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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his shower. He is sexually active, but he reports no recent sexual encounters. What would be the most suitable serological test to assist in diagnosing his condition?

      Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Correct Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers: Common Biomarkers for Cancer Diagnosis

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These biomarkers can be used to aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and their associated cancers:

      – Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP): Elevated levels of aFP may indicate non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis, but biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis.
      – Calcitonin: Produced by medullary carcinomas of the thyroid, calcitonin opposes the action of parathyroid hormone.
      – Parathyroid-related peptide (PTHrP): Produced in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, PTHrP can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome.
      – Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Elevated in cancers of the stomach, lung, pancreas, and colon, and sometimes in yolk sac tumors.
      – CA-125: Elevated in ovarian cancer, but can also be elevated in benign conditions such as endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and ovarian cysts.

      While tumor markers can provide clues to the diagnosis of cancer, biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis. It is important to note that elevated levels of these biomarkers do not always indicate cancer and can be caused by other conditions. Consultation with a healthcare provider is necessary for proper interpretation of tumor marker results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his left testicle that has been gradually increasing over the past 72 hours. He appears to be in discomfort but is able to walk. Upon examination, his left testicle is tender to firm palpation. His vital signs are normal, and there is no redness or swelling. His abdominal examination is unremarkable. He reports dysuria and has recently started a new sexual relationship.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate involvement of the on-call urologist to arrange exploration of the scrotum to exclude torsion

      Correct Answer: Treat with ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epididymo-orchitis: Choosing the Right Antibiotics

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that causes inflammation of the epididymis and testicles. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. When treating this condition, it is important to choose the right antibiotics based on the suspected causative organism.

      In the case of a sexually transmitted infection, ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days is the recommended treatment. However, if an enteric organism is suspected, ciprofloxacin may be preferred.

      It is important to note that pain relief alone is not sufficient and empirical treatment with antibiotics is advised. Additionally, immediate involvement of a urologist is necessary to rule out testicular torsion.

      While hospital admission and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary in severe cases, stable patients with epididymo-orchitis do not require this level of intervention. By choosing the appropriate antibiotics and involving a urologist when necessary, patients can receive effective treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she displays tenderness in her left loin. A CT-KUB is conducted, revealing the presence of a renal tract calculus in her left kidney. Where is the most frequent location for this condition?

      Your Answer: Mid-ureter

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ)

      Explanation:

      The Most Common Sites for Urinary Calculi: Understanding the Locations and Symptoms

      Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can occur in various locations within the renal tract. The three most common sites are the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ), within the ureter at the pelvic brim, and the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ), with the latter being the most frequent location. Stones obstructing the PUJ present with mild to severe deep flank pain without radiation to the groin, irritative voiding symptoms, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, and stranguria. On the other hand, stones within the ureter cause abrupt, severe colicky pain in the flank and ipsilateral lower abdomen, radiation to the testicles or vulvar area, and intense nausea with or without vomiting. While the renal pelvis and mid-ureter are also possible sites for urinary calculi, they are less common. Stones passed into the bladder are mostly asymptomatic but can rarely cause positional urinary retention. Understanding the locations and symptoms of urinary calculi can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He also reports that he has noticed galactorrhoea and is experiencing headaches, usually upon waking in the morning. He has no significant past medical history. His blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation(s) Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 130–180 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 3.5–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/l 0.27-4.2 mU/l
      Prolactin 5234 mU/l 86-324 mU/l
      Which of the following further investigations should be requested?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) adrenal glands

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pituitary

      Explanation:

      For a patient with symptoms and blood tests indicating prolactinaemia, further tests are needed to measure other pituitary hormones. An MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to diagnose a macroprolactinoma, which is likely due to significantly elevated prolactin levels and early-morning headaches. A CT of the adrenal glands is useful in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, which presents with symptoms such as headaches, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea and vomiting, anxiety, and tremors. A 24-hour urinary 5HIAA test is used to diagnose a serotonin-secreting carcinoid tumor, which presents with symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and tachycardia. A chest X-ray is not useful in diagnosing a prolactinoma, which is an adenoma of the pituitary gland. For imaging of prolactinomas, MRI is the preferred method as it is more sensitive in detecting small tumors (microprolactinomas).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in his groin while playing basketball. He has no significant medical history and denies any trauma to the area. During the exam, he experiences persistent pain in his right testicle when it is raised. An ultrasound with Doppler reveals reduced blood flow in the right testicle. Which artery is most likely occluded in this patient?

      Your Answer: Directly from the aorta

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Arteries Involved in Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a condition that causes extreme pain in the groin due to the rotation of the testicle within the scrotum, which occludes flow through the testicular artery. This condition is common in male teenagers during exercise and requires immediate medical attention. In this article, we will discuss the arteries involved in testicular torsion and their functions.

      The testicular artery (both left and right) arises from the aorta at the level of L2. Torsion can be diagnosed through colour Doppler ultrasound of the testicle, which shows decreased blood flow. Surgery is required within 6 hours of onset of symptoms to re-establish blood flow and prevent recurrent torsion (orchidopexy). If >6 hours elapse, there is an increased risk for permanent ischaemic damage.

      The right and left renal arteries provide branches to the adrenal gland, not the testicles. Both the left and right renal arteries arise from the aorta at the level of L1/2. The internal iliac artery gives off branches to the perineum, but not the testicles. The internal iliac artery branches from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1. The external iliac artery gives off the inferior epigastric artery and becomes the femoral artery when it crosses deep to the inguinal ligament. The external iliac artery bifurcates from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1.

      In conclusion, understanding the arteries involved in testicular torsion is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. The testicular artery arising from the aorta at the level of L2 is the primary artery involved in this condition, and surgery within 6 hours of onset of symptoms is necessary to prevent permanent damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months,...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months, he has been passing urine more often than usual and getting up at night to urinate. Given the man’s age, you suspect he might have symptoms related to an enlarged prostate.
      Which of the following should be done first to confirm the first impression?

      Your Answer: Full urological history

      Explanation:

      Assessing Prostate Enlargement: Diagnostic Tests and Treatment Options

      To determine the presence and severity of prostate enlargement, a full urological history should be taken, with attention paid to obstructive and irritation symptoms. If enlargement is suspected, a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be done before rectal examination, as the latter can increase PSA levels. Tamsulosin may be prescribed as a first-line drug for mild cases, but a thorough history should be obtained before starting pharmacological treatment. Abdominal examination is not typically necessary for initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man

      Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology report reveals the presence of cartilage and columnar epithelial cells. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours: Teratoma, Seminoma, Hamartoma, Epididymal Cyst, and Choriocarcinoma

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their histological features and clinical presentation. Here are five types of testicular tumours:

      Teratoma: This type of germ cell tumour can be pure or part of a mixed germ cell tumour. It is commonly seen in very young patients and presents with a painless testicular mass. Teratomas are composed of tissues arising from all three germ cell layers and can contain any type of tissue. Radical orchidectomy is the mode of treatment.

      Seminoma: Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumour that presents with a painless testicular lump. It is treated with orchidectomy and has a uniform yellow cut surface. Histologically, it is composed of a uniform population of large cells arranged in nests.

      Hamartoma: A hamartoma is a benign tumour-like proliferation composed of a mixture of cells normal for the tissue from which it arises. Within the normal testicular tissue, there is no cartilage.

      Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is a fluid-filled sac arising usually superoposterior to the testis. It transilluminates on examination and is lined by a single layer of cuboidal to columnar epithelium, with or without Ciliary.

      Choriocarcinoma: Choriocarcinomas are malignant germ cell tumours composed of syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, and intermediate trophoblast cells. They are rare and associated with raised serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin levels. These tumours are usually haemorrhagic masses and often have metastasis at presentation.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their clinical presentation is crucial for their early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has had an indwelling catheter for several days. In the last 24 hours, he has been noted to have some ‘dizzy spells’ by nurses where he becomes confused and agitated. He has been seen talking to himself, mumbling incoherent ideas, and at other times he seems distracted and disorientated, forgetting where he is. He has a new fever and is tachycardic. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. You suspect he is suffering from delirium.
      Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukocytes and nitrites on mid-stream urine sample dipstick

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delirium: Causes and Symptoms

      Delirium is a state of confusion that can be caused by various factors, including acute illnesses, infections, drug adverse reactions, and toxicity. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of fever and an indwelling catheter increase the likelihood of a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of delirium. Other causes of delirium include drug-related issues, alcohol withdrawal, metabolic imbalances, and head injury or trauma.

      Symptoms of delirium include leukocytes and nitrites on a mid-stream urine sample dipstick, which suggest a UTI. However, a frozen or ‘mask-like’ face is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, not delirium. Structural changes in the brain are usually associated with dementia, while a progressive decline in cognitive function may indicate a space-occupying lesion or bleed (extradural haematoma).

      It is important to note that cognitive changes caused by delirium are often reversible by finding and treating the underlying cause. In contrast, irreversible cognitive changes are commonly seen in dementia. Understanding the causes and symptoms of delirium can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and treatment for patients experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semen analysis

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing

      When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.

      If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urology (2/6) 33%
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