When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
Which of the following would be most important to advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive cough and shortness of breath over the last 10 months. He has no history of smoking and is typically healthy. The only notable change in his lifestyle is that he recently started breeding pigeons after retiring. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia.
What is the most frequently linked organism with interstitial pneumonia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Types of Bacterial Pneumonia and Their Patterns in the Lung
Bacterial pneumonia can be caused by various organisms, each with their own unique patterns in the lung. Mycoplasma, viruses like RSV and CMV, and fungal infections like histoplasmosis typically cause interstitial patterns in the lung. Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcus, Escherichia coli, and Klebsiella all typically have the same alveolar pattern, with Klebsiella often causing an aggressive, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically of the alveolar type and seen in intravenous drug users or patients with underlying debilitating conditions. Mycoplasma pneumonia may also have extra-pulmonary manifestations. These conditions are sometimes referred to as atypical pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.
β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.
α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.
β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.
Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male smoker with severe rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and increasing difficulty in breathing over the past few months. During the examination, he appears to be mildly cyanosed and has end inspiratory crepitations. A chest x-ray reveals widespread reticulonodular changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung
Explanation:Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is suspected in a patient with a history and examination features that suggest the condition. Rheumatoid lung is a common cause of pulmonary fibrosis, especially in severe rheumatoid disease and smokers. The reported changes on the chest X-ray are consistent with the diagnosis. However, to diagnose respiratory failure, a blood gas result is necessary.
On the other hand, bronchial asthma is characterized by reversible airways obstruction, which leads to fluctuation of symptoms and wheezing on auscultation. The history of the patient is not consistent with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia, on the other hand, is suggested by infective symptoms, pyrexia, and consolidation on CXR.
In summary, the diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis requires a thorough history and examination, as well as imaging studies. Differential diagnosis should include other conditions that present with similar symptoms and signs, such as bronchial asthma, COPD, and pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2
Explanation:Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks
Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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As part of the investigation of breathlessness, a 68-year-old patient has spirometry performed. You learn that he spent all his working life in a factory. The following results are available:
Measured Expected
FEV1 (L) 2.59 3.46
FVC (L) 3.16 4.21
Ratio (%) 82 81
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asbestosis
Explanation:Possible Respiratory Diagnoses Based on Pulmonary Function Testing Results
Based on the patient’s age and history of factory work, along with a restrictive defect on pulmonary function testing, asbestosis is the most likely diagnosis. Other possible respiratory diagnoses include allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), asthma, emphysema, and bronchiectasis. ABPA and asthma are associated with an obstructive picture on pulmonary function tests, while emphysema and bronchiectasis are also possible differentials based on the history but are associated with an obstructive lung defect. However, it would be unusual for an individual to have their first presentation of asthma at 72 years old. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic asthma
Explanation:Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.
Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.
Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.
Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.
Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.
Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.
Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man from Somalia presents at your general practice surgery as a temporary resident. He has noticed some lumps on the back of his neck recently. He reports having a productive cough for the last 3 months, but no haemoptysis. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last month. He is a non-smoker and lives with six others in a flat. His chest X-ray shows several large calcified, cavitating lesions bilaterally.
What is the GOLD standard investigation for active disease, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum culture
Explanation:The patient in question has several risk factors for tuberculosis (TB), including being from an ethnic minority and living in overcrowded accommodation. The presence of symptoms and chest X-ray findings of bilateral large calcified, cavitating lesions strongly suggest a diagnosis of TB. The gold standard investigation for TB is to send at least three spontaneous sputum samples for culture and microscopy, including one early morning sample. Treatment should be initiated without waiting for culture results if clinical symptoms and signs of TB are present. Treatment involves a 6-month course of antibiotics, with the first 2 months consisting of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, followed by 4 months of isoniazid and rifampicin. Even if culture results are negative, the full course of antibiotics should be completed. Public health must be notified of the diagnosis for contact tracing and surveillance. Pulmonary function testing is useful for assessing the severity of lung disease but is not used in the diagnosis of TB. Tissue biopsy is not recommended as the gold standard investigation for TB, but may be useful in some cases of extrapulmonary TB. The tuberculin skin test is used to determine if a patient has ever been exposed to TB, but is not the gold standard investigation for active TB. Interferon-γ release assays measure a person’s immune reactivity to TB and can suggest the likelihood of M tuberculosis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses
Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.
Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 88–92%
Explanation:Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD
Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that his trachea is centralized and there is decreased chest expansion on the left side, accompanied by a dull percussion note and diminished breath sounds. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural effusion
Explanation:Clinical Signs for Common Respiratory Conditions
Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are common respiratory conditions that require accurate diagnosis for proper management. Here are the clinical signs to look out for:
Pleural effusion: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, ‘stony dull’ or dull percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pneumothorax: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, hyper-resonant percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pulmonary embolism: respiratory examination is likely to be normal, there may be subtle signs related to the pulmonary embolism, eg pleural rub, or due to a chronic underlying chest disease.
Pneumonia: trachea central, chest expansion likely to be normal, increased tactile vocal fremitus over area(s) of consolidation, dull percussion note over areas of consolidation, reduced air entry/bronchial breath sounds/crepitations on auscultation.
Pulmonary edema: trachea central, chest expansion normal, normal vocal fremitus, resonant percussion note, likely to hear coarse basal crackles on auscultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergillus
Explanation:Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More
Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:
– Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
– Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
– Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
– Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
– Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old postal worker with asthma visits his GP for his annual asthma review. He reports experiencing breathlessness during his morning postal round for the past few months. Despite a normal examination, the GP advises him to conduct peak flow monitoring. The results show a best PEFR of 650 L/min and an average of 439 L/min, with a predicted PEFR of 660 L/min. What is the most likely interpretation of these PEFR results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suboptimal therapy
Explanation:Differentiating Between Respiratory Conditions: A Guide
When assessing a patient with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various conditions that may be causing their symptoms. One key factor to consider is the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which should be above 80% of their best reading. If it falls below this level, it may indicate the need for therapy titration.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely in a young patient without smoking history, and clinical examination is likely to be abnormal in this condition. On the other hand, variability in PEFR is a hallmark of asthma, and the reversibility of PEFR after administering a nebulized dose of salbutamol can help differentiate between asthma and COPD.
Occupational asthma is often caused by exposure to irritants or allergens in the workplace. Monitoring PEFR for two weeks while working and two weeks away from work can help diagnose this condition.
Interstitial lung disease may cause exertional breathlessness, but fine end inspiratory crackles and finger clubbing would be present on examination. Additionally, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis typically presents after the age of 50, making it unlikely in a 36-year-old patient.
Finally, an acute exacerbation of asthma would present with a shorter duration of symptoms and abnormal clinical examination findings. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring
Explanation:Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children
Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.
Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.
In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence
Explanation:Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a persistent cough and drooping of his eyelid. He reports experiencing dryness on one side of his face. He denies any other medical issues but has a history of smoking for many years. What is the most suitable follow-up test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Lung Cancer and Horner Syndrome
When a patient presents with a cough and a history of smoking, lung cancer should always be considered until proven otherwise. The initial investigation in this scenario is a chest X-ray. However, if the patient also presents with symptoms of Horner syndrome, such as eyelid drooping and facial dryness, it may suggest the presence of an apical lung tumour, specifically a Pancoast tumour.
A sputum sample has no added benefit to the diagnosis in this case, and bronchoscopy may not be effective in accessing peripheral or apical tumours. Spirometry is not the initial investigation, but may be performed later to assess the patient’s functional capacity.
If a lung tumour is confirmed, a CT-PET scan will be part of the staging investigations to look for any metastasis. However, due to their high radiation exposure, a chest X-ray remains the most appropriate initial investigation for suspected lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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