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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the standard infection screening?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that HIV testing be included as a standard part of antenatal screening.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman receives a letter in the post inviting her to her first...

    Incorrect

    • A woman receives a letter in the post inviting her to her first NHS cervical screening appointment.
      Which of the following best describes the timing and frequency of the UK cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: 25–64 years of age (five yearly)

      Correct Answer: 50–70 years of age (three yearly)

      Explanation:

      Breast and Bowel Cancer Screening Schedules in the UK

      Breast cancer screening is available to women aged 50-70, with some areas extending the program to women aged 47-73. High-risk populations may be invited for screening before the age of 50. Screening is performed every three years.

      For women aged 25-64, screening is conducted every five years. Women aged 45-75 are also invited for screening every three years between the ages of 50 and 70.

      Bowel cancer screening is scheduled every two years for individuals aged 60-74. It is important to note that breast screening for women aged 50-70 is conducted every three years, not every five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      Inguinal Hernias

      An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.

      There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.

      In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake for 4 days and is convinced that she will become the next big pop star by recording 3 albums simultaneously. When asked about her emotions, she immediately talks about her music projects, providing intricate details about each album, her plans for distribution, and her future as a famous musician. She then mentions that her mood has been fantastic because of these topics. When the conversation shifts, she continues to respond in a similar fashion. What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is the appropriate term to describe this patient’s response. They provide excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually answering the question about their mood. Flight of ideas, Knight’s move, and perseveration are not applicable in this case as the patient eventually returns to the original topic and follows along with subsequent topic changes.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and one episode of dark rectal bleeding. He is noticed to be in fast atrial fibrillation. He is an ex-smoker and drinks three pints of beer per week. On examination, he is not peritonitic, but his pain is generalised and only temporarily alleviated by opioid analgesia. His bloods show: white blood count 14 (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/l), c-reactive protein 23 (normal: Less than 10 mg/L) and arterial lactate 4.8 (normal 1 ± 0.5 mmol/l4). Abdominal and chest X-rays are unremarkable.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Bowel ischaemia

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with consistent abdominal pain, bowel ischaemia should be considered as a possible cause. This is especially true for elderly patients who experience crampy abdominal pain followed by dark rectal bleeding. Bowel ischaemia occurs when the bowel mucosa becomes necrotic due to a lack of blood flow. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of mesenteric artery embolisation, which can lead to bowel ischaemia. A raised lactate level is also indicative of bowel ischaemia. Haemorrhoids, on the other hand, would not cause an acute abdomen and typically present as bright red blood on wiping stool. Ulcerative colitis is more common in younger patients and is characterised by episodes of bloody diarrhoea. It is not associated with smoking and acute exacerbations are characterised by many episodes of diarrhoea, some of which may be bloody, and fever. Bowel volvulus, which is twisting of the bowel leading to obstruction, would cause abdominal distension, pain, constipation, and bloody stool. However, this patient’s normal appearance on plain film X-rays makes bowel obstruction or volvulus unlikely. Diverticulitis, which is inflammation of outpouchings of the large bowel, usually presents with gradual onset of left iliac fossa pain, loose stools, and fever. It is associated with more episodes of loose stools and fever and can progress to shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      82.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
      Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?

      Your Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment

      Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      105.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mother attends her general practice surgery with her 14-year-old daughter. She is...

    Correct

    • A mother attends her general practice surgery with her 14-year-old daughter. She is concerned, as her daughter is yet to start menstruating and has not shown any signs of starting puberty. The mother says that her first period was around the age of 17. On examination, the general practitioner notes a lack of physical manifestations of puberty. She is not underweight.
      What is the most likely cause of delayed puberty in this case?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay

      Explanation:

      The most common reason for delayed puberty in women is constitutional delay, which is a normal variation where puberty starts later than usual. This may be due to a family history of late menarche. However, it is important to refer the patient to a specialist for further investigation. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism is another cause, which is a result of a deficiency in gonadotrophin-releasing hormone secretion. This can be managed by restoring weight in cases such as athletes, dancers, or anorexia sufferers. Primary gonadal failure is rare and may occur in isolation or as part of chromosomal anomalies. Hormone replacement therapy is the treatment for this condition. Hyperprolactinaemia is a rare cause of primary amenorrhoea, which is caused by high levels of prolactin from a tumour. However, it is unlikely to affect normal development. Hypothyroidism can also cause amenorrhoea, but it is usually accompanied by other symptoms such as cold intolerance, mood changes, and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating....

