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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair loss, constipation, feeling cold all the time, and absence of menstrual periods. She also had difficulty breastfeeding after giving birth. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a previous episode of hypovolaemic shock due to significant blood loss during delivery, which required a prolonged hospital stay. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan’s syndrome, also known as postpartum hypopituitarism, is characterized by a decrease in pituitary gland function caused by ischemic necrosis resulting from hypovolemic shock after childbirth. The symptoms can be diverse and may take several years to manifest due to the pituitary damage. The patient’s presentation of amenorrhea, lactation difficulties, and hypothyroidism suggests pituitary dysfunction, which can be attributed to her complicated delivery, leading to a diagnosis of Sheehan’s syndrome.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the following results were obtained:
Protein negative
Leucocytes negative
Blood negative
What is the most suitable characterization of her situation?Your Answer: Gestational hypertension
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old female is brought in under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She was discovered at home, sitting on her bedroom floor in filthy clothes and in unsanitary conditions. Her attire indicated significant weight loss and she appeared severely dehydrated. She did not cooperate with the evaluation, seeming to ignore the team.
Upon admission, her blood tests revealed hyperkalaemia and an acute kidney injury. While receiving treatment for this, she made no effort to eat or drink, remove her cannula, or leave the ward, nor did she show any signs of distress. She did not communicate with any staff, instead spending hours lying in bed staring into space.
According to her GP, she has no prior medical history and has never been prescribed psychiatric medication before. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:When a patient is suffering from life-threatening major depressive disorder and is exhibiting catatonia, ECT is recommended. In this case, the patient is experiencing severe dehydration, suicidal thoughts, and catatonia, indicating the need for urgent treatment. While the patient has not previously taken any psychiatric medication, an SSRI like citalopram, even with augmentation, would not be suitable due to the severity of the illness. ECT is the best option for achieving rapid results.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. She has a past medical history of asthma and is allergic penicillin. On examination, the visual acuity is 6/24 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis. Vital observations are as follows: Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg Heart rate 80 bpm Respiratory rate 20 per minute Oxygen saturation 97% on air Temperature 38.2 °C What is first-line management for this patient?
Your Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Orbital Cellulitis in Penicillin-Allergic Patients
When treating orbital cellulitis in a patient with a penicillin allergy, it is important to choose the right antibiotics. Cefuroxime IV alone is not enough and should be combined with metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav IV is not appropriate for penicillin-allergic patients. Tazocin® IV should also be avoided. The best option is a combination of clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary unless there are signs of an abscess. By choosing the right treatment, we can effectively manage orbital cellulitis in penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty breathing during physical activity and feeling excessively tired. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing frequent respiratory infections. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD).
What test should be arranged to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood test for alpha-1-antitrypsin levels
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD) is a genetic disorder that can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a young age, especially in non-smokers with a family history of the condition. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify AATD:
Blood Test: A simple blood test can measure the levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood. Low levels of this protein can indicate AATD, especially in patients with symptoms of COPD or a family history of the condition.
CT Chest: A computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest can reveal the extent and pattern of emphysema in the lungs, which is a common complication of AATD. However, a CT scan alone cannot diagnose AATD.
Chest X-Ray: A chest X-ray (CXR) can also show signs of emphysema or bronchiectasis in patients with AATD, but it is not a definitive test for the condition.
Genetic Testing: Once AATD has been diagnosed, genetic testing can identify the specific variant of the condition that a patient has. However, genetic testing is not useful as an initial diagnostic test without first confirming low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
Pulmonary Function Testing: This test measures lung function and can help assess the severity of lung disease in patients with AATD. However, it is not a diagnostic test for the condition.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help identify AATD in patients with symptoms of COPD, a family history of the condition, or low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following relating to St John's Wort is not true?
Your Answer: Mechanism of action is similar to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system
Explanation:The P450 system is known to be induced by St John’s Wort.
St John’s Wort: An Alternative Treatment for Mild-Moderate Depression
St John’s Wort has been found to be as effective as tricyclic antidepressants in treating mild-moderate depression. Its mechanism of action is thought to be similar to SSRIs, although it has also been shown to inhibit noradrenaline uptake. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against its use due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs.
In clinical trials, the adverse effects of St John’s Wort were similar to those of a placebo. However, it can cause serotonin syndrome and is an inducer of the P450 system, which can lead to decreased levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be reduced.
