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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried about her daughter's persistent fatigue, recurrent coughs and sore throats, and recent appearance of small purple spots on her skin. The patient also reports intermittent feverishness. Blood tests for EBV serology were normal a few weeks ago. On examination, the patient appears pale, with unremarkable observations. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly, but small petechiae are present on the torso and arms. Based on NICE guidelines, which finding in the history and examination of this adolescent would warrant immediate specialist evaluation for leukemia?

      Your Answer: Unexplained petechiae

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) makes up to 5% of all leukemia cases.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Vaginal swabs should be taken by the GP to guide treatment

      Explanation:

      Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis

      In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.

      It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.

      The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been seen on several occasions over the last 2-3 months, feeling increasingly tired and weak.
      The last occasion was about two weeks ago when she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis. Her mother says this seems to have settle but she still complains of feeling generally weak and tired. She thinks she has lost weight.
      A colleague of yours had requested some blood tests and you can see there is a normal full blood count, liver function, thyroid function, and anti-TTG results on the computer system. Her renal function is normal with a low sodium being the only result outside of normal range.
      On examination: the child looks thin and a little pale. There is no fever, or rashes. She is not breathless or in pain. Her blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. Her heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear. There is no lymphadenopathy or organomegaly.
      Which of the following clinical features is most likely be present on further examination of this patient?

      Your Answer: Peripheral oedema

      Correct Answer: Hyperpigmentation of mucous membranes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a rare condition that occurs due to adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Symptoms can range from sudden acute crises triggered by concurrent illness or stress to chronic nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

      In this case, a child with chronic vague symptoms was examined, and blood results revealed hyponatremia and low glucose levels, which are common in Addison’s disease. Other symptoms such as postural hypotension, jaundice, peripheral edema, and inflammatory arthropathy were ruled out. Hyperpigmentation is a common feature of Addison’s disease, which develops due to increased ACTH production and usually affects sun-exposed areas, recent scar sites, pressure points, palmar creases, and mucous membranes. It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease due to its rarity and vague symptoms.

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  • Question 4 - A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a...

    Correct

    • A child of 14 weeks is scheduled for vaccination. What would be a contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer: Existing febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Contraindications

      Vaccinations are generally safe and effective in preventing infectious diseases. However, certain conditions may raise concerns about the safety of immunisation. It is important to note that febrile convulsions, congenital heart disease, epilepsy in a sibling or first degree relative, and cystic fibrosis are not contraindications to vaccination.

      Nevertheless, appropriate measures should be taken to prevent fever from occurring at the time of immunisation. Any concurrent febrile illness, on the other hand, contraindicates vaccination. It is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for individuals with underlying medical conditions before receiving any vaccines. By doing so, we can ensure that everyone receives the necessary protection against preventable diseases.

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  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He is currently on a daily steroid inhaler (Clenil - 50 mcg, two puffs twice a day) and uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Trial of oral steroids

      Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, it is recommended by NICE guidelines to try adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their treatment plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 6 - You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5Âș,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5Âș, runny nose and was generally irritable. The fever has now settled but his mother is worried as the patient has developed a rash on his face and body. On examination, you note small red spots that blanch when touched. No itchiness or blisters are noted.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Possible Childhood Viral Infections and Their Features

      Roseola is a likely diagnosis in a child who presents with high fever, upper respiratory symptoms, and a characteristic rash that appears as the fever subsides. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, typically manifests as a slapped cheek appearance. Hand, foot and mouth disease usually causes symptoms on the hands, feet, and mouth, such as red macules that develop into vesicles and ulcers. Measles has a prodromal phase with fever, malaise, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis, followed by an erythematous and maculopapular rash that often starts on the head and spreads to the trunk and limbs. Koplik spots may also appear in the oral mucosa. Unlike Roseola, the rash often coincides with the fever. Finally, Molluscum contagiosum presents as small round white, pink, or brown papules with a central indentation. Knowing these features can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for childhood viral infections.

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  • Question 7 - The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects from asthma treatment. Upon examination, you notice that her asthma has been poorly managed for the past six months and she has been frequently visiting the nurse-led asthma clinic. She is currently taking 100 micrograms of beclomethasone twice daily, but her asthma remains uncontrolled. What is the best course of action for managing this child's asthma?