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ca-125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests

      Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.

      While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.

      It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left hand for several months, particularly when exposed to cold weather. She describes the pain as spasming and accompanied by numbness and a change in color in her hand. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, and there are no visible signs or symptoms. However, a non-specific rash resembling eczema is present in the flexure creases. Blood tests are conducted, and the patient is referred for further specialized testing. What factors would suggest a primary disease rather than a secondary one?

      Your Answer: Rashes

      Correct Answer: Onset under 40 years

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease, specifically primary Raynaud’s, is likely in a young woman experiencing bilateral symptoms. The spasming of hand vessels causing color changes, especially in cold weather, strongly suggests Raynaud’s. Onset under 40 years of age is a key feature of primary Raynaud’s, while onset over 40 years points more towards secondary Raynaud’s, which may be associated with a connective tissue disorder. Specialist testing, such as nail fold capillary microscopy, may be performed to rule out secondary Raynaud’s. Autoantibodies would indicate the possibility of a systemic disorder causing secondary Raynaud’s. The presence of a non-specific rash may also suggest secondary Raynaud’s, as many systemic conditions associated with Raynaud’s are also linked to rashes.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      237.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man complains of dysuria and haematuria. He has no significant medical...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of dysuria and haematuria. He has no significant medical history, but reports working in a rubber manufacturing plant for 40 years where health and safety regulations were not always strictly enforced. A cystoscopy reveals a high-grade papillary carcinoma, specifically a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What occupational exposure is a known risk factor for this type of bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.

      On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.

      In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one week after returning from a trip to Puerto Rico. He reports that his fever began five days ago and was followed by the appearance of a rash. Additionally, he has noticed bleeding gums while brushing his teeth and has experienced two nosebleeds since returning from his vacation. During the examination, you observe multiple mosquito bites on his legs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malaria

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical countries, with an estimated 100 million people being infected annually. The symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and mild bleeding. However, it cannot be spread from person to person.

      The high-risk areas for dengue fever include the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central and South America. Diagnosis is made through a blood test to identify the virus, and treatment is supportive with symptom control. Unfortunately, there are currently no vaccines available to prevent dengue fever.

      The best way to prevent infection is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be done by wearing protective clothing, using mosquito repellent, and staying in air-conditioned or screened areas. the symptoms and risk factors of dengue fever can help individuals take necessary precautions to protect themselves from this potentially serious illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. The patient has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica, ischaemic heart disease, and dyspepsia. Their current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, simvastatin, aspirin, omeprazole, and prednisolone. A bone profile is ordered as part of the diagnostic workup.
      What would be the probable findings for this patient?

      Your Answer: PTH - normal, calcium - normal, phosphate - normal

      Explanation:

      Normal blood test values, including ALP, calcium, phosphate, and PTH, are commonly observed in patients with osteoporosis. However, in cases where osteoporosis is caused by chronic use of systemic steroids, the bone profile results may still appear normal. Other conditions, such as primary hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, CKD, and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, may present with abnormal blood test values, including high PTH, low calcium, and/or low phosphate.

      Understanding Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the skeletal system, causing a loss of bone mass. As people age, their bone mineral density decreases, but osteoporosis is defined by the World Health Organisation as having a bone mineral density of less than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean density. This condition is significant because it increases the risk of fragility fractures, which can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. In fact, around 50% of postmenopausal women will experience an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

      The primary risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender, but other factors include corticosteroid use, smoking, alcohol consumption, low body mass index, and family history. To assess a patient’s risk of developing a fragility fracture, healthcare providers may use screening tools such as FRAX or QFracture. Additionally, patients who have sustained a fragility fracture should be evaluated for osteoporosis.