Overall, St John’s Wort may be a viable alternative treatment for those with mild-moderate depression. However, caution should be exercised due to potential interactions with other medications and the lack of standardization in dosing and preparation. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.
Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.
Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin that causes her discomfort and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be unaffected. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Submandibular Swelling
One possible diagnosis for a painful submandibular swelling is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition is more common in men over 40 and typically causes pain and swelling after eating. Adenoid cystic carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area and can invade local structures such as the facial nerve. Pleomorphic adenomas usually present as a painless lump that slowly enlarges, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands bilaterally. Warthin’s tumour, which is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland, does not typically present as a painful lump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?
Your Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries
Explanation:A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.
Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.
Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic with concerns about his recent exposure to chickenpox. He attended a family gathering where a child with chickenpox was present, but he cannot recall if he had the illness as a child. He is seeking advice on whether he needs any treatment.
What is the best course of action to take next?Your Answer: She should receive VZIG if antibody tests are negative
Explanation:Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and are immunosuppressed should be given VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. The correct course of action is to conduct antibody testing to determine if the patient is negative, and if so, administer VZIG to protect them from potentially developing a serious chickenpox infection. Although a chickenpox vaccine exists, it is not part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule and is not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals due to its live nature. IV aciclovir can be given for chickenpox infection in immunocompromised individuals, but VZIG is more appropriate as it can help prevent the infection from manifesting. Administering VZIG once the patient has already shown symptoms of chickenpox is too late, as it has no therapeutic benefit at that point. While oral aciclovir can be given prophylactically or to reduce the severity of symptoms, VZIG is more appropriate for immunosuppressed patients who are at high risk of severe chickenpox infection.
Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups
Chickenpox is usually a mild illness in children with normal immune systems, but it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.
To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, three criteria should be met. Firstly, there must be significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster. Secondly, the patient must have a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella, such as immunosuppression, neonates, or pregnancy. Finally, the patient should have no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, this should not delay post-exposure prophylaxis past seven days after initial contact.
Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). Managing chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that requires more detailed discussion, which is covered in a separate entry in the textbook.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 75 micrograms of thyroxine daily. Other than that, his medical history is unremarkable. Which nerves are likely affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the wrist within the carpal tunnel.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she experienced vision loss in her right eye. The GP suspects a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and prescribes 300mg aspirin while referring her to the TIA clinic. The diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. Which area of the brain anatomy is impacted by this type of stroke?
Your Answer: Retinal/ophthalmic artery
Explanation:It is unlikely that the patient experienced a stroke as her symptoms resolved completely after 10 minutes and there were no ongoing symptoms. Different types of strokes affect different arteries in the brain. For example, a lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would result in contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery would cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. If the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is affected, the patient may experience ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, as well as contralateral limb and torso pain and temperature loss, along with ataxia and nystagmus. A middle cerebral artery stroke would cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.
Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.
Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a 22-year-old female who is not expecting?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is the recommended treatment for chlamydia.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Correct
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you encounter a patient who is fifty-five years old and has a past medical history of prostatitis. He is interested in getting a prostate specific antigen test done due to his family's history of prostate cancer. What would be an appropriate time to conduct the test?
Your Answer: One month after his prostatitis diagnosis
Explanation:To prevent false results, it is recommended to refrain from conducting a prostate specific antigen test within a month of prostatitis. This is because prostatitis can cause an increase in PSA levels. It is important to note that a digital rectal examination cannot replace a PSA test. Additionally, if a patient is not experiencing any symptoms, conducting the test may lead to unnecessary investigations. It is also important to keep in mind that a normal PSA level does not necessarily rule out the possibility of prostate cancer.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Right carotid artery endarterectomy
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Amiodarone: A Comprehensive Overview
Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects. Here is a breakdown of some of the most important things to know:
Hyperthyroidism: Amiodarone can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism. Patients taking this medication should have their thyroid function checked regularly.
COPD: While amiodarone is not known to cause COPD, it can lead to pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis. Patients should have yearly chest x-rays.
Drug-induced diabetes mellitus: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of diabetes mellitus.
Drug-induced pemphigus: Long-term use of amiodarone can cause phototoxicity and skin discoloration. Patients should protect their skin from light during treatment. However, it is not known to cause drug-induced pemphigus.
Renal calculi: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of kidney disease, including renal calculi.
