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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with onycholysis in elderly...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with onycholysis in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's disease

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis can be caused by Raynaud’s disease or any condition that affects blood flow.

      Understanding Onycholysis: Causes and Symptoms

      Onycholysis is a condition that occurs when the nail plate separates from the nail bed. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including trauma from excessive manicuring, fungal infections, skin diseases like psoriasis and dermatitis, impaired circulation in the extremities, and systemic diseases like hyper- and hypothyroidism. In some cases, the cause of onycholysis may be unknown, or idiopathic.

      Symptoms of onycholysis can include a visible gap between the nail plate and nail bed, as well as discoloration or thickening of the nail. In some cases, the affected nail may become brittle or break easily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump on the upper central forehead that extends into the hairline. The lump has multiple small pustular areas on the surface and is of recent onset. Additionally, there is hair loss from the affected area of the scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kerion: An Inflammatory Mass Caused by Zoophilic Dermatophyte Fungal Infection

      Kerion is a rare form of tinea infection that results in an inflammatory mass caused by a zoophilic dermatophyte fungal infection. Unlike the more common anthropophilic dermatophytes that produce a mild, chronic inflammation, zoophilic dermatophytes of animal origin produce an intense inflammatory response. The scalp is most commonly affected by zoophilic organisms such as Microsporum canis from domestic pets or Trichophyton verrucosum from cattle and horses.

      Kerion is often misdiagnosed as a bacterial infection, and failure to diagnose it early can result in permanent alopecia in the affected areas. Symptoms may include enlarged regional lymph nodes, fever, and malaise. Definitive diagnosis is made by isolating the fungus from culture of hair and scalp scales, but fungal culture is often negative due to the difficulty in isolating the fungus. In such cases, treatment may be initiated based on clinical suspicion.

      Treatment for kerion involves oral antifungal agents such as terbinafine, itraconazole, or griseofulvin for at least six to eight weeks. Antibiotics may also be needed if there is a bacterial infection present. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for kerion is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this uncommon fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrence after excision is common

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts

      Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:

      Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.

      They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.

      Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.

      They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.

      They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.

      For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.

      For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.

      Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman schedules a routine visit with you. She is currently 18...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman schedules a routine visit with you. She is currently 18 weeks pregnant and has a lengthy history of acne vulgaris. Before her pregnancy, she effectively managed her acne with a topical retinoid and the combined oral contraceptive. However, she discontinued both treatments prior to becoming pregnant and has noticed a resurgence of her acne. Despite trying over-the-counter benzoyl peroxide, she has not seen any improvement.

      What would be the best course of action for managing her acne during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined topical benzoyl peroxide + clindamycin gel

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, acne is a common issue and many typical treatments are not appropriate. However, it is safe to use topical antibiotics for managing acne during pregnancy. It is recommended to prescribe a combination of topical antibiotics and benzoyl peroxide. On the other hand, topical retinoids should not be used during pregnancy. If topical treatments are not effective, oral erythromycin can be considered as an option.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melanoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

    She has been noticing patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

      She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.

      During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.

      What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions

      This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

    Which of the following statements regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

      Which of the following statements regarding Norwegian scabies is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. Scabies spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. The infestation can be easily spread to sexual partners and household members, and may also occur by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, breast, and shoulder blades. Treatment options for scabies include permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

      It is important to note that whilst common scabies is not associated with eosinophilia, Norwegian scabies is associated with massive infestation, and as such, eosinophilia is a common finding. Norwegian scabies also carries a very high level of infectivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and...

    Incorrect

    • An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:

      Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.

      Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.

      Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.

      Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.

    What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.

      What is the primary reason behind pruritus vulvae?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Contact dermatitis is the leading reason for pruritus vulvae, which can be attributed to a delayed allergic reaction to substances such as medication, contraceptive creams/gel, and latex, or an irritant reaction to chemical or physical triggers like humidity, detergents, solvents, or friction/scratching.

      Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.

      To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Locoid (hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%)

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroid Potencies: Understanding the Differences

      Topical steroids are commonly used in general practice to treat various skin conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the relative potencies of these medications to prescribe them safely and effectively.

      Dermovate is the most potent topical steroid, classified as very potent. Betnovate and hydrocortisone butyrate are both considered potent, while eumovate falls under the moderate potency category. Hydrocortisone 1% is classified as mild.

      To gain a better understanding of topical steroid potencies, the British National Formulary provides a helpful overview. By knowing the differences between these medications, healthcare professionals can prescribe the appropriate treatment for their patients’ skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine bloods

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratosis Pilaris

      Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.

