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  • Question 1 - A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the following options would be atypical for such a person?

      Your Answer: Excessive care in physical appearance

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Signs of Drug Abuse

      Drug abuse can manifest in various behavioural signs that can be observed by those around the individual. One common sign is a drop in attendance and performance at work or school. The individual may also engage in secretive or suspicious behaviours, such as hiding their drug use or lying about their whereabouts. They may frequently get into trouble, such as fights, accidents, or illegal activities.

      Another sign of drug abuse is a sudden change in friends, favourite haunts, and hobbies. The individual may distance themselves from their usual social circle and become involved with a new group of people who are also using drugs. Additionally, they may have an unexplained need for money and resort to borrowing or stealing to acquire it.

      Deterioration in physical appearance and personal grooming habits is also a common sign of drug abuse. The individual may neglect their hygiene and appearance, or they may take excessive care of their appearance if they have a partner who is unaware of their drug use.

      Recognizing these signs of drug abuse can help individuals intervene and seek help for themselves or their loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

    He...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

      He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:

      Aspirin 75 mg daily

      Ramipril 10 mg daily

      Bisoprolol 10 mg daily

      Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and

      Tadalafil 5 mg daily.

      He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.

      Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates

      Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.

      For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      578.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having glaucoma due to...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having glaucoma due to a family history of the condition. What fundoscopy finding would indicate primary open angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer: Wide cupping of the optic disc

      Explanation:

      Optic Disc Examination and Common Findings

      Optic disc examination is a crucial assessment for patients with primary open-angle glaucoma as it directly indicates disease progression. The optic disc is evaluated by observing the vertical ratio of the pale center (cup) to the overall size of the disc. The pink rim of the disc contains nerve fibers, while the white cup is a pit without nerve fibers. A normal ratio is 0.3 or less, with a small cup and a thick pink neuroretinal rim. However, some people may have a cup-to-disc ratio up to 0.6, but anything beyond that is pathological. As glaucoma progresses and retinal damage occurs, the cup enlarges until it occupies most of the disc area.

      Dot and blot hemorrhages are forms of intraretinal hemorrhage often noted in background (non-proliferative) diabetic retinopathy, branch retinal vein occlusion, carotid occlusive disease, and child abuse. Arteriovenous nipping is constriction of a vein at an artery-vein crossing-point and is found in hypertension. Drusen are very small yellow or white spots that appear in Bruch’s membrane and are associated with age-related macular degeneration. A pale disc is characteristic of longstanding optic neuropathy, and causes include optic neuritis and ischemia.

      Understanding Optic Disc Examination and Common Findings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      123.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You write a prescription for MST for a patient with metastatic breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • You write a prescription for MST for a patient with metastatic breast cancer who is 65 years old. Later in the day, you receive a phone call from the local pharmacist. He has noticed that while you stated the total quantity to dispense in figures, you failed to write it in words. Of the following options, which one is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: You should complete a 'Yellow card'

      Correct Answer: The pharmacist may amend the prescription and add the total quantity in words

      Explanation:

      In order to dispense medication, a pharmacist must ensure that all legally required information is provided. However, for Schedule 2 and 3 drugs, a pharmacist may make amendments to the prescription if it only specifies the total quantity in words or figures, or if there are minor typographical errors. These amendments must be permanent and clearly identifiable as the work of the pharmacist.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      247.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer: Painful lymph nodes without enlargement

      Correct Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms

      Explanation:

      The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
    They have been...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
      They have been concerned as they feel her behaviour is difficult to manage. She is prone to temper tantrums and is easily irritable. More recently they have started taking her to a play group but she doesn't seem to want to play with the other children and likes to play on her own with the same toy all of the time. If they try to get her to play with a different toy or do any form of new activity she gets very upset.
      During your assessment you note that her speech and language are very limited and there seems to be noticeable developmental delay in this area for her age. You attempt to play with her but she doesn't really acknowledge you and sits playing with her favourite toy throughout the consultation.
      What is the most likely underlying disorder?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurodevelopmental Disorders

      Neurodevelopmental disorders are a group of conditions that affect a child’s development and behavior. Autism, for instance, is characterized by impaired social and behavioral skills, language delay, and resistance to change. Children with autism have restricted and repetitive interests and activities, and they may also have a mild to moderate learning disability. ADHD, on the other hand, is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsiveness, and inattention. Children with ADHD are fidgety, easily distracted, and have difficulty sustaining attention. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder are also common neurodevelopmental disorders that affect a child’s behavior and social interactions.