Other important side effects of amiodarone include hepatotoxicity, bradycardia, phototoxicity, and development of corneal deposits. If you are taking amiodarone, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more prominent before her period. There is no family history of breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse cystic mastopathy
Explanation:Breast Masses: Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Features
Breast masses are a common concern for women, and it is important to differentiate between benign and malignant causes. Here, we discuss the clinical features and differential diagnosis of various breast masses.
Diffuse cystic mastopathy is a benign condition that affects a significant proportion of women. It is characterized by the formation of cysts in the breast lobules due to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. The lumps are smooth, mobile, and tend to peak in size before each period. Diagnosis is primarily based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Fat necrosis is another benign condition that can occur due to direct trauma or surgery. It is characterized by the formation of firm, round, and painless masses in the breast. The skin around the lump may be red or bruised, and a biopsy may be needed to differentiate it from breast cancer.
Breast abscesses are characterized by local inflammation, pain, and fever. They may be associated with previous breast infections and may require drainage. However, there is no evidence of an infectious process in this patient.
Breast cancer is a concern in any patient with a breast mass, but early breast cancer is often asymptomatic. Physical findings that may indicate the possible presence of breast cancer include changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or changes, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lumps. However, none of these symptoms are present in this patient.
Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years of age. It is characterized by a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, and mobile mass. However, this patient reports multiple lumps, making a diagnosis of fibroadenoma less likely.
In conclusion, the cyclic nature of this patient’s breast masses makes diffuse cystic mastopathy the most likely diagnosis. However, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.
Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in the hearing from her right ear. On further questioning, she reports that occasionally she hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but denies any episodes of dizziness or vomiting. Otoscopy of her right ear only reveals a reddish tympanic membrane. Rinne’s test is negative on the right, Weber’s test lateralises to the right. Which of the following describes the best management option for this condition?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin 7-day course
Correct Answer: Hearing aid
Explanation:The best option for managing the patient’s unilateral conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and pinkish tympanic membrane is either a hearing aid or stapedectomy. The tuning fork tests indicate left-sided conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis. This condition is characterized by the replacement of normal bone with vascular spongy bone, leading to progressive conductive hearing loss due to stapes fixation at the oval window. Amoxicillin, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, ear syringing, and prochlorperazine are not effective treatments for otosclerosis. Amoxicillin is used to manage acute otitis media, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises are used to prevent acute attacks in Ménière’s disease, ear syringing is used to remove impacted ear wax, and prochlorperazine is used to decrease dizziness in viral labyrinthitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Correct
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a six hour old infant. The baby was delivered vaginally at 38 weeks with no risk factors for sepsis and no maternal concerns. The baby was born in a healthy condition, with good tone. However, you observe cyanosis in the peripheries, while the rest of the examination appears normal. Pre and post ductal oxygen saturations are at 97%. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer: Right cerebral hemisphere
Correct Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure
Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the most probable adverse effect experienced by patients who are taking gliclazide?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is the most frequent side-effect observed in patients who take sulfonylureas, although they may experience all of the aforementioned side-effects.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of green sputum. He has a history of COPD and is an active smoker. Upon examination, he is wheezy bilaterally and saturating at 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows no signs of consolidation. The following blood tests were obtained:
CRP 26 mg/L (< 5)
Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most likely causative organism for this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Haemophilus infuenzae
Explanation:Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequent organism responsible for causing infective exacerbations of COPD, as evidenced by this man’s productive cough, increased shortness of breath, and wheezing.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Coxsackie virus infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Correct
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A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness in his fingers and soles of his feet. He was diagnosed with epilepsy in his early twenties and has been managing his seizures effectively. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is recognized to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.
Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with unexplained weight loss and episodes of passing blood in his stool for the past 3 months. Upon investigation, a CT scan reveals a T2N0M0 tumour just below the rectosigmoid junction. The patient has no significant medical history and is considered fit for surgery. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Anterior resection
Explanation:Anterior resection is the most suitable surgical option for rectal tumors, except for those located in the lower rectum. When determining the appropriate surgery for colorectal cancer, it is crucial to consider the location of the tumor, its grade, and the feasibility of the operation. In the case of a tumor located just below the rectosigmoid junction, an anterior resection or abdominoperineal excision of the rectum are the two possible options. However, since the tumor is not invading the pelvic floor, anal canal, or anal sphincter, an anterior resection is the more appropriate choice. This procedure involves resection followed by anastomosis, with the creation of a temporary defunctioning ileostomy that can later be reversed to allow the bowel to heal. Abdominoperineal excision of the rectum is not suitable in this case, as it would require a lifelong stoma. Hartmann’s procedure is also not appropriate, as it is typically performed in emergency situations such as bowel perforation or obstruction. Similarly, left hemicolectomy is not suitable for this tumor, as it is located in the upper rectum.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides
Explanation:Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.