      To determine a patient’s bone mineral density, a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used to examine the hip and lumbar spine. If either of these areas has a T score of less than -2.5, treatment is recommended. The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is typically an oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate, although other treatments are available. Overall, osteoporosis is a significant condition that requires careful evaluation and management to prevent fragility fractures and their associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      102.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the clinic seeking contraception and expresses interest in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the clinic seeking contraception and expresses interest in trying the levonorgestrel intrauterine system. What can be said about its profile?

      Your Answer: It has a failure rate of 1%

      Correct Answer: It decreases the volume of bleeding by approximately 90% in women with menorrhagia

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel IUS for Menorrhagia

      The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), commonly known as Mirena, is an effective treatment for menorrhagia, a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. It reduces the volume of bleeding by approximately 90% and also decreases the number of bleeding days during a menstrual cycle.

      Compared to other contraceptive methods, the levonorgestrel IUS has a very low failure rate of less than 1% (around 0.2%). Additionally, a 10-year follow-up cohort study has shown that it does not cause a loss of bone mineral density. However, some side effects such as weight gain, increased risk of vulvovaginitis, and decreased libido may occur, which are consistent with other progesterone-only contraceptive methods.

      The levonorgestrel IUS can be safely inserted immediately after delivery. It is a convenient and effective option for women with menorrhagia who want to avoid surgery or hormonal treatments that may have more significant side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of sudden pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of sudden pain and curvature in his penis, along with loss of erection. He reports that the incident occurred during sexual intercourse when his penis bent in an abnormal direction, causing a loud popping sensation and acute pain. Upon examination, the penis appears flaccid and significantly swollen with visible bruising. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Tear of both corpora cavernosa

      Correct Answer: Tear of one corpus cavernosum

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Physiology of the Penis

      The penis is composed of three cylindrical structures: two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum. These structures are surrounded by the tunica albuginea and Buck’s fascia. During an erection, the sinusoids within the corpora cavernosa fill with arterial blood, causing the penis to enlarge longitudinally and transversely. The internal pudendal arteries provide the blood supply to the penis and the urethra, with the cavernosal artery supplying the corpus cavernosum.

      In the flaccid state, the penis is mobile and flexible, making injury rare. However, sudden direct trauma or abnormal bending of the penis during an erection can cause a transverse tear of the tunica albuginea, resulting in injury to the underlying corpus cavernosum. This injury typically affects one corpus cavernosum, but both can be involved, leading to penile laceration and urethral injury.

      As the penis transitions from a flaccid state to an erect state, the tunica albuginea thins, stiffens, and loses elasticity. This expansion and stiffness impede venous return, maintaining tumescence during male erection. the anatomy and physiology of the penis is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and disorders of the male reproductive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - On a set of MRI scans being examined for a 21-year-old woman suspected...

    Incorrect

    • On a set of MRI scans being examined for a 21-year-old woman suspected of having Cushing syndrome due to weight gain and excess facial hair, which structure would be found posterior to the left suprarenal (adrenal) gland?

      Your Answer: Psoas major muscle

      Correct Answer: Crus of diaphragm

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Posterior Abdominal Wall

      The posterior abdominal wall is a complex structure consisting of various muscles, fascia, and organs. Here are some key components:

      Crus of Diaphragm: The left suprarenal (adrenal) gland is located in the posterior abdomen and is enclosed by the perirenal fascia, which attaches it to the left crus of the diaphragm. The left crus is a tendinous structure arising from the anterior bodies of the L1 and L2 vertebrae.

      Psoas Major Muscle: This muscle is responsible for the lateral flexion of the lumbar spine and assists in the stabilization and flexion of the hip. It is found in the posterior abdomen, bound by fascia.

      Quadratus Lumborum Muscle: This quadrilateral muscle is associated with the lateral flexion and extension of the vertebral column. It is located posteriorly to the colon, kidney, psoas muscle, and diaphragm.

      Transversus Abdominis Muscle: This is the innermost muscle forming the anterior abdominal muscles, lying posterior to the internal oblique and anterior to the transversalis fascia.