      It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 29-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a rash around her mouth that has been present for 2 weeks. She reports that she recently switched to a different brand of foundation make-up.

      Upon examination, you observe clustered reddish papules, vesicles, and pustules on an erythematous base around her mouth and cheeks. The lip margins are unaffected. Your diagnosis is perioral dermatitis.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe 6 week course of an oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Perioral dermatitis can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. However, before starting treatment, it is important to evaluate any underlying factors and advise the patient to avoid using cosmetics, cleansers, and moisturizers on the affected area.

      For milder cases, a topical antibiotic such as clindamycin, erythromycin, or metronidazole can be used. However, for more severe cases, a systemic antibiotic such as oxytetracycline, lymecycline, doxycycline, or erythromycin should be used for a period of 4-6 weeks.

      It is important to note that the use of topical steroids should be avoided as they can cause or exacerbate perioral dermatitis. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it can be associated with the use of topical steroids for minor skin problems.

      Referral to a dermatologist is not necessary at this stage, as perioral dermatitis can be effectively treated in primary care. However, if the condition doesn’t respond to treatment or alternative diagnoses are being considered, referral to a dermatologist may be appropriate.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 21 - You are reviewing the shared care protocols in the practice for prescribing and...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing the shared care protocols in the practice for prescribing and monitoring disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs.
      Which of the following DMARDs can cause retinal damage and requires monitoring for visual symptoms including pre-treatment visual assessment and biennial review of vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine Monitoring Requirements

      Shared care protocols are commonly used between primary and secondary care to monitor and prescribe DMARDs. Hydroxychloroquine, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, requires monitoring of visual symptoms as it can cause retinal damage. The Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends that patients be assessed by an optometrist prior to treatment if any signs or symptoms of eye disease are present. During treatment, visual symptoms should be enquired about and annual visual acuity recorded. If visual acuity changes or vision is blurred, patients should be advised to stop treatment and seek advice. The BNF and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries provide further information on the monitoring requirements for hydroxychloroquine.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratoacanthoma

      Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash that has been gradually developing over the past few months. He has no significant medical history except for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder. Upon examination, the patient has several indistinct, pink patches with yellow/brown scales. The affected areas are primarily located on the sternum, eyebrows, and nasal bridge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common cause of an itchy rash on the face and scalp, with a typical distribution pattern. Unlike atopic dermatitis, which affects flexural areas, seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by scales. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, presents with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by scaly patches that form a fir-tree pattern.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash on her ears that has been present for 3 days. They have just returned from a trip to Mexico. The girl complains of itchiness and discomfort. She has not experienced any fever or respiratory symptoms recently. On examination, small blisters are observed on the helix of both ears, while the rest of her skin appears normal. The patient has no prior medical history.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile spring eruption

      Explanation:

      Juvenile spring eruption (JSE) is a skin condition that typically affects boys aged 5-14 years during the spring season. It is caused by sun exposure and appears as a blistering rash on the ears, causing discomfort and itchiness. The recent holiday to Tenerife suggests a possible risk factor for this condition. Treatment involves using emollients and antihistamines, and symptoms usually resolve within a week.

      The rash associated with Chickenpox starts as red macules that become raised, blister, and crust over time. It is often accompanied by cold-like symptoms and fever and tends to be more widespread, affecting the trunk and limbs. This rash typically lasts for 4-10 days. However, since the patient has a 2-day history of a blistering rash isolated to the ears, Chickenpox is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s short history, the characteristic rash, and the absence of any relevant medical history, eczema is an unlikely possibility.

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis is a skin condition that is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly patients. It is characterized by small skin-colored nodules that typically appear on the helix of the ear.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - In what year was the shingles vaccination added to the routine immunisation schedule,...

    Incorrect

    • In what year was the shingles vaccination added to the routine immunisation schedule, and at what age is it typically administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age 70

      Explanation:

      The recommended age for receiving the shingles vaccine is 70, with only one dose required. Shingles is more prevalent and can have severe consequences for individuals over the age of 70, with a mortality rate of 1 in 1000.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 27 - You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.

      What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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  • Question 28 - You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You are contemplating prescribing calcipotriol as a monotherapy.

      Which of the following statements about calcipotriol is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be safely used long-term on an ongoing basis

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis can be treated with calcipotriol for an extended period of time.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology

      Explanation:

      If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

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      • Dermatology
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Dermatology (1/3) 33%
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