      Rett’s syndrome is a rare X-linked disorder that affects almost exclusively females. It is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills between six and 18 months of age. Other features such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.

      It is important to understand these neurodevelopmental disorders to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected children. Early diagnosis and intervention can greatly improve outcomes and quality of life for children with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. On auscultation, a mid-systolic murmur is heard in the aortic area that intensifies upon sudden standing. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and Q waves in the V2-V5 leads.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a leading cause of sudden death in young athletes, but many patients are asymptomatic or have mild symptoms. Dyspnea is the most common symptom, along with chest pain, palpitations, and syncope. Physical examination may reveal left ventricular hypertrophy, a loud S4, and a double or triple apical impulse. The carotid pulse may have a jerky feature due to late systolic pulsation. ECG changes often include ST-T wave abnormalities and left ventricular hypertrophy, but Q waves may also be present. It is important to distinguish hypertrophic cardiomyopathy from other cardiac conditions, such as acute myocardial infarction, aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, and young-onset hypertension. Each of these conditions has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria that can help guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      391.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization?

      Your Answer: At two months

      Correct Answer: At one year

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunisation for Infants and Pregnant Women

      Young infants are most vulnerable to serious complications from pertussis, which is why children receive multiple doses of the vaccine starting at two months of age. The vaccine is given as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine and again before starting school. However, pregnant women are now also being immunised against pertussis in the later stages of pregnancy. This is to enable them to transfer a high level of antibodies across the placenta to their unborn child, providing protection against pertussis until the first dose of immunisation. By vaccinating pregnant women, we can help protect the most vulnerable members of our population from this potentially deadly disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      3977.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Atypical antipsychotics are less effective than typical in treating negative symptoms

      Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      312.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative contraception. She recently received a diagnosis of epilepsy and has been prescribed a new medication by a neurologist. The neurologist informed her that her current method of contraception, the combined oral contraceptive pill, will be less effective with the new medication. Can you identify which medication she may have started taking?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces P450 enzymes.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      93.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that had been bothering him for three days. Upon examination, a chalazion was discovered. There was no swelling or redness around the eye. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Start the patient on ocular lubricant

      Correct Answer: Warm compress and gentle massage

      Explanation:

      Management of Chalazion

      A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, can be effectively managed with conservative treatment. The first step is to apply warm compress to the affected eye and gently massage it. This should help settle the active chalazion. Surgical drainage should only be considered if there are remnants after the active/inflamed stage that are affecting the patient. However, it is important to note that surgical drainage should not be attempted while the chalazion is still inflamed, as this can worsen the condition. Referral to an ophthalmologist is not necessary unless the chalazion is not improving or causing more complicated problems to the eye.

      It is important to note that ocular lubricants and steroids do not play a role in the management of chalazion during the acute inflamed stage. Antibiotics are also not recommended as a first-line treatment. In an examination setting, it is likely that questions on this subject will follow the latest NICE CKS guidance on the management of meibomian cyst chalazion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She was born at 39/40 without any complications and is growing along the 50th centile. The mother is concerned as the baby frequently spits up small amounts of milk after being fed, which is accompanied by crying and discomfort. However, the baby settles down after a few minutes. The baby is having wet and full nappies, and the vomit is milk-colored. The baby is formula-fed approximately 4 ounces, 7 times a day.

      What is the recommended first-line advice or treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer: Offer a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine)

      Correct Answer: Reduce his feeds to 150ml/kg per day (in total) and give them more frequently and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for formula-fed infants with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is to reduce their daily milk intake to 150ml/kg and offer more frequent, smaller feeds. This should be tried for 2 weeks, and if the baby is still experiencing discomfort, milk thickeners can be offered for 1-2 weeks. If this is not successful, a trial of alginate therapy should be attempted for 1-2 weeks. If this also fails, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor antagonist can be prescribed. Breastfed infants should first try a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      96.9
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      94.7
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision. Upon examination, the GP notes bilateral blurring of the optic discs but no other neurological signs. The patient's blood pressure is 130/74 and she has no fever. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      When presented with a young female who is obese and experiencing headaches and blurred vision, it is important to consider idiopathic intracranial hypertension as a potential diagnosis, especially if there is evidence of papilloedema but no other neurological abnormalities.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia.

      He is otherwise fit and well and takes no regular prescribed medication.

      With reference to NICE guidance, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Continued use of antacids should be discouraged

      Correct Answer: Full dose PPI for a month is an appropriate initial treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia in Patients Under 55 Years Old

      Patients under the age of 55 who do not exhibit alarm symptoms should not be referred for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Instead, raising the head of the bed may alleviate symptoms. Psychological therapies, such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), have been shown to provide short-term relief, but their routine provision by primary care teams is not currently recommended due to their costly and intensive nature. After a medication review, lifestyle advice, including promoting the continued use of antacids, should be given.

      It is unclear whether to treat first with a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for a month or test for H. pylori. However, it is reasonable to start with a full dose PPI and only test for H. pylori if symptoms persist or return. By following these management strategies, patients under 55 years old with dyspepsia can receive appropriate care and symptom relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      108.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Codeine + paracetamol

      Correct Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.

      For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.

      It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      174.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing on the right side lasting for 1-4 hours. She has experienced six such episodes over the last 10 months. Neurological examination shows evidence of right sensorineural deafness. An audiogram confirms the presence of right low-frequency sensorineural deafness. She also reports worsening tinnitus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vertigo: A Guide

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between different causes of vertigo.

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, nausea/vomiting, and deafness lasting for hours. An audiogram typically shows unilateral low-frequency sensorineural deafness. Treatment involves antiemetics, betahistine, bendroflumethiazide, and salt restriction.

      Vertebrobasilar insufficiency refers to transient ischemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar vascular territory. Attacks typically last about eight minutes and may include vertigo, nausea/vomiting, syncope, facial numbness, visual field defects, sudden hearing loss, speech disturbance, and ataxia.

      Acoustic neuroma usually presents with slowly progressive deafness and disequilibrium, but not paroxysmal vertigo. True vertigo is uncommon and usually only occurs with small tumors.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is the most common cause of vertigo and is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by head movement. It may coexist with Ménière’s disease and has a high chance of recurrence.

      Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden onset vertigo, hearing loss, and often tinnitus. Nausea and vomiting are common. It is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by it. Most cases are thought to be viral in origin and resolve within days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Cefaclor

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      199.1
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  • Question 21 - A mother brings her 10-week-old child in for review. Since birth, the child's...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-week-old child in for review. Since birth, the child's left eye has been watering. The symptoms have worsened over the past few days after the child contracted a mild viral illness. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to ophthalmology

      Correct Answer: Teach nasolacrimal duct massage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.

      Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.

      However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.

      Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      38.9
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  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?

      Your Answer: Start ramipril

      Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily

      Explanation:

      Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection

      The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions.

      What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer to the midwife

      Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is the recommended medication for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as metoclopramide should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Therefore, prescribing promethazine is the correct option for this patient who is requesting an antiemetic. Advising a trial of ginger and acupressure bands is not appropriate as there is little evidence to support their effectiveness. Additionally, advising the patient to take time off work is not necessary as she has expressed a desire to continue working.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      8915
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for...

    Incorrect

    • As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for personal administration claims?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel intra-uterine system

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol nebules

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personally Administered Items in General Medical Services

      Personally administered items are prescription items that are prescribed and administered by a member of the practice team. These items attract payment under General Medical Services Statement of Financial Entitlement 2005 section 17. Examples of personally administered items include vaccines, anaesthetics, injections, intrauterine contraceptive devices, contraceptive caps and diaphragms, diagnostic reagents, pessaries, and sutures.

      It is important to note that Nexplanon cannot be claimed as a personally administered item since it is an implant, not an injection. An FP10 prescription should be provided instead. However, Goserelin, Leuprorelin, and Triptorelin can be claimed as personally administered items, even though they are implants.

      High-volume vaccines such as influenza, typhoid, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and meningococcal are claimed on the form FP34PD. For other vaccines, an FP10 is needed. Dressings, hormonal implants, nebules, catheters, and clinical reagents cannot be claimed as personally administered items and require an FP10 prescription.

      It is important to note that items that are personally administered do not attract a prescription charge. Both dispensing and non-dispensing doctors can claim a fee from the Prescription Pricing Authority. The fee per item decreases with an increasing number of items. If a practice is claiming more than 400 items per month, it is financially beneficial to split them into batches for each doctor rather than send one batch for the whole practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      21.6
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Essential hypertension

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      136.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A study is undertaken to investigate the impact of exercise on the blood...

    Incorrect

    • A study is undertaken to investigate the impact of exercise on the blood pressure of individuals over 60 years old. A random sample of individuals is tested before the intervention, and a second random sample is tested after the intervention. The results are presented in a 2 × 2 contingency table, and the reduction in blood pressure is tested with a t-test. The result of the t-test is reported as ‘t = 2.1, P = 0.04’.
      Select from the list the meaning of ‘P = 0.04’.

      Your Answer: If the experiment were to be repeated 100 times, this result would be found at least 3 times

      Correct Answer: The probability that a difference of this magnitude would have occurred by chance is 3%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the P-Value: What it Represents in Statistical Testing

      The P-value in statistical testing represents the probability that a result of equal or greater magnitude to the actual result of the study would have occurred by chance if the intervention had no effect. It doesn’t represent the contamination rate or the reduction in contamination. In this case, a P-value of 0.03 could be interpreted as meaning that the probability that the intervention has truly reduced the contamination rate is 97%. To reject the null hypothesis, a predetermined significance level is set, usually either 0.05 (95%) or 0.01 (99%). If 0.05 was used, the null hypothesis would have been rejected, and the results are said to be statistically significant, presumably indicating a reduction in MRSA contamination rates. Overall, understanding the P-value is crucial in interpreting the results of statistical testing accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      54.8
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  • Question 27 - Samantha is a 10-year-old girl who is scheduled to receive the HPV vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 10-year-old girl who is scheduled to receive the HPV vaccine at her doctor's office. She is very anxious about getting shots and asks the nurse how many injections she will have to get.

      What is the correct response to Samantha's question?

      Your Answer: Three

      Correct Answer: Two

      Explanation:

      The NHS will provide the HPV vaccine to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school year 8 starting from September 2019. Typically, the vaccine is administered in two injections, with the second dose given 6 to 12 months after the first (during school year 8 or year 9). However, individuals who receive the vaccine after the age of 15 will require three doses, as they do not have the same response to two doses as younger individuals.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      44.9
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  • Question 28 - A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among...

    Incorrect

    • A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among the 8950 participants diagnosed with prostate cancer through histological examination, 8900 had a positive test outcome. Meanwhile, 13,750 healthy participants had a positive screening result. What is the specificity of this novel screening tool?

      Your Answer: 39.30%

      Correct Answer: 68.70%

      Explanation:

      To calculate specificity, we need to use a 2*2 table with the following values for a sample size of 11,000 participants:

      Disease Healthy
      Positive TP=8900 FP=13750
      Negative FN=50 TN=30120

      Specificity is the probability of getting a negative test result when the person is healthy/doesn’t have the screened disease. We can calculate specificity using the formula:

      Specificity = TN / (TN+FP)

      Plugging in the values from our table, we get:

      Specificity = 30120 / (30120 + 13750) =

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and stiffness throughout the day.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and codeine

      Correct Answer: Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. The following are some of the treatment options available for managing this condition:

      Oral Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
      NSAIDs are the first-line medication recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for managing ankylosing spondylitis. They help to reduce pain and stiffness in the affected joints.

      Corticosteroid Injection
      Intra-articular steroid injections can be used to treat a flare of ankylosing spondylitis that has not responded to oral NSAIDs or other oral treatments. However, repeated injections are associated with risks such as joint infection.

      Oral Corticosteroids
      Oral corticosteroids can be used to treat symptoms that are not responding to other oral treatments. However, their use is limited due to the multiple complications and side effects associated with long-term use.

      Paracetamol and Codeine
      If patients have an allergy, severe asthma, or a high risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, alternative analgesia should be considered, such as paracetamol and codeine.

      Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF)-Alpha Inhibitor
      TNF-alpha inhibitors are used to treat ankylosing spondylitis in patients whose symptoms are not controlled on other treatments. However, they must be prescribed and monitored in secondary care.

      Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      37.4
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  • Question 30 - A new treatment for juvenile arthritis has been developed and shown to be...

    Incorrect

    • A new treatment for juvenile arthritis has been developed and shown to be effective in animal models, plus its effects in small numbers of patients appears promising.
      However, there are some concerns with regard to possible hepatotoxicity but no cases have been observed in studies thus far.
      Which is the most appropriate next step in this drug's development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double blind randomised placebo controlled study

      Explanation:

      Development of a New Drug

      This new drug has successfully completed animal trials and has been tested in both human volunteers (phase 1) and patients (phase 2). The next stage in its development is a phase 3 study, which is the final stage before seeking approval from regulatory agencies. The most effective way to conduct this study would be through a randomized control study, which would provide the most reliable and unbiased results. This study design would involve randomly assigning participants to either the treatment group or a control group, allowing for a comparison of the drug’s effectiveness against a placebo or standard treatment. A successful phase 3 study would provide the necessary evidence to support the drug’s safety and efficacy, paving the way for its approval and eventual release to the market.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/3) 67%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed