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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators
Explanation:Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.
Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.
In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
Serum biochemistry reveals:
Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Small (oat) cell bronchial carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia
Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough over the past three months. He gets breathless after walking a few hundred metres. He is a non-smoker and takes medication for type II diabetes mellitus. During examination, his pulse is 80/minute and regular, blood pressure (BP) 130/70 mmHg, bilateral clubbing of digits, oxygen saturation (SpO2) in room air is 90%. Auscultation reveals bilateral, fine, late inspiratory crackles, more marked in the mid-zones and at the lung bases. Chest X-ray reveals patchy shadowing at the lung bases. What is the definitive investigation to guide his management?
Your Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is the most reliable test for diagnosing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). The radiological pattern seen in IPF is called usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP), which is characterized by honeycombing, reticular opacities, and lung architectural distortion. In advanced cases, there may be lobar volume loss, particularly in the lower lobes.
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) tests are not useful for diagnosing IPF, as they are typically normal or only mildly elevated in this condition. These tests may be helpful in diagnosing interstitial lung disease associated with rheumatologic conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis can be performed in patients with IPF who are experiencing respiratory distress. This test typically shows type I respiratory failure with low oxygen levels and normal or decreased carbon dioxide levels. However, ABG analysis is not the definitive test for diagnosing IPF.
Bronchoalveolar lavage may be considered if HRCT chest cannot detect the UIP pattern, but it is not typically necessary for diagnosing IPF.
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) can help differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In IPF, PFTs typically show a restrictive pattern, with decreased forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC), and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. While PFTs are a useful initial test for evaluating lung function in patients with suspected IPF, they are not definitive for establishing a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at the left lower base. She is commenced on antibiotics. A few days later, she deteriorates and a chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion, with consolidation on the left side.
What is the most important investigation to perform next?Your Answer: Pleural aspiration
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Unilateral Pleural Effusion
When a patient presents with a unilateral pleural effusion, the recommended first investigation is pleural aspiration. This procedure allows for the analysis of the fluid, including cytology, biochemical analysis, Gram staining, and culture and sensitivity. By classifying the effusion as a transudate or an exudate, further management can be guided.
While a blood culture may be helpful if the patient has a fever, pleural aspiration is still the more appropriate next investigation. A CT scan may be useful at some point to outline the extent of the consolidation and effusion, but it would not change management at this stage.
Bronchoscopy may be necessary if a tumour is suspected, but it is not required based on the information provided. Thoracoscopy may be used if pleural aspiration is inconclusive, but it is a more invasive procedure. Therefore, pleural aspiration should be performed first.
In summary, pleural aspiration is the recommended first investigation for a unilateral pleural effusion, as it provides valuable information for further management. Other investigations may be necessary depending on the specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with left upper-lobe cavitating consolidation and sputum samples confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is fully sensitive. There is no prior history of TB treatment. What is the most suitable antibiotic regimen?
Your Answer: Rifampicin/isoniazid/pyrazinamide/ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin/isoniazid for four months
Explanation:Proper Treatment for Tuberculosis
Proper treatment for tuberculosis (TB) depends on certain sensitivities. Until these sensitivities are known, empirical treatment for TB should include four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Treatment can be stepped down to two drugs after two months if the organism is fully sensitive. The duration of therapy for pulmonary TB is six months.
If the sensitivities are still unknown, treatment with only three drugs, such as rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide, is insufficient for the successful treatment of TB. Initial antibiotic treatment should be rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin and isoniazid for four months.
However, if the patient is sensitive to rifampicin and clarithromycin, treatment for TB can be rifampicin and clarithromycin for six months. It is important to note that treatment for 12 months is too long and may not be necessary for successful treatment of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion
Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.
Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.
Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.
In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
Which of the following would be most important to advise?Your Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?Your Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa
Explanation:Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation
When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man snores at night and his wife reports it is so loud that he often wakes her up. She notes that her husband sometimes appears to not take a breath for a long time and then gasps for air before continuing to snore. He suffers from daytime headaches and sleepiness. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 40 kg/m2.
What would the most likely arterial blood gas result be if it was measured in this patient?Your Answer: Compensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Compensated and Uncompensated Acid-Base Disorders
Acid-base disorders are a group of conditions that affect the pH balance of the body. Compensation is the body’s natural response to maintain a normal pH level. Here are some examples of compensated and uncompensated acid-base disorders:
Compensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. The kidney compensates for the chronic respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate production, which buffers the increase in acid caused by carbon dioxide.
Compensated respiratory alkalosis is seen in high-altitude areas. The kidney compensates by reducing the rate of bicarbonate reabsorption and increasing reabsorption of H+.
Compensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. The body compensates by hyperventilating to release carbon dioxide and reduce the acid burden. The kidney also compensates by increasing bicarbonate production and sequestering acid into proteins.
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with Guillain–Barré syndrome, an obstructed airway, or respiratory depression from opiate toxicity. There is an abrupt failure in ventilation, leading to an acute respiratory acidosis.
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with lactic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis. The body cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the added acid, leading to an acute metabolic acidosis.
Understanding these different types of acid-base disorders and their compensatory mechanisms is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?Your Answer: Lung collapse
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses
Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.
Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of increased wheezing, breathlessness, and a dry cough. He is able to speak in complete sentences.
During the examination, the following observations are made:
Temperature 37.2 °C
Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
Blood pressure 130/70 mmHg
Heart rate 90 bpm
Oxygen saturations 96% on room air
He has diffuse expiratory wheezing.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Exacerbation of COPD
When a patient presents with evidence of an acute non-infective exacerbation of COPD, treatment with oral corticosteroids is appropriate. Short-acting bronchodilators may also be necessary. If the patient’s observations are not grossly deranged, they can be managed in the community with instructions to seek further medical input if their symptoms worsen.
Antibiotics are not indicated for non-infective exacerbations of COPD. However, if the patient has symptoms of an infective exacerbation, antibiotics may be prescribed based on the Anthonisen criteria.
Referral to a hospital medical team for admission is not necessary unless the patient is haemodynamically unstable, hypoxic, or experiencing respiratory distress.
A chest X-ray is not required unless there is suspicion of underlying pneumonia or pneumothorax. If the patient fails to respond to therapy or develops new symptoms, a chest X-ray may be considered at a later stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient visits his GP complaining of a dry cough that has persisted for 3 months. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past 12 years and has no other medical history. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found, and his vital signs, including pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen saturation, are all normal. Spirometry results reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 3.6 litres (predicted = 3.55 litres) and a forced vital capacity of 4.8 litres (predicted 4.72 litres). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a dry cough in a young patient
A dry cough is a common symptom that can have various underlying causes. In a young patient with a ten-pack-year history of smoking and a 3-month duration of symptoms, several possibilities should be considered and ruled out based on clinical evaluation and diagnostic tests.
One possibility is asthma, especially if the cough is the main or only symptom. In this case, spirometry may be normal, but peak flow monitoring before and after inhaled steroid therapy can help confirm the diagnosis by showing an improvement in peak flow rate and/or a reduction in variability.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is less likely in a young patient, but spirometry can reveal obstructive patterns if present.
Community-acquired pneumonia is unlikely given the chronicity of symptoms and the absence of typical signs such as productive cough and inspiratory crackles.
Angina is an uncommon cause of a dry cough, and it usually presents with chest tightness on exertion rather than at night.
Bronchiectasis can cause a productive cough and crackles on auscultation, which are not present in this case.
Therefore, based on the available information, asthma seems to be the most likely diagnosis, but further evaluation may be needed to confirm it and exclude other possibilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He smells strongly of alcohol and has no fixed abode. His heart rate was 123 bpm, blood pressure 93/75 mmHg, oxygen saturations 92% and respiratory rate 45 breaths per minute. Further history from him reveals no recent travel history and no contact with anyone with a history of foreign travel.
Chest X-ray revealed consolidation of the right upper zone.
Which of the following drugs is the most prudent choice in his treatment?Your Answer: Azithromycin
Correct Answer: Meropenem
Explanation:Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae Infection and Treatment Options
Klebsiella pneumoniae (KP) is a common organism implicated in various infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal abscesses, or bacteraemia. Patients with underlying conditions like alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic lung disease are at higher risk of contracting KP. The new hypervirulent strains with capsular serotypes K1 or K2 are increasingly being seen. In suspected cases of Klebsiella infection, treatment is best started with carbapenems. However, strains possessing carbapenemases are also being discovered, and Polymyxin B or E or tigecycline are now used as the last line of treatment. This article provides an overview of KP infection, radiological findings, and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension
Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity
A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:
1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.