      Your Answer: A leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to the current beclomethasone regimen

      Explanation:

      Management of Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old: Adding a Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist to the Current Regimen

      The British Guidelines on the Management of Asthma and The Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for prophylaxis of asthma in children under five years old when they require a beta-2 agonist more than twice a week, experience symptoms that disturb sleep at least once a week, or have suffered an exacerbation in the last two years requiring a systemic corticosteroid. However, long-term use of high doses of inhaled corticosteroids can cause adrenal suppression, and growth impairment may occur. Therefore, it is important to monitor height and weight.

      If a child’s asthma remains poorly controlled despite receiving the recommended very low dose of beclomethasone (100 ”g twice a day), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) should be added before considering an increase in corticosteroid dosage. Both NICE and SIGN guidelines agree on this approach.

      It is important to note that a long acting beta-agonist is not the preferred add-on treatment for children under five years old, as recommended for children aged five years and older. Referral to a respiratory paediatrician is also not necessary in this case, as NICE recommends referral for investigation and further management by an asthma expert only if control is not achieved with a low dose of inhaled corticosteroid and a leukotriene receptor antagonist as maintenance therapy.

      In summary, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to the current beclomethasone regimen is the appropriate next step in managing asthma in children under five years old.

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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that her pants are now frequently soiled with loose, smelly stools and this is why she has brought her in. She is otherwise well and has a normal development history.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer: Polyethylene glycol '3350' + electrolytes (Movicol©)

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence

      Idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of macrogols (polyethylene glycol ‘3350’ + electrolytes; Movicol©) with an escalating dose regimen, adjusting the dose according to the response. Adequate fluid and fibre are necessary but should not be used alone as the only treatment. Rectal suppositories and sodium citrate enemas are suggested as options only if oral treatment fails. If this fails, phosphate enemas in hospital are recommended. A stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the macrogols if the latter do not lead to disimpaction after two weeks. A stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative or a stool softener should be used if macrogols are not tolerated. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s condition and response to treatment.

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  • Question 9 - A patient expresses concern about a neighbouring family (who are also patients of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient expresses concern about a neighbouring family (who are also patients of yours) in which she believes a teenager is at risk of maltreatment.
      Which of the following is associated with the greatest risk of teenage maltreatment?

      Your Answer: Separation of the parents

      Correct Answer: Domestic abuse of spouse by partner

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Key Risk Factors for Child Abuse

      A 2012 analysis of serious case reviews revealed that domestic abuse and violence were the most prevalent risk factors for child abuse, present in 63% of cases. Other significant factors included parental mental health problems, substance misuse, and violent offenders in the home. While deprivation and poverty, parental separation, and young parents without support were also identified as risk factors, they did not pose the greatest risk on their own. It is important to recognize that these risk factors often exist in combination, and addressing them requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the underlying issues.

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  • Question 10 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
      What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?

      Your Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment

      Explanation:

      Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever

      A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.

      Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.

      Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.

      HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.

      Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.

      In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle cell trait. The father of the child agrees to further screening and is found to have the HbAS genotype. What is the probability of their offspring having sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.

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  • Question 12 - The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby...

    Incorrect

    • The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby is coming to seek advice. The mother was diagnosed with Hepatitis B during pregnancy, and the baby received a vaccination before being discharged. What is the recommended Hepatitis B vaccine schedule for the baby?

      Your Answer: Two further injections at 6 months and 12 months

      Correct Answer: Further injections at 4,8,12 & 16 weeks of age plus one at 12 months

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Vaccination for Newborns

      Babies born to mothers with hepatitis B require immediate vaccination to prevent the transmission of the virus. Within 24 hours of birth, the newborn should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine. Subsequent doses should be given at 4, 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, with the final dose administered when the child is 1-year-old. This vaccination schedule is crucial in protecting the child from developing chronic hepatitis B infection, which can lead to liver damage and other serious health complications. By following this vaccination schedule, parents can ensure the health and well-being of their newborn.

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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old girl asks to begin taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl asks to begin taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Which of the following is not a fundamental aspect of the Fraser guidelines?

      Your Answer: They are likely to begin, or continue having, sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment

      Correct Answer: They do not have, or have had in the past, a mental illness or learning disability

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines: Assessing Competence of Minors for Consent to Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the minor must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the professional to contact them on their behalf. Additionally, the minor must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without it. Finally, it must be in the minor’s best interest to receive contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.