      Thoracolumbar Fascia: This diamond-shaped fascia encloses the intrinsic muscles of the back and is affected in piriformis syndrome and sacro-iliac joint pains. It is not anatomically associated with the adrenal glands.

      Understanding the Posterior Abdominal Wall Anatomy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy and primary anastomosis for a Duke's B adenocarcinoma of the colon. You are asked to see her three days postoperatively due to a heart rate of 105 bpm and a blood pressure of 96/74 mmHg.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.2ºC, her respiratory rate is 20 per minute and her saturations are 99% on air. She has a distended abdomen which is tense and tender but without guarding, her chest is clear and her operative wounds look clean and healthy. She is not feeling nauseated and she has not opened her bowels since before her operation or passed wind but she is starting to sip clear fluids. Her fluid balance chart shows a net positive fluid balance since surgery. Prior to surgery, she had normal renal function and a blood test now shows the following:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.2 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l
      CRP 145.2 mg/l

      What is the most likely cause for the abnormalities in this lady's observations?

      Your Answer: Septic shock

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Ileus is a common complication that can occur in the days following surgery and may lead to hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances before the onset of nausea and vomiting.

      As a junior in general surgery, it is important to be able to identify the cause of a patient’s deterioration. In this case, the patient’s observations and blood tests suggest hypovolemia and acute kidney injury with low electrolytes, indicating a loss of salt and water. However, the overall fluid balance is positive, suggesting that the fluid and salt are accumulating in a third space or body compartment. Ileus is a likely culprit, as it can cause fluid buildup in the intestinal lumen due to decreased peristalsis, resulting in an overall loss of water and salt from the intravascular space but a positive fluid balance. Patients with ileus may experience abdominal distension and tenderness, as well as nausea and vomiting, which may not become apparent for a few days. Treatment typically involves inserting a wide-bore nasogastric tube and administering intravenous fluids until bowel motility returns.

      Dehydration is an unlikely cause of the patient’s deterioration, as the blood test suggests salt dilution rather than concentration. A pulmonary embolism is also unlikely, as it would typically cause obstructive shock and present differently. The absence of fever and clear signs of infection make septic shock an unlikely cause. The raised CRP is likely due to acute inflammation from the recent surgery. An anastomotic leak, which can cause faecal peritonitis and sepsis, can be ruled out due to the absence of peritonism and severe abdominal pain.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      151.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      144.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old boy trips during recess and arrives at the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy trips during recess and arrives at the Emergency Department with a severely painful left arm. X-rays reveal a distal humerus supracondylar fracture that is displaced posteriorly and closed. What signs would suggest an immediate requirement for surgery?

      Your Answer: Distal neurovascular deficit

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the region of the distal humerus pose a risk of injury to important structures in the arm, particularly the brachial artery. If the fractured end of the humerus shears the artery, it can result in distal neurovascular loss, which requires immediate exploration. While considering other options is important when managing such patients, they may occur without any neurovascular injury. Angulation is significant but not the most crucial factor, as it can occur without causing any distal deficits. Pain alone is not an indication for surgery, as many injuries can be painful without serious consequences. Although significant clinical deformity is highly suggestive of a severe injury, it can occur without limb-threatening consequences. Posterior displacement does not necessarily correlate with neurovascular injury, as bone fragments may miss important structures. Therefore, if there is any distal deficit, surgery is urgently required, regardless of the appearance of the arm or X-ray.

      Fracture Management: Understanding Types and Treatment

      Fractures can occur due to trauma, stress, or pathological reasons. Diagnosis involves evaluating the site and type of injury, as well as associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are important in assessing changes in bone length, distal bone angulation, rotational effects, and foreign material. Fracture types include oblique, comminuted, segmental, transverse, and spiral. It is also important to distinguish open from closed injuries, with the Gustilo and Anderson classification system being the most common for open fractures. Management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, managing infection, and debriding open fractures within 6 hours of injury.