2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.
3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.
4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.
5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.
In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?Your Answer: Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring
Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)
Explanation:Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?
Your Answer: Lung function test
Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring
Explanation:Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children
Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.
Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.
In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Correct
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A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and cough. He reports experiencing more difficulty breathing and a sharp pain in his third and fourth ribs. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals an enlargement on the right side of his hilum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma
The patient’s heavy smoking history, recent onset of cough, and bony pain strongly suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The appearance of the chest X-ray further supports this diagnosis. While COPD can also cause cough and dyspnea, it is typically accompanied by audible wheezing and the presence of a hilar mass is inconsistent with this diagnosis. Neither tuberculosis nor lung collapse are indicated by the patient’s history or radiographic findings. Hyperparathyroidism is not a consideration unless hypercalcemia is present. Overall, the evidence points towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)
Explanation:Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU
When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.
While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with left-sided chest pain and difficulty breathing that started during a football game.
Which diagnostic test is most likely to provide a conclusive diagnosis?Your Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pneumothorax
A pneumothorax is suspected based on the patient’s medical history. To confirm the diagnosis, a chest x-ray is the only definitive test available. An ECG is unlikely to show any abnormalities, while blood gas analysis may reveal a slightly elevated oxygen level and slightly decreased carbon dioxide level, even if the patient is not experiencing significant respiratory distress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is three days post-elective low anterior resection for colorectal cancer. He is being managed in the High Dependency Unit. He has developed a cough productive of green phlegm, increased wheeze and breathlessness on minor exertion. He has a background history of smoking. He also suffers from stage 3 chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is a known carbon dioxide retainer. On examination, he is alert; his respiratory rate (RR) is 22 breaths/minute, blood pressure (BP) 126/78 mmHg, pulse 110 bpm, and oxygen saturations 87% on room air. He has mild wheeze and right basal crackles on chest auscultation.
Which of the following initial oxygen treatment routines is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen administration in conjunction with non-invasive ventilation
Correct Answer: 2 litres of oxygen via simple face mask
Explanation:Oxygen Administration in COPD Patients: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with COPD who require oxygen therapy must be carefully monitored to avoid complications such as acute hypoventilation and CO2 retention. The target oxygen saturation for these patients is no greater than 93%, and oxygen should be adjusted to the lowest concentration required to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90-92% in normocapnic patients. For those with a history of hypercapnic respiratory failure or severe COPD, a low inspired oxygen concentration is required, such as 2-4 litres/minute via a medium concentration mask or controlled oxygen at 24-28% via a Venturi mask. Nasal cannulae are best suited for stable patients where flow rate can be titrated based on blood gas analysis. Non-invasive ventilation should be considered in cases of persistent respiratory acidosis despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment on controlled oxygen therapy for no more than one hour. Careful monitoring and adherence to these guidelines can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for COPD patients receiving oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night sweats, and weight loss over the last six months. He has been coughing up phlegm and experiencing occasional fevers for the past month. A chest X-ray reveals a sizable (4.5 cm) cavity in the upper left lobe. What diagnostic test would provide a conclusive diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blood cultures
Correct Answer: Sputum sample
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. The diagnosis of TB relies on various diagnostic methods. Here are some of the commonly used diagnostic methods for TB:
Sputum Sample: The examination and culture of sputum or other respiratory tract specimens can help diagnose pulmonary TB. The growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions confirms the diagnosis.
Blood Cultures: Blood cultures are rarely positive in TB. A probable diagnosis can be based on typical clinical and chest X-ray findings, together with either sputum positive for acid-fast bacilli or typical histopathological findings on biopsy material.
Computed Tomography (CT) Scanning of the Chest: CT imaging can provide clinical information and be helpful in ascertaining the likelihood of TB, but it will not provide a definitive diagnosis.
Mantoux Test: The Mantoux test is primarily used to diagnose latent TB. It may be strongly positive in active TB, but it does not give a definitive diagnosis of active TB. False-positive tests can occur with previous Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccination and infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria. False-negative results can occur in overwhelming TB, immunocompromised, previous TB, and some viral illnesses like measles and chickenpox.
Serum Inflammatory Markers: Serum inflammatory markers are not specific enough to diagnose TB if raised.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic methods is often used to diagnose TB. The definitive diagnosis requires the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Correct
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Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.