      These guidelines are crucial in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical treatment while also protecting their autonomy and privacy. By assessing their competence to give consent, healthcare professionals can ensure that minors are making informed decisions about their own health and wellbeing. The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for balancing the rights of minors with the duty of healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care.

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  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the last three months, each lasting a few days. The pain variably increases and decreases during an episode. It has been severe enough to affect school attendance. When his mother brings him she has no pain and physical examination is normal.
      Select from this list the most likely eventual finding for the cause of the symptoms in this boy.

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: No cause will be found

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children: Possible Causes and Diagnosis

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, but it is often difficult to identify the underlying cause. In many cases, no organic pathology can be found, but a significant number of cases are organic and require careful examination and investigation. Recurrent abdominal pain is defined as pain that occurs for at least three episodes within three months and is severe enough to affect a child’s activities.

      The most probable causes of recurrent abdominal pain in children are irritable bowel syndrome, abdominal migraine/periodic syndrome, constipation, mesenteric adenitis, and urinary tract infections. However, other possible causes should also be considered.

      Despite the lack of organic pathology in most cases, psychological factors are not always the cause. A study found no significant differences in emotional and behavioral scores between patients with organic pathology and those without. Therefore, a thorough examination and investigation are necessary to identify the underlying cause of recurrent abdominal pain in children.

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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
    She had some scalp...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
      She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
      The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
      What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage

      When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.

      Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children are infectious once rash begins until all lesions have scabbed over

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

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  • Question 17 - A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is crucial to discuss this immediately with a paediatrics specialist. Similarly, if a child shows signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality during this check, urgent attention from a specialist is necessary. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be incorrect, as they are abnormal and require prompt attention. Referring the child to the emergency department is also not the best course of action, as they may not have the necessary expertise to deal with this issue. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in two weeks would also be inappropriate, as the child needs urgent attention from the appropriate specialist.

      Types of Congenital Heart Disease

      Congenital heart disease refers to heart defects that are present at birth. There are two main types of congenital heart disease: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart defects are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defects (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSDs are the most common acyanotic heart defect, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common but tend to be diagnosed in adults as they present later.

      Cyanotic heart defects are less common but more serious. They include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects. Understanding the different types of congenital heart disease is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 18 - The parents of a 5-year-old child are worried about his bed wetting, as...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 5-year-old child are worried about his bed wetting, as he has been dry at night for the past two years. What should they do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that bedwetting would be expected at this age

      Explanation:

      Possible revised version:

      Possible Causes of Bedwetting in Children

      Bed wetting, or nocturnal enuresis, is a common problem among young children, especially those under the age of 6. However, if a child has been dry at night for a while and suddenly starts wetting the bed again, it may indicate an underlying issue that needs to be addressed. Some possible causes of bed wetting in children include psychological effects, urinary tract infections, and diabetes.

      Psychological effects are the most common cause of bedwetting in children who have already achieved nighttime dryness. Stress, anxiety, fear, and other emotional factors can disrupt the normal control of the bladder and lead to involuntary urination during sleep. Children who experience major life changes, such as moving to a new home, starting school, or dealing with family conflicts, may be more prone to bed wetting.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are another possible cause of bedwetting in children. UTIs can irritate the bladder and cause frequent urination, urgency, and pain or discomfort during urination. Children with UTIs may also have other symptoms, such as fever, abdominal pain, or foul-smelling urine. UTIs can be diagnosed with a urine test and treated with antibiotics.

      Diabetes, especially type 1 diabetes, can also cause bed wetting in children. This is because high blood sugar levels can increase urine production and make it harder for the kidneys to concentrate urine at night. Children with diabetes may also have other symptoms, such as excessive thirst, hunger, fatigue, and weight loss. Diabetes can be diagnosed with a blood test and managed with insulin therapy and other measures.

      In summary, bed wetting in children who have been dry for a while may indicate a psychological, urinary, or metabolic problem that requires medical attention. Parents should talk to their child’s doctor if bed wetting persists or is accompanied by other symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most cases of bed wetting can be resolved or managed effectively.

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  • Question 19 - You receive a phone call from the father of a 4-year-old girl who...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a phone call from the father of a 4-year-old girl who you saw earlier in the day and diagnosed with strep throat, starting amoxicillin. At home she has been feverish and sweaty, and Dad describes an episode of her 'going rigid' followed by shaking of all of her limbs for about 1 minute. She is currently sleeping but can be awakened. Other than that, Dad reports no other concerning symptoms. She has never experienced a similar episode before. What would be the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange admission to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      Although febrile seizures are frequent, it is crucial to have a pediatrician confirm the diagnosis and exclude any serious underlying condition. Therefore, according to NICE clinical knowledge summaries, if a child experiences their initial febrile seizure, they must be promptly hospitalized and assessed by a pediatrician.

      It would be inappropriate to merely reassure the mother or postpone the evaluation until the following day. An antibiotic allergy would not typically trigger a seizure.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ÂșC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a temperature of 38.2°C, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and a croupy cough. There is no intercostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for him? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Croup: Choosing the Right Approach

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children that can cause coughing, difficulty breathing, and other symptoms. When it comes to treating croup, there are several options available, but not all of them are appropriate for every child. Here’s a breakdown of some common treatment options and when they might be used:

      Oral Dexamethasone: For mild-to-moderate croup, a single oral dose of dexamethasone is often the best choice. This medication can help reduce inflammation in the airways and alleviate symptoms. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide may be used instead.

      Nebulised Epinephrine: For children with moderate-to-severe distress, nebulised epinephrine can be effective in reducing swelling in the trachea. However, this treatment only lasts for a few hours, so close monitoring is necessary.

      Inhaling Humidified Air: While inhaling humidified air may help reduce a child’s anxiety, there is little evidence to suggest that it provides any significant symptomatic relief.

      IM Hydrocortisone: IM hydrocortisone is not typically used to treat croup. However, IM dexamethasone may be used as an alternative to oral dexamethasone.

      Nebulised Salbutamol: Salbutamol is not an appropriate treatment for croup, as it is typically used to treat asthma.

      In summary, the best treatment for croup will depend on the severity of the child’s symptoms and their overall health. If you suspect that your child has croup, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure that they receive the appropriate care.

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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of poor sleep, tiredness, reduced appetite and weight loss. She reports low mood and anxiety worse on waking in the mornings.

      She has a history of self harm and you can see evidence of recent deliberate self harm with several superficial cuts to her forearms. She admits to recent suicidal thoughts but has not acted on these and has no acute suicidal intent. She has no psychotic symptoms.

      Following your assessment you make a diagnosis of moderate depression.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with watchful waiting as no specific intervention is appropriate at this stage

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Children: A Tiered Approach

      In managing moderate to severe depression in children, the first step is to refer them for assessment to tier 2-3 CAMHS. The three tiers of CAMHS cover practitioners who are not mental health specialists and work in universal services (Tier 1), CAMHS specialists working in community and primary care (Tier 2), and multidisciplinary teams delivering specialist services in community mental health clinics (Tier 3).

      For mild depression, Tier 1 management is sufficient. However, for moderate to severe depression, specific psychological therapy in the form of individual CBT, interpersonal therapy, or shorter-term family therapy is the first-line treatment. If the depression is unresponsive to psychological therapy after four to six sessions, a multidisciplinary review should be conducted, and alternative or additional psychological therapies and medication should be considered.

      In summary, managing depression in children requires a tiered approach that involves referral to the appropriate CAMHS tier and the use of specific psychological therapies. It is essential to monitor the child’s response to treatment and adjust the management plan accordingly.

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  • Question 22 - You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the...

    Incorrect

    • You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the proper application of emollients. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The condition is characterized by an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, eczema typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, a more typical distribution is seen, with flexor surfaces affected and the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. By understanding the features and management of eczema in children, parents and caregivers can help alleviate symptoms and improve the child’s quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a moderate response to an inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA) but you are planning to trial an inhaled corticosteroid to see if her control can be improved.

      How long should a trial of inhaled corticosteroid be for a child under three years of age with suspected asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Children Under Five with Suspected Asthma

      For children under the age of five with suspected asthma, NICE recommends an eight week trial of a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) if there are symptoms that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy. These symptoms include occurring three times a week or more, causing waking at night, or being uncontrolled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone.

      After the eight week trial, the ICS treatment should be stopped and the child’s symptoms monitored. If the symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, an alternative diagnosis should be considered. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred within four weeks of stopping the ICS treatment, the ICS should be restarted at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond four weeks after stopping the ICS treatment, another eight week trial of a moderate dose of ICS should be repeated.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper management of asthma in young children.

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  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrogol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

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  • Question 25 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient

      When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.

      While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.

      Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.

      Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 26 - A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother reports that he is exclusively breastfed. The baby appears healthy, and examination findings are unremarkable. Meconium was passed within the first 24 hours after birth. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that this is usually normal in a breastfed infant

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infant Bowel Movements: Breastfed Babies and Constipation

      Breastfed infants tend to have more frequent bowel movements than formula-fed babies, but there is a wide range of normal variation. It is common for breastfed babies to have frequent bowel movements up to six weeks of age due to the gastro-colic reflex. However, it is also normal for breastfed babies to go several days without a bowel movement, sometimes up to 7-10 days. When a bowel movement does occur after a longer period of time, it may be a blow-out of normal consistency and should not cause concern as long as it appears painless.

      It is important to note that simple straining to pass stool is also normal and doesn’t necessarily indicate constipation. However, if there are worrying signs such as difficulty with feeding, failure to gain weight, or signs of discomfort, medical attention should be sought.

      It is not necessary to give a macrogol laxative unless a diagnosis of constipation is made. Additionally, introducing baby food containing fruit and vegetables is not appropriate for exclusively breastfed infants. Prune juice may help with constipation, but it is not recommended for infants until they are weaned at 4-6 months.

      Overall, as long as the baby is well and examination is normal, there is no need for urgent referral to hospital. However, if constipation appears during the first few weeks of life, it may be a sign of a more serious condition such as Hirschsprung’s disease, which requires medical attention.

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  • Question 27 - What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and...

    Incorrect

    • What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B

      Explanation:

      Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents

      A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.

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  • Question 28 - You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her legs up as if she is in pain. She has had some loose stools and has vomited twice today.
      Her mother says that the last stool looked rather red as if there was blood in it. She looks pale and distressed.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Children

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 5 months to 3 years, accounting for up to 25% of abdominal emergencies in children up to age 5. It occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another just distal to it, leading to obstruction. This condition is more common in boys than girls, with a ratio of approximately 3:2, and two-thirds of patients are under 1-year-old, with the peak age being between 5-10 months.

      The clinical features of intussusception include sudden onset of paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain, which may be more insidious in older children. The pain occurs about every 10-20 minutes and is often accompanied by crying. Patients may appear well between paroxysms initially, but early vomiting can rapidly become bile-stained. Neurological symptoms such as lethargy, hypotonia, or sudden alterations of consciousness can also occur.

      Other features of intussusception include a palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, often in the right upper quadrant, and absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign). Patients may also experience dehydration, pallor, shock, irritability, sweating, and later mucoid and bloody ‘red currant stools’. Late pyrexia may also occur.

      In summary, intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children, with a range of clinical features that can help diagnose the condition. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 29 - The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with...

    Incorrect

    • The School Principal is worried that the school is not fully compliant with the Child Protection Act. Which organization must the school register with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Information Commissioner's Office

      Explanation:

      Registration with the Information Commissioner’s Office is mandatory for all entities, such as a GP surgery, that handle personal information, in accordance with the Data Protection Act of 1998.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

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  • Question 30 - A 4-year-old girl, Lily, has a febrile convulsion at home. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl, Lily, has a febrile convulsion at home. She has been suffering from Chickenpox. This is her third febrile convulsion, the last one was six months ago and was during a viral gastroenteritis. The convulsion quickly terminates within a minute and Lily recovers promptly at home. Mum asks for medication to prevent further febrile convulsions. What advice should the GP give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tell her that no preventative treatment is required for Jonny's febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use preventative treatment for febrile convulsions as the risks of regular anti-epileptic medications outweigh the benefits. There is no evidence that regular use of paracetamol or ibuprofen during an illness can prevent febrile convulsions. While antipyretics may provide comfort to a febrile child, they do not reduce the risk of febrile convulsions.

      If a parent witnesses their child having a febrile seizure, they should take steps to prevent the child from harming themselves. Placing the child in the recovery position during the seizure is recommended. Seizures that last longer than 5 minutes require medical treatment, and parents should call for an ambulance. If the child experiences regular febrile convulsions, parents may keep PR diazepam at home to administer if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ÂșC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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