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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with haematemesis. Urgent blood tests are taken and blood products ordered from the laboratory.

      A full blood count shows:

      Hb 76 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 26 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 21.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Which blood product carries the highest risk for this immunocompromised patient?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Platelet transfusions have the highest risk of bacterial contamination due to their short shelf life and refrigeration. This patient requires both red blood cells and platelets, but caution should be taken with platelet transfusions due to the risk of contamination. Cryoprecipitate and plasma have lower contamination risks and can be stored for longer periods. Packed red cells can also be used and have a longer shelf life.

      Platelet Transfusion Guidelines for Active Bleeding and Pre-Invasive Procedures

      Platelet transfusions are recommended for patients with thrombocytopenia and clinically significant bleeding, such as haematemesis, melaena, or prolonged epistaxis, with a platelet count of less than 30 x 10 9. For severe bleeding or bleeding at critical sites, such as the CNS, platelet thresholds for transfusion are higher, with a maximum of less than 100 x 10 9. However, it should be noted that platelet transfusions have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products.

      For pre-invasive procedures, platelet transfusions are recommended to maintain platelet levels of greater than 50 x 10 9/L for most patients, 50-75 x 10 9/L for those at high risk of bleeding, and greater than 100 x 10 9/L for surgeries at critical sites. However, if there is no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure, a threshold of 10 x 10 9/L is recommended, unless platelet transfusion is contraindicated or there are alternative treatments available for the patient’s condition.

      It is important to note that platelet transfusions should not be performed for chronic bone marrow failure, autoimmune thrombocytopenia, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. These guidelines aim to provide appropriate and safe platelet transfusion practices for patients with thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      29.1
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood tests which were taken for tri-monthly monitoring of her methotrexate. She has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and takes methotrexate, folic acid and co-codamol.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–165 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 228 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 5.4 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 85–105 fl
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) 29 pg 27–32 pg
      Sodium 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–7.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 68 µmol/l 53–100 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s anaemia?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Normocytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      The patient in question has been diagnosed with normocytic anaemia, which is characterized by normal MCV and MCH results. There are several potential causes of this type of anaemia, including renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, and mixed iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. However, given that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and normal renal function, the most likely cause of her anaemia is a chronic disease. This is thought to be the result of chronic inflammation associated with diseases such as RA.

      One potential complication of RA is Felty syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of conditions: RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. However, this patient has a normal WCC and neutrophil count, which rules out this diagnosis.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause anaemia, but it typically results in macrocytic anaemia characterized by a raised MCV. In contrast, this patient has a normal MCV. Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically treated with oral supplements, unless intrinsic antibodies are present, in which case intramuscular B12 is needed.

      Folate deficiency can also drive macrocytic anaemia, but this patient demonstrates normocytic anaemia. Methotrexate, which is commonly used to treat RA, is a folate antagonist, which is why the patient is also taking folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of developing folate deficiency.

      Iron deficiency is another potential cause of anaemia, but it typically results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterized by low MCV and MCH. In contrast, this patient has normal MCV and MCH results. A combination of iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies may result in normocytic anaemia, as can acute blood loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
      Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Splenectomy

      Correct Answer: Phlebotomy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.

      Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.

      The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.

      The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old man visits his doctor for a routine follow-up blood test that...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man visits his doctor for a routine follow-up blood test that reveals elevated levels of a tumour marker in his blood. Which of the following is most commonly linked to increased levels of serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers for Common Cancers

      Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They are used to help diagnose and monitor the progression of cancer. Here are the most common tumour markers associated with some of the most prevalent cancers:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the most likely tumour marker associated with this type of liver cancer, which often develops in people with chronic liver diseases.

      Breast cancer: Cancer antigen 15-3 (CA 15-3) is the most likely tumour marker associated with breast cancer, which affects both men and women.

      Colorectal cancer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, which can develop from polyps in the colon or rectum.

      Pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9 is the most likely tumour marker associated with pancreatic cancer, which is often difficult to detect in its early stages.

      Prostate cancer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with prostate cancer, which is the most common cancer in men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with colon cancer through the national bowel cancer screening programme. He was adopted as a child and has no knowledge of his biological family's medical history.
      What is the most suitable genetic disorder to test for in this individual?

      Your Answer: Lynch syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lynch syndrome is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer by over 80%. It also raises the risk of other cancers such as endometrial, stomach, breast, ovarian, small bowel, pancreatic, prostate, urinary tract, kidney, and liver cancer. Genetic testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with colorectal cancer, regardless of age.

      Breast cancer (BRCA) mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and significantly increase the risk of developing breast, ovarian, prostate, and pancreatic cancer. These cancers tend to occur at a younger age than in the general population. While there is a possible link to colorectal pathology, other genetic syndromes should be considered first when looking for a genetic cause of cancer.

      Cowden syndrome is a rare genetic condition characterized by benign growths called hamartomas on various parts of the body. It increases the risk of developing breast, thyroid, or endometrial cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis is an autosomal dominant condition that causes widespread colorectal adenomas, with polyps usually developing in late childhood. This greatly increases the risk of colorectal cancer, and prophylactic colectomy is often performed. Screening is recommended for those with an affected first-degree relative or multiple polyps detected on colonoscopy.

      Von Hippel-Landau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes multiple benign tumors and cysts in various parts of the body, including the brain, spinal cord, eyes, adrenals, kidneys, and pancreas. It increases the risk of renal and pancreatic cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of headache, fatigue and weakness. Recently, she had a prolonged menstrual bleeding that only stopped after the application of compression for a long time. She also suffered from a urinary tract infection the previous month. She has no family history of a bleeding disorder.
      On examination, she has pallor, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Investigations reveal that she has a low haemoglobin level, a low white blood cell count and a low platelet count; numerous blast cells are visible on peripheral blood film. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 30% of blast cells. The blood film is shown below.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several types of leukaemia, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), and hairy cell leukaemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature myeloid cells called blasts, which can cause anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding problems, and an increased risk of infections. ALL is caused by a clonal proliferation of lymphoid precursors, which can lead to pancytopenia and symptoms such as fever and abdominal pain. CLL is the most common type of leukaemia and is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal B lymphocytes. CML is the rarest form of leukaemia and is caused by a chromosomal translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22. Hairy cell leukaemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal white cells with hair-like cytoplasmic projections. Treatment for leukaemia typically involves chemotherapy and sometimes a bone marrow transplant, depending on the type of disease present. Prognosis varies depending on the type of leukaemia and the age of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed with sickle cell disease following his routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed with sickle cell disease following his routine heel-prick screening test. His mother contacts the General Practitioner to discuss the implications of this diagnosis and would like more information about treatment.
      Which of the following is the best choice of management?

      Your Answer: Lifelong B12 supplementation

      Correct Answer: Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of Sickle Cell Disease: Antibiotic Prophylaxis, B12 and Iron Supplementation, and Malaria Prophylaxis

      Sickle cell disease is a condition that increases the risk of infections, particularly pneumococcal infections, respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and osteomyelitis. To prevent severe infections or sepsis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V or amoxicillin for people with sickle cell disease, starting ideally at three months of age. Pneumococcal vaccination every five years is also crucial. Co-amoxiclav is not the antibiotic of choice for prophylaxis. B12 supplementation is indicated only if a person with sickle cell disease has B12 deficiency. Folate supplementation is recommended for all people with sickle cell anaemia due to high folate turnover associated with haemolysis. Lifelong iron supplementation is not recommended unless there is proven iron deficiency that would require 3-month supplements rather than lifelong treatment. Finally, sickle cell disease does not protect against malaria, and people with sickle cell disease planning to travel to an area where malaria is endemic should take the standard recommended malaria prophylaxis for that area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      41.3
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents to his General Practitioner with shortness of breath and facial flushing.
      On examination, you notice some facial swelling. You suspect a bronchial neoplasm with potential superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) as a consequence of this.
      Which of the following signs is most likely to be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Finger clubbing

      Correct Answer: Venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall

      Explanation:

      Clinical Signs and Symptoms of Bronchial Neoplasm and SVCO

      Bronchial neoplasm is highly likely in a patient presenting with venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall. The presence of facial swelling should alert healthcare professionals to the possibility of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO), which can cause dilated subcutaneous veins, tissue edema, and shortness of breath. An SVCO is an oncological emergency that requires prompt treatment with steroids and diuretics. Lung carcinoma is the most common cause of SVCO, but it can also be caused by lymphomas and other types of cancer.

      Other clinical signs and symptoms that may indicate lung cancer include expiratory wheeze, supraclavicular or cervical lymphadenopathy, finger clubbing, and cranial nerve palsy. However, these signs and symptoms are non-specific and may also be present in other chronic diseases. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. Her symptoms have developed rapidly over the past two weeks. A blood test and bone marrow biopsy reveal a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

      Acute leukaemia, specifically acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), is characterized by an increase in undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment approach for AML involves three components: induction, consolidation, and maintenance chemotherapy. Combination chemotherapy is used to eradicate blast cells, with maintenance chemotherapy given to eliminate any remaining disease.

      Iron transfusions may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency, but they are not a direct treatment for acute leukaemia. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are given irradiated blood components.

      Intravenous immunoglobulins are not a treatment for acute leukaemia but may be used to prevent infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia resulting from cancer treatment.

      Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat disease that has spread to the brain or spinal cord. Total body radiotherapy can also be used before a stem-cell transplant to reduce the risk of transplant rejection.

      Stem-cell transplants can be allogeneic (from a matched or partially matched donor) or autologous (from the patient’s own stem cells) and are used after remission induction with chemotherapy. The goal is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells and can be curative, but it is not a first-line treatment.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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