Understanding Mycosis Fungoides
Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a two week history of diarrhoea. He reports that his bowel movements have not been normal for the past few months and he frequently experiences urgency to use the toilet. However, these symptoms had been improving until two weeks ago. He has also noticed blood in his stool for the past week and feels like he hasn't fully emptied his bowels after going. Despite these symptoms, he has not experienced any weight loss and has a good appetite. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen but no guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum, which then spreads continuously but never beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are usually insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain, particularly in the left lower quadrant. In addition, patients may experience extra-intestinal features such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To diagnose ulcerative colitis, a colonoscopy with biopsy is generally done, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings of ulcerative colitis include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa that has the appearance of polyps, inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria, neutrophils migrating through the walls of glands to form crypt abscesses, depletion of goblet cells and mucin from gland epithelium, and infrequent granulomas.
A barium enema may also be used to diagnose ulcerative colitis, which shows a loss of haustrations, superficial ulceration, and pseudopolyps. Long-standing disease may cause the colon to become narrow and short, leading to a drainpipe colon appearance. It is important to note that while some features are present in both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, some are much more common in one of the conditions, such as colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic methods for ulcerative colitis can help with early detection and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.
The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.
Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Understanding Cocaine Toxicity
Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.
Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.
Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.
In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 16 weeks' pregnant complains of frequent urination. Urinalysis confirms the presence of nitrites and leukocytes.
What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Management of Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: Antibiotic Options and Guidelines
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common during pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. The current UK antimicrobial guidelines recommend nitrofurantoin as the first-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy, with amoxicillin as an alternative if the microorganism is susceptible to it. Trimethoprim should be avoided due to its teratogenicity risk, while ciprofloxacin is only used for specific cases. Vancomycin is reserved for severe cases of Clostridium difficile infection. Symptomatic relief with paracetamol can also be offered. Urine cultures should be sent before starting empirical antibiotic treatment and as a test of cure after treatment completion. Follow-up is necessary to check treatment response and culture results. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the antibiotic options and guidelines for managing UTIs in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval
The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.
Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.
Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.
β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.
In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is prescribed mirtazapine 15mg ON for the treatment of moderate depression, based on her previous positive response to this medication. She has no significant medical history. However, after 4 weeks of taking mirtazapine, she reports experiencing sedation as a side effect and has not achieved the desired therapeutic response. What is the best course of action to manage this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose of mirtazapine to 30mg ON
Explanation:Mirtazapine is more likely to cause sedation at lower doses (e.g. 15mg) than at higher doses (e.g. 45mg).
The appropriate course of action is to increase the mirtazapine dose to 30mg at night. If there has been no improvement in symptoms after four weeks, it is reasonable to increase the dose to the usual minimum effective dose. It is important to note that sedation typically decreases with higher doses of mirtazapine due to increased noradrenergic activity.
If the patient does not respond to or cannot tolerate an increase in mirtazapine, switching to an alternative medication such as fluoxetine or venlafaxine may be considered. However, it is advisable to try the usual minimum effective dose of mirtazapine before deciding to switch medications.
Amitriptyline and other TCAs are no longer commonly used in the treatment of depression due to the risk of overdose.
In cases of severe depression, depression that does not respond to primary care management, or suspected bipolar disorder, it is recommended to seek a secondary care opinion.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) comes in with photophobia and a painful red eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions Associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the sacroiliac joints and axial skeleton. However, it can also lead to various eye conditions. Uveitis, also known as iritis or iridocyclitis, is the most common extra-articular manifestation of AS, occurring in 20-30% of patients. Acute anterior uveitis is often unilateral and presents with symptoms such as a painful red eye, photophobia, and blurred vision. Patients with uveitis may also have or develop other spondyloarthropathies, including reactive arthritis, undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy, and psoriatic arthritis.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, is not associated with AS. It is a medical emergency that needs immediate treatment to prevent vision loss. Conjunctivitis, which is responsible for approximately 30% of all eye complaints, is usually benign and self-limited. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus and keratoconus are also not associated with AS.
It is important for patients with AS to be aware of these potential eye conditions and seek urgent ophthalmological assessment if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent vision loss and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia two years ago and has recently moved in with her daughter for care. Lately, she has become increasingly isolated and has reported seeing animals in the house that are not actually there. She denies any other symptoms. All vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.
What is the probable cause of her current symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Cognitively impaired patients can experience delirium when placed in new surroundings. Even minor changes in environment can trigger delirium in individuals with dementia, leading to visual hallucinations. While community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common causes of delirium in the elderly, they seem unlikely in this case as there are no other clues in the history or examination. Depression is a common differential for dementia in the elderly, but the acute onset of symptoms in this woman suggests delirium. It is important to note that symptoms of depression in the elderly can be non-specific. While psychosis could explain the visual hallucinations, the absence of other symptoms and the acute onset of the condition suggest delirium.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxorubicin
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a headache and thick nasal discharge that has persisted for six days. He reports the headache as a frontal pressure pain that worsens when he bends forward. He denies experiencing cough or general malaise. His vital signs are heart rate 62/min, respiratory rate 13/min, blood pressure 127/63 mmHg, and temperature 36.2 ºC. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with his salbutamol inhaler. What is the appropriate management plan for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Analgesia and abundant fluids
Explanation:For uncomplicated acute sinusitis, antibiotics are not necessary. Instead, the recommended treatment is pain relief and staying hydrated. The patient in this scenario has typical symptoms of acute sinusitis, such as facial pain, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing. Antibiotics are only prescribed in severe cases or when the patient is at high risk of complications. Co-amoxiclav is an example of an antibiotic that may be used in these situations. Intranasal corticosteroids may be prescribed if the condition lasts longer than ten days. Intranasal decongestants and oral corticosteroids are not effective treatments for acute sinusitis and should not be used.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left eye, along with redness and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, her intraocular pressure was found to be elevated at 30 mmHg, and her pupil was mid-dilated. After diagnosing her with acute angle closure glaucoma, you promptly administered IV acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy in both eyes
Explanation:The definitive treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates an additional pathway in the iris for aqueous to flow from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and be drained into the angle. While topical beta blockers, alpha agonists, prostaglandin analogues, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can all help control intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients, they are not considered definitive treatments for AACG.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis of essential hypertension. He is accompanied by his caregiver and expresses his fear of needles, requesting medication that does not require regular blood tests. Which of the following medications would be appropriate for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Regular monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is necessary for both Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and Candesartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via caesarean section. The mother had an elective caesarean section at 38-weeks due to an active herpes infection. During examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. What would be your management plan for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation and supportive care
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn can be identified through a chest x-ray which may reveal hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. The appropriate management for this condition is observation and supportive care, including the administration of supplemental oxygen if necessary. Symptoms typically resolve on their own within a few days. The use of IV ceftriaxone, IV steroids, or urgent blood transfusion is not indicated in this case and therefore, incorrect.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient complains of a painful bump on their eyelid. The lump has been there for about four days and is gradually getting bigger.
During the examination, a tender, smooth lump is observed, measuring roughly 2 mm in size, emerging from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. The eye is not inflamed, and there is no periorbital or orbital redness, and the patient's visual acuity is normal.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia
Explanation:Management of Stye or Hordeolum
A stye or hordeolum is an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid caused by inflammation in an eyelash follicle. It usually presents unilaterally and can take a few days to develop. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can cause watery eyes. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. However, if symptoms do not improve, referral to Eye Casualty for incision and drainage may be necessary. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis, and systemic antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Therefore, simple analgesia and warm compresses are the recommended management for a stye or hordeolum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions
Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.
The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.
Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.
While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.
The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.
Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.
In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history of hypertension, Raynaud's phenomenon, and has smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old. She describes the pain as 'different from her usual Raynaud's,' there has been no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 158/80 mmHg, her right hand is blanched white and feels cold, and the colour of her forearm is normal. The radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:If a patient with extremity ischaemia is diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon, Buerger’s disease should be considered as a possible underlying condition. Buerger’s disease is a condition where the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet become inflamed and thrombosed, leading to acute or chronic progressive ischaemic changes and potentially gangrene. It is strongly associated with smoking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint pain and swelling, typically in the wrist, knee, hip, or thumb base, and is more common with age. Radial artery dissection is unlikely in the given scenario as there is no history of traumatic injury. Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterised by transient vasospasm of the digits triggered by cold, is usually treated conservatively with warmth and sometimes calcium channel blockers in severe cases. It is mostly idiopathic but can be associated with underlying connective tissue disease.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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