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Question 1
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Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity?
Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Understanding Cocaine Toxicity
Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.
Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.
Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.
In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has been experiencing nausea. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Cyclizine is a recommended first choice anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues. It is also useful in palliative care for managing gastrointestinal obstruction and vagally-mediated nausea or vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, movement disorders, or raised intracranial pressure. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, while metoclopramide is used for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is indicated for chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is a steroid that may be used in palliative care for treating nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the cause of nausea is suspected to be raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, and dexamethasone may be considered as an additional treatment.
Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: A Mechanistic Approach
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, often caused by multiple factors. Identifying the primary cause is crucial in selecting the appropriate anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In palliative care, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting. Two approaches can be used in selecting drug therapy: empirical or mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.
The mechanistic approach involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting. For example, pro-kinetic agents are useful in scenarios where reduced gastric motility is the primary cause. First-line medications for this syndrome include metoclopramide and domperidone. However, metoclopramide should not be used in certain situations, such as complete bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation. If the cause is chemically mediated, correcting the chemical disturbance should be the first step. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while cyclizine is recommended for nausea and vomiting due to intracranial disease. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred, with the intravenous route used if access is already established.
In summary, a mechanistic approach to managing nausea and vomiting in palliative care involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the symptoms. This approach can improve the effectiveness of anti-emetic therapy and reduce the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?
Your Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months
Explanation:Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis
Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.
The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.
The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.
In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.
It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.
Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor regarding a patient who is five days old and displaying symptoms of cyanosis, tachypnoea, and weak peripheral pulses. Your suspicion is that the patient has a duct dependent cardiac lesion. Once this is confirmed, what would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Prostaglandins
Explanation:Prostaglandins can maintain the patency of a patent ductus arteriosus, which can be beneficial in cases of duct dependent cardiac lesions such as tetralogy of Fallot, Ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia, and pulmonary stenosis. These conditions may be diagnosed before birth or present with symptoms such as cyanosis, tachypnea, and weak peripheral pulses at birth. While surgery is often the definitive treatment, keeping the duct open with prostaglandins can provide time for appropriate management planning. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome, which can cause liver and brain edema and be fatal. Indomethacin and other medications may also be used to close the duct.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents to her GP with her father, reporting a rash and fatigue. She has been feeling generally unwell for the past week since returning from a trip to Europe. During the examination, a circular rash is observed, with a more pronounced appearance in the center and edges. The rash is warm and red but does not cause any pain. What possible illnesses should be considered in this patient?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Lyme disease is caused by the bacteria Borrelia, which is transmitted to humans through tick bites. The most common symptom of Lyme disease is a characteristic rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. Other symptoms of the disease are general and can include fever, headache, fatigue, and even paralysis.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of severe pain during defecation for the last two weeks. He has also noticed occasional blood on the toilet paper while wiping. During the examination, a tear is observed on the posterior midline of the anal verge. Which of the following treatment options should not be suggested?
Your Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Studies have demonstrated that topical steroids are not very effective in the treatment of anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Left lumbosacral plexus
Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?Your Answer: Terlipressin
Correct Answer: Chlorothiazide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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