The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.
Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.
In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
FEV1 51%
FVC 88%
FEV1/FVC 58%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)
Explanation:Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Correct
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A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?Your Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
- WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
- Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
- K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
- Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
- Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
- AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
- GGT: 48 U/L (<50)
The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Cefotaxime
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.
One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.
In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?Your Answer: Blood pressure < 120 systolic or diastolic < 60 mmHg
Correct Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP
The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.
What would be your recommendation at this point?Your Answer: Observation only
Explanation:Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.
Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.
Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?
Your Answer: Urea 6 mmol/l
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute
Explanation:Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score
The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively
When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergillus
Explanation:Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More
Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:
– Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
– Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
– Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
– Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
– Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%
Explanation:Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For
As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist is brought in following a road traffic collision. The cyclist was riding on a dual carriageway when a car collided with them side-on, causing them to land in the middle of the road with severe injuries, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A bystander called an ambulance which transported the young patient to the Emergency Department. The anaesthetist on the trauma team assesses the patient and diagnoses them with a tension pneumothorax. The anaesthetist then inserts a grey cannula into the patient's second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. Within a few minutes, the patient expresses relief at being able to breathe more easily.
What signs would the anaesthetist have observed during the examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, absent breath sounds
Explanation:Understanding Tension Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Treatment
Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot exit, causing the pressure in the pleural space to increase and the lung to collapse. This condition can be diagnosed clinically by observing contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, and absent breath sounds. Treatment involves inserting a wide-bore cannula to release the trapped air. Delay in treatment can be fatal, so diagnosis should not be delayed by investigations such as chest X-rays. Other respiratory conditions may present with different symptoms, such as normal trachea, reduced chest expansion, reduced resonance on percussion, and normal vesicular breath sounds. Tracheal tug is a sign of severe respiratory distress in paediatrics, while ipsilateral tracheal deviation is not a symptom of tension pneumothorax. Understanding the symptoms of tension pneumothorax is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)
Explanation:Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study
The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry after presenting with worsening respiratory symptoms suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Regarding spirometry, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 is a good marker of disease severity in COPD
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. However, there are several misconceptions about PFTs that can lead to confusion and misinterpretation of results. Here are some common misconceptions about PFTs:
FEV1 is the only marker of disease severity in COPD: While FEV1 is a good marker of COPD disease severity, it should not be the only factor considered. Other factors such as symptoms, exacerbation history, and quality of life should also be taken into account.
Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of COPD: Peak flow is not a reliable tool for diagnosing COPD. It is primarily used in monitoring asthma and can be affected by factors such as age, gender, and height.
Residual volume can be measured by spirometer: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer alone. It requires additional tests such as gas dilution or body plethysmography.
Vital capacity increases with age: Vital capacity actually decreases with age due to changes in lung elasticity and muscle strength.
Peak flow measures the calibre of small airways: Peak flow is a measure of the large and medium airways, not the small airways.
By understanding these common misconceptions, healthcare professionals can better interpret PFT results and provide more accurate diagnoses and treatment plans for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
Investigation Value Normal range
Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
Explanation:This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
What is the optimal location for needle insertion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line
Explanation:Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage
When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 39
Incorrect
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After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain that radiates into her abdomen. The physical examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base of the lung with hyper-resonant percussion sounds at the left side of the chest. The abdominal examination shows generalised tenderness. A few minutes later she develops cyanosis.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Differentiating Tension Pneumothorax from Other Conditions: Clinical Features and Management
Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when the pressure in the pleural space exceeds atmospheric pressure during both inspiration and expiration. This can lead to impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output, and hypoxemia. The development of tension pneumothorax is not dependent on the size of the pneumothorax, and clinical presentation can be sudden and severe, with rapid, labored respiration, cyanosis, sweating, and tachycardia.
It is important to differentiate tension pneumothorax from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Acute pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism can all cause abdominal pain and other non-specific symptoms, but they do not typically present with decreased air entry and hyper-resonant percussion note, which are indicative of pneumothorax.
Prompt management of tension pneumothorax is crucial and involves inserting a cannula into the pleural space to remove air until the patient is no longer compromised, followed by insertion of an intercostal tube. Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines recommend using a cannula of at least 4.5 cm in length for needle thoracocentesis in patients with tension pneumothorax. The cannula should be left in place until bubbling is confirmed in the underwater-seal system to ensure proper function of the intercostal tube.
In summary, recognizing the clinical features of tension pneumothorax and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for prompt and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Explanation:Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.
Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical examination. The chest X-ray report reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On closer questioning the patient admits to symptoms of fatigue and weight loss and painful blue-red nodules on her shins.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Erythema Nodosum
Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by granulomas affecting multiple systems, with lung involvement being the most common. It typically affects young adults, especially females and Afro-Caribbean populations. While the cause is unknown, infections and environmental factors have been suggested. Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and fever, as well as erythema nodosum and anterior uveitis. Acute sarcoidosis usually resolves without treatment, while chronic sarcoidosis requires steroids and monitoring of lung function, ESR, CRP, and serum ACE levels.
Tuberculosis is a potential differential diagnosis, as it can also present with erythema nodosum and hilar lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of a fever and risk factors make it less likely.
Lung cancer is rare in young adults and typically presents as a mass or pleural effusion on X-ray.
Pneumonia is an infection of the lung parenchyma, but the absence of infective symptoms and consolidation on X-ray make it less likely.
Mesothelioma is a cancer associated with asbestos exposure and typically presents in older individuals. The absence of exposure and the patient’s age make it less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 42
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to you with increasing difficulty in breathing and shortness of breath. A chest examination reveals decreased expansion on the right side of the chest, along with decreased breath sounds and stony dullness to percussion. A chest X-ray reveals a pleural effusion which you proceed to tap for diagnostic serum biochemistry, cytology and culture. The cytology and culture results are still awaited, although the serum biochemistry returns back showing the following:
Pleural fluid protein 55 g/dl
Pleural fluid cholesterol 4.5 g/dl
Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) : serum ratio 0.7
Which of the following might be considered as a diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Pleural Effusion: Sarcoidosis, Myxoedema, Meigs Syndrome, Cardiac Failure, and Nephrotic Syndrome
When analyzing a pleural effusion, the protein levels can help differentiate between potential causes. An exudate pleural effusion, with protein levels greater than 30 g/l, can be caused by inflammatory or malignant conditions such as sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or carcinoma. However, if the protein level falls between 25 and 35 g/l, Light’s criteria should be applied to accurately differentiate. On the other hand, a transudate pleural effusion, with protein levels less than 30 g/l, can be caused by conditions such as myxoedema or cardiac failure. Meigs syndrome, a pleural effusion caused by a benign ovarian tumor, and nephrotic syndrome, which causes a transudate pleural effusion, can also be ruled out based on the biochemistry results. It is important to consider all potential causes and conduct further investigations to properly diagnose and manage the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male graduate student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity for the past two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What diagnostic test would be most useful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spirometry before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma Diagnosis
To confirm the suspected diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This patient is likely to have exercise-induced asthma, which means that his asthma symptoms are triggered by physical activity. Spirometry is a lung function test that measures how much air a person can inhale and exhale. By performing spirometry before and after exercise, doctors can compare the results and determine if there is a significant decrease in lung function after physical activity. If there is a significant decrease, it confirms the diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. This test is important because it helps doctors develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. With the right treatment, patients with exercise-induced asthma can still participate in physical activity and lead a healthy lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation
Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.
Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.
Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.
Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.
In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive cough and shortness of breath over the last 10 months. He has no history of smoking and is typically healthy. The only notable change in his lifestyle is that he recently started breeding pigeons after retiring. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia.
What is the most frequently linked organism with interstitial pneumonia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Types of Bacterial Pneumonia and Their Patterns in the Lung
Bacterial pneumonia can be caused by various organisms, each with their own unique patterns in the lung. Mycoplasma, viruses like RSV and CMV, and fungal infections like histoplasmosis typically cause interstitial patterns in the lung. Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcus, Escherichia coli, and Klebsiella all typically have the same alveolar pattern, with Klebsiella often causing an aggressive, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically of the alveolar type and seen in intravenous drug users or patients with underlying debilitating conditions. Mycoplasma pneumonia may also have extra-pulmonary manifestations. These conditions are sometimes referred to as atypical pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers
Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.
In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus
Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.
A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.
A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.
A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.
An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
temperature 36.6 °C
heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice
Explanation:Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax
Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:
Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.
Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.
Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.
Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.
Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.
In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire
Explanation:Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management
Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:
1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.
2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.
3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.
4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.
In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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