      To ensure proper fracture management, it is crucial to understand the different types of fractures and their causes. Diagnosis involves not only evaluating the fracture itself, but also any associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are an important tool in assessing the extent of the injury. It is also important to distinguish between open and closed fractures, with open fractures requiring immediate attention and debridement. Proper management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, and managing infection. By understanding the different types of fractures and their treatment, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients with fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She reports stiffness and pain in her back, arms, and thighs, especially in the morning. These symptoms have persisted for the past two weeks, despite her previously being in good health. Upon examination, the only notable finding is tenderness in her deltoid and thigh muscles, with normal muscle strength. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      95.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
      Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
      Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Referral to the Pain team

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities

      Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      156.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of cardiovascular disease and wanting to investigate her own health after learning about healthy eating in school. She was found to have a fasting plasma cholesterol of 15 mmol/l.
      What is the most probable reason for these findings?

      Your Answer: A deficiency of apo B-100

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol Metabolism: Deficiencies and High Levels of Key Proteins

      Apo B-100 is a protein that binds to LDL receptors, allowing for the uptake of lipoproteins. A deficiency in apo B-100 or LDL receptors can lead to familial hypercholesterolemia and an accumulation of cholesterol.

      Lipoprotein lipase is an enzyme that breaks down chylomicrons and VLDLs. A deficiency in this enzyme can result in the accumulation of both, but with normal or slightly raised cholesterol levels.

      ACAT is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-synthesis of cholesterol esters. A deficiency in ACAT would lead to reduced plasma cholesterol levels.

      High levels of HDL are protective as they increase cholesterol transport from tissues to the liver for conversion to bile acids and excretion in feces. However, high levels of HDL are rare.

      LCAT is an enzyme that converts cholesterol taken up by HDL into a cholesterol ester, which is then transferred to lipoprotein remnants for uptake by the liver. High levels of LCAT can increase reverse cholesterol transport and reduce plasma cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman and her 34-year-old partner visit the general practice clinic as...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman and her 34-year-old partner visit the general practice clinic as they have been unsuccessful in conceiving after 14 months of trying. She reports having regular menstrual cycles every 28 days.
      What is the most appropriate test to determine if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer: Day 21 progesterone level

      Explanation:

      Fertility Testing Methods

      When it comes to fertility testing, there are several methods available to determine a female’s ovulatory status. One of the easiest tests is the day 21 progesterone level. If the results are greater than 30 nmol/l in two cycles, then the patient is said to be ovulating.

      Another method is the cervical fern test, which involves observing the formation of ferns in the cervical mucous under the influence of estrogen. However, measuring progesterone levels is a more accurate test as estrogen levels can vary.

      Basal body temperature estimation is also commonly used, as the basal body temperature typically increases after ovulation. However, measuring progesterone levels is still considered the most accurate way to determine ovulation.

      It’s important to note that day 2 luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are not reliable markers of ovulation. Additionally, endometrial biopsy is not a test used in fertility testing.

      In conclusion, there are several methods available for fertility testing, but measuring progesterone levels is the most accurate way to determine ovulatory status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A fifty-six-year-old, known alcoholic, presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A fifty-six-year-old, known alcoholic, presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of swelling in his right foot. The patient is unsure when the swelling started, but it has been gradually worsening for the past four months. The swelling is constant and not painful, and he is still able to bear weight on both limbs. He sleeps with two pillows at night but denies being short of breath or experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. The patient has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for 30 years and consuming 15 units of alcohol per day for 20 years.

      During examination, the patient's heart rate is 84/minute, respiratory rate is 12/minute, blood pressure is 135/74 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 98%, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The right foot is visibly swollen and erythematosus, and it is hot to the touch. There is no tenderness on palpation, but there is reduced range of movement due to stiffness from swelling. Pulses are present, but there is reduced sensation in all dermatomes below the knee. The left foot is mildly swollen, but not hot or erythematosus. There is no tenderness on palpation of the joint or tarsal bones, and there is a normal range of movement. Pulses are present, but there is reduced sensation in all dermatomes below the knee.

      The GP sends the patient for X-rays of both feet. The X-ray of the right foot shows evidence of osteolysis of the distal metatarsals and widespread joint dislocation in the forefoot. The X-ray of the left foot is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Charcot joint

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from alcoholic neuropathy, which increases the risk of developing a Charcot joint (also known as neuropathic arthropathy). This condition gradually damages weight-bearing joints due to loss of sensation, leading to continued damage without pain awareness. While diabetic neuropathy is the most common cause, other conditions such as alcoholic neuropathy, syphilis, and cerebral palsy can also lead to it. The X-ray results of osteolysis and joint dislocation, along with the clinical symptoms of a non-tender, swollen, red, and warm foot, are characteristic of an acute Charcot joint. Osteoarthritis (OA) may cause a swollen and red foot, but it would not produce the X-ray changes described in this case. The history of alcoholism and peripheral neuropathy makes OA less likely. Although alcoholism can increase the risk of heart failure, the patient has no other symptoms of heart failure, making it an unlikely cause. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthropathy that can affect any joint in the body, but the combination of alcoholism and radiological findings makes RA less likely than a Charcot joint.

      A Charcot joint, also known as a neuropathic joint, is a joint that has been severely damaged due to a loss of sensation. In the past, they were commonly caused by syphilis, but now they are most often seen in diabetics. These joints are typically less painful than expected, but some degree of pain is still reported by 75% of patients. The joint is usually swollen, red, and warm. The condition involves extensive bone remodeling and fragmentation, particularly in the midfoot, as seen in patients with poorly controlled diabetes. Charcot joints are a serious condition that require prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry cough. He has experienced weight loss and has observed changes in his hands. During the physical examination, you observe clubbing, mild cyanosis, and fine bibasal crepitations. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis and its Association with Chronic Hepatitis and Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The presence of chronic hepatitis in a patient’s medical history, coupled with the emergence of symptoms and signs indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, may point to a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It is worth noting that autoimmune hepatitis can also occur in 5-10% of IPF cases. While there is no indication of an infectious cause or evidence of cardiac failure, distinguishing between the two diagnoses can be challenging.

      In summary, the development of pulmonary fibrosis in a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis may suggest a diagnosis of IPF, which can also be associated with autoimmune hepatitis. Accurately differentiating between IPF and other potential causes of pulmonary fibrosis can be difficult, but is crucial for effective treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6575.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse...

    Incorrect

    • As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?

      Your Answer: D-dimer

      Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients

      In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.

      D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.

      In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      217.9
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history of lethargy, fever, and a sore throat. The nurse reports that his breathing is harsh and high pitched. His vital signs show a temperature of 39.4°C and an elevated respiratory and heart rate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial tracheitis

      Explanation:

      Addressing Stridor and Other Airway Sounds

      Added airway sounds, particularly stridor, should always be treated as a medical emergency. Stridor is a sign of a compromised upper airway and is heard predominantly on inspiration. It is important to note that stridor is not a diagnosis but a symptom, and the underlying cause must be identified urgently. The patient’s medical history is crucial in determining the correct diagnosis as all the causes listed above can present with stridor.

      In children, croup caused by the parainfluenza 1 virus is the most common reason for stridor. However, stridor in adults should prompt the clinician to consider other diagnoses. If the patient appears toxic with worsening lethargy, pyrexia, and overt deterioration of the upper airway, bacterial tracheitis is the most likely cause. Diphtheria can also cause stridor, but immunization programs have reduced its incidence in the western world.

      Laryngospasm is a common cause of stridor in adults, but the clinician must seek a relevant precipitant. Exposure to smoke and toxic fumes in the patient’s history should raise a high degree of suspicion and prompt the clinician to involve the anaesthetic teams in securing the patient’s airway. Foreign body aspiration and anaphylaxis are both life-threatening conditions that must be considered and excluded. The duration and onset of the stridor will be a key factor in determining the diagnosis. An abrupt onset with a history of eating nuts or chewing on a pen lid or plastic bead is often present in foreign body aspiration, while anaphylaxis may have a defined food precipitant and a more rapid onset than other conditions.

      Overall, addressing stridor and other airway sounds requires urgent attention and a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.

      The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.

      Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).

      What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Correct Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Complications of Chronic Paronychia

      Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.

      To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5735.4
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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Colorectal (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (3/5) 60%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed