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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by the nurses in the special care baby unit. During the most recent feed, the neonate vomited and the nurse observed bile in the vomit. Although the stools are of normal consistency, the last stool contained fresh red blood. Upon examination, the neonate appears to be well hydrated, but the abdomen is significantly distended. An urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered, which reveals distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Continue oral feeds, switching to breast milk
Correct Answer: Commence broad spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:The infant in this scenario is likely suffering from bacterial necrotising enterocolitis, given their prematurity and symptoms. Immediate administration of broad spectrum antibiotics is necessary due to the severity of the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2. While changing feeds may be helpful in preventing necrotising enterocolitis in bottle-fed infants, it is not useful in treating the condition once it has developed. While IV fluids are important for maintaining hydration, they are not as urgent as antibiotics in this case. Antenatal administration of erythromycin is intended to prevent necrotising enterocolitis, but it is not effective in treating the condition once it has developed.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Croup
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents. His parents report that he has had a fever for 2 days with reduced activity and feeding. On examination, he is not smiling, his respiratory rate is 50 breaths/minute (normal range: 30-60 breaths/minute) and his heart rate is 155 beats/minute (100-160 beats/minute). He also has reduced skin turgor and looks pale. A nurse looks up the NICE traffic light system to identify his risk of serious illness.
What is the most concerning symptom in this patient?Your Answer: Reduced skin turgor
Explanation:According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in children. This system is used to identify the risk of serious illness in children. Decreased activity is considered an amber symptom, while age <6 months is not a red flag symptom. Age 3-6 months with a temperature of >=39ºC is an amber flag symptom, and age <3 months with a temperature of >=38°C is a red flag symptom. A respiratory rate of >60 breaths/minute is also a red flag symptom. Finally, a heart rate of >160 beats/minute in children under 12 months is an amber flag symptom.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse
Explanation:Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.
On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.
What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Muscle function tests
Correct Answer: Genetic analysis
Explanation:A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds that the hips are positive for Barlow and Ortolani tests. What is the most probable situation for this child?
Your Answer: Polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: Female
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in females. Positive Barlow and Ortolani tests are indicative of DDH. High birth weight, breech presentation, and oligohydramnios are risk factors for DDH, while C-section birth is not a relevant factor.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old presents with a 5-day history of high fever and coryza. His parents bring him to clinic with a rash that started today on his chest and has now spread to his arms. He has been off his food for the last 48 hours, but his fever has settled. On examination, he is apyrexial. Other vital signs are normal. He is alert and responsive. He has cervical lymphadenopathy, with enlarged red tonsils but no pus. Both tympanic membranes are slightly pink. His chest is clear. He has a pink blanching maculopapular rash to his torso and arms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Childhood Infections and Their Symptoms
Roseola Infantum, Glandular Fever, Parvovirus Infection, Scarlet Fever, and Meningococcal Septicaemia are some of the common childhood infections that parents should be aware of.
Roseola Infantum is caused by herpesvirus 6 and is characterized by high fever lasting for 3-5 days, followed by a rash on the body. Glandular Fever, caused by Epstein-Barr virus, presents with general malaise, sore throat, fever, and abdominal pain. Parvovirus Infection causes erythema infectiosum, with a rash starting on the cheeks and spreading to the limbs. Scarlet Fever, associated with Streptococcus pyogenes, presents with a sandpaper-like rash on the neck, chest, and trunk, and a red, strawberry-like tongue. Meningococcal Septicaemia is characterized by a haemorrhagic, non-blanching rash or purpura found all over the body.
It is important for parents to be aware of the symptoms of these infections and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you both agree that the implant would be the most suitable option. You believe that she has the ability to make this decision and give her consent for the insertion. However, during previous consultations, you have found her to lack capacity for certain decisions and have involved her parents. According to the GMC, what is necessary to proceed with the implant insertion?
Your Answer: A second consultation a week later to give her time to think about her decision, and finally her consent.
Correct Answer: Just the patient's consent.
Explanation:Capacity to make decisions is dependent on both time and the individual’s ability to make decisions. If the patient did not have the capacity to make a decision in the past, but currently has the capacity to do so, their consent is the only one required. It is advisable to involve parents in the decision-making process for pediatric patients, especially in cases involving contraception. However, if the patient is not convinced, the treatment can still proceed as long as they have the capacity to make the decision. If there are doubts, it is good practice to involve another healthcare team member, but if the patient is deemed capable of making the decision, their capacitous consent is sufficient according to the GMC. There is no requirement for a time gap between consultations to allow for decision-making.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A three-week old boy is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after losing consciousness. His mother reports that he often appears short of breath and has a bluish tint to his skin while feeding, which she assumed was normal. Imaging reveals the presence of right ventricular hypertrophy, a ventricular septal defect, and a displaced aorta. Additional imaging is requested. Based on the probable diagnosis, what type of murmur would be anticipated in this infant?
Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The correct answer is an ejection systolic murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by cyanosis or collapse in the first month of life, hypercyanotic spells, and an ejection systolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge due to pulmonary stenosis. The other features include right ventricular hypertrophy, a ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta. A continuous machinery murmur is associated with a patent ductus arteriosus, while a diastolic decrescendo murmur is heard in aortic or pulmonary regurgitation. Finally, a mid-diastolic murmur with an opening click is heard in cases of mitral stenosis.
Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.
Your Answer: 9
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is seen by her general practitioner (GP). She has been complaining of ear pain for a few days. She has not had any problems with her ears in the past, and her mother has no concerns about her hearing. On examination, she is found to have otitis media with effusion.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Actively observe him for 6-12 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to ear, nose and throat (ENT)
Explanation:Management of Otitis Media with Effusion in Children with Down Syndrome or Cleft Palate
Children suspected to have otitis media with effusion (OME) and Down syndrome or cleft palate should be referred for specialist assessment to avoid any delays that may impact their overall development, especially speech development. OME is the presence of fluid in the middle ear space, which can lead to conductive hearing loss and speech delay in some children. While OME can be self-limiting, it can become chronic, and failure of treatment may cause complications, particularly in children with low immunity due to Down syndrome.
Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days is not recommended for children with Down syndrome or cleft palate. Instead, a period of active observation is recommended for 6-12 weeks, unless a referral is indicated. The use of corticosteroids or decongestants, such as fluticasone or xylometazoline nasal spray, respectively, is not supported by evidence and is not advised by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS).
In summary, early referral for specialist assessment is crucial for children with Down syndrome or cleft palate suspected to have OME to prevent any delays in their development. Active observation is recommended for other children with OME, and the use of antibiotics, corticosteroids, or decongestants is not supported by evidence and is not advised by NICE CKS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He has a two-year history of asthma which has previously been controlled with a salbutamol inhaler twice daily and beclomethasone 50 micrograms bd. He has an audible wheeze that has been gradually worsening over the last few weeks and has not responded to additional doses of salbutamol. His mother also reports that he has a night-time cough for the past 6 weeks.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Add a trial of a long-acting beta-agonist
Correct Answer: Add a trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A premature neonate is born at 32 weeks’ gestation and is noted to have low Apgar scores following birth. During a comprehensive review by the neonatology team, an echocardiogram demonstrates very poor right ventricular function. The mother has a history of hypertension and bipolar disease requiring lithium therapy.
Which one of the following maternal medical complications may have contributed to the infant’s condition?Your Answer: Long-standing bipolar disorder therapy
Explanation:Potential Risks and Management of Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy
Ebstein’s Anomaly and Lithium Use:
Ebstein’s anomaly, a condition where the tricuspid valve is displaced towards the apex of the right ventricle, is often associated with lithium use. Management includes procainamide and surgical options. It is important to discuss the risk of lithium transmission through breast milk if a patient is taking lithium.Maternal Hypertension and Captopril Use:
Captopril use during pregnancy can affect the fetal renal system and lead to oligohydramnios. It is important to monitor maternal hypertension and consider alternative medications if necessary.Heavy Tobacco Use:
Smoking during pregnancy is associated with growth retardation and placental abruption. It is important to encourage smoking cessation and provide support for patients who are struggling to quit.Prior Deep Venous Thrombosis and Warfarin Use:
Warfarin use during pregnancy is associated with bone abnormalities such as epiphyseal stippling and nasal hypoplasia. Alternative anticoagulation options should be considered during pregnancy.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Doxycycline Use:
Doxycycline and other tetracyclines are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their effects on fetal tooth development. However, they have no impact on cardiac development. It is important to consider alternative antibiotics for the treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease during pregnancy.Managing Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of rectal bleeding. Her parents report seeing fresh blood in her nappies mixed with her stool. Upon examination, she appears alert, active, afebrile, and hemodynamically stable. She has non-specific abdominal tenderness without guarding, and there is no active bleeding. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, which shows no abnormalities. Meckel's diverticulum is suspected. What is the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient?
Your Answer: Technetium scan
Explanation:When investigating stable children with suspected Meckel’s diverticulum, a technetium scan is the preferred method.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care of the paediatric surgeons due to her parents' concern about her symptoms. She has been experiencing projectile vomiting, weight loss, and constant hunger. The doctors have made a preliminary diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is the probable biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Hyperkalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric Stenosis: Characteristics and Biochemical Abnormalities
Pyloric stenosis is a condition commonly observed in male infants at around 5 weeks old, with an incidence rate of approximately 4 per 1000. It is often seen in first-born babies. The condition is characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, which causes difficulty in food passage.
One of the typical biochemical abnormalities observed in patients with pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis, which is caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit. This results in an acidic urine. The imbalance of electrolytes in the body can lead to dehydration, weakness, and other complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling asleep at night caused by an itchy bottom. She is an active and healthy child who attends school regularly and enjoys playing with friends in the park. She has received all her vaccinations up to date. What is the recommended first-line treatment for her most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mebendazole
Explanation:Mebendazole is the recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infestations. This particular case presents with typical symptoms of a threadworm infection, which is a common helminth in children. The infection is usually acquired through the ingestion of eggs found in the environment, often from touching soil and then putting hands in the mouth. While the infection is often asymptomatic, it can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is often made empirically, and treatment typically involves hygiene recommendations and mebendazole.
Diethylcarbamazine is an anti-helminthic medication used to treat filarial infections, such as those caused by Wuchereria bancrofti (which can lead to elephantiasis) and Toxocara canis (which can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas).
Ivermectin is another antiparasitic drug, but it is used to treat Strongyloides stercoralis infections, which can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae.
Metronidazole, on the other hand, is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, such as gingivitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis. It is not effective in treating threadworms.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a routine examination reveals a continuous mechanical murmur and bounding femoral pulses. Echocardiography confirms a haemodynamically significant, isolated patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What should be the next step in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Conservative management - watch and wait
Correct Answer: Medical management - cyclooxygenase inhibitor infusion
Explanation:Management of Patent Ductus Arteriosus
The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that directs deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle directly into the descending aorta. After birth, the ductus should close within the first few days due to decreased prostaglandin levels and increased oxygen concentrations. Premature and low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of the ductus remaining open, which can lead to complications such as reduced blood supply to tissues, pressure overload of the pulmonary circulation, and volume overload of the systemic circulation.
The decision to intervene and close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is based on the individual case and the severity of the condition. Medical management is usually the first step and involves administering a cyclooxygenase inhibitor to block prostaglandin synthesis and promote closure of the ductus. Conservative management may be an option for PDAs of little consequence, but even small PDAs pose long-term risks and may require intervention. Cardiac catheterisation is not appropriate in isolated PDA cases, and surgical management is reserved for those who fail medical management. Prostaglandin infusions may be used to keep the ductus patent in certain cardiac malformations that require a shunt for survival.
Overall, the management of PDA is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring proper blood flow. The decision to intervene should be made on a case-by-case basis, with medical management being the usual first step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?
Your Answer: Pelvic fracture
Correct Answer: Humeral fracture
Explanation:Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.
The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.Your Answer: Mainly parallel play aged two years
Correct Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years
Explanation:Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood
By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).
A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.
Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.
Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.
Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy visits his school counselor with his older brother. He reveals that his stepfather has been physically abusing him for the past year.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Discuss the case with the safeguarding lead after the child has left
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for a forensic examination
Explanation:Urgent Actions to Take in Cases of Alleged Sexual Abuse
In cases of alleged sexual abuse, it is crucial to take urgent actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. One of the most important steps is to refer the patient for a forensic examination by a qualified practitioner as soon as possible. This will enable the collection of any remaining evidence and prompt treatment for any physical effects of the assault. The patient should also be referred to social services and other support services that specialize in dealing with victims of sexual assault.
It is essential to discuss the case with the safeguarding lead, but this discussion must take place while the patient is protected in a place of safety, rather than after she has returned home. It is also important to advise the patient that nothing can be done without her parent’s consent, but if she has capacity, she may not need parental consent. Encouraging her to speak to her parents for support is advisable if she does not feel this will put her at further risk.
Advising the patient to self-present at the police station may discourage her from seeking further support. Instead, an appropriate referral should be made to ensure that the correct action is taken to protect the child’s safety. Performing a pelvic examination and swabs may cause distress to the patient, and it is best to have a fully qualified forensic examiner perform a thorough examination.
In summary, taking urgent actions and following proper procedures is crucial in cases of alleged sexual abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 15-year-old who has visited her GP seeking advice on contraception. She discloses that she has been sexually active with a 15-year-old male partner for the past 3 months. Sophie has done her research on various contraceptive methods and expresses her interest in trying the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of depression due to childhood abuse and is currently receiving treatment from the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services. However, she reports feeling much better since starting her relationship with her partner. Sophie's parents are unaware of the situation, and she is unwilling to inform them. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe the COCP after discussing with her parents and gaining consent
Correct Answer: Prescribe the COCP, providing there are no contraindications
Explanation:The Fraser guidelines state that if a child meets the criteria, they can be prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without parental knowledge or consent. It is important to maintain confidentiality and not breach it by discussing with the child’s parents. The child’s age or lack of consent for sexual intercourse should not affect their entitlement to contraception. While a full STI screen and pregnancy test are important aspects of holistic care, they are not necessary to prescribe the COCP. The GMC’s guidance on contraception, abortion, and STIs for those aged 0-18 also allows for providing such advice and treatment to young people under 16 without parental knowledge or consent if certain criteria are met.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl with poor weight gain is brought to see the pediatrician. Her growth has slowed crossing 1 centile but her weight has fallen from 50th to 9th centile in the last two months.
She began weaning at 4 months with a variety of foods. Her mother says she eats well and has no other specific symptoms. On examination she appears emaciated with abdominal distension. She is rolling over and making appropriate cooing sounds.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Failure to Thrive in Children
Coeliac disease is a condition that usually appears after weaning and is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms and weight loss. In children, failure to thrive may be a sign of coeliac disease, especially if they eat well and have been weaned at an appropriate age. Abdominal distension, vomiting, diarrhoea, and weight loss are the most common symptoms of coeliac disease, but it can also present with muscle wasting, anaemia, and vitamin deficiencies.
Cystic fibrosis is another condition that can cause failure to thrive, but it typically presents with a history of respiratory infections or meconium ileus in childhood. If tests for coeliac disease are negative, cystic fibrosis may be considered. Cushing’s syndrome can cause central adiposity with muscle wasting, but it is not the same as abdominal distension. Hyperthyroidism is extremely rare during infancy, and lactose intolerance presents with marked vomiting and diarrhoea, which is not consistent with the timing of weaning seen in coeliac disease.
In summary, failure to thrive in children may be a sign of coeliac disease, especially if they have been weaned at an appropriate age and are eating well. Other conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperthyroidism, and lactose intolerance, should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. The mother is concerned as she has noticed some hair growing in her daughter's armpits, and although she has not shown any distress or had any other noticeable symptoms, the mother is worried that something is wrong as she is too young to begin going through puberty. On examination, the child has axillary hair growth bilaterally, and her breasts are of appropriate size for her age.
Gonadotrophin assays show the following:
FSH 0.2 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 3)
LH 0.1 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 5)
What is the most likely cause of this child's axillary hair growth?Your Answer: Neurofibroma
Correct Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:In cases of gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty (GIPP), both FSH and LH levels are low. This is in contrast to gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty (GDPP), where FSH and LH levels are high and testes are larger than expected for age. GIPP is caused by increased levels of sex hormones, such as testosterone, which suppress LH and FSH. This can be due to ovarian, testicular, or adrenal causes, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In boys with GIPP, testicular volume is typically normal or small. Adrenal hyperplasia is the only cause of GIPP, as all other causes would result in GDPP and increased levels of FSH and LH.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department due to vomiting and diarrhoea that has been going on for 2 days. The vomit and stools are unremarkable, but the father reports that the baby has been lethargic and unsettled for the past 3 days. Additionally, the baby has had 6 episodes of uncontrollable crying where he draws his legs up to his chest for a few minutes at a time. The baby has no fever. During the examination, the baby appears pale and lethargic, and a small mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. To investigate further, a plain abdominal x-ray is performed, which shows no signs of obstruction, and an ultrasound scan reveals a target sign. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:This question pertains to gastrointestinal disorders in children, specifically focusing on the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea. While there can be various reasons for these symptoms, the child in this scenario displays indications of Intussusception. One of the classic signs is the child crying intermittently and pulling their legs towards their chest. Additionally, the presence of a small mass in the right upper quadrant and a target sign on ultrasound further support this diagnosis, along with the vomiting, diarrhea, and pain.
The vomit and stool do not show any significant abnormalities, and the absence of a fever suggests that it is not an infectious episode. Pyloric stenosis is unlikely to present in this manner. However, before an abdominal ultrasound x-ray is conducted, it is not possible to rule out a small bowel obstruction. Nevertheless, there are no indications of obstruction on the x-ray.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?Your Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects
Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.
PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.
Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past four months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; she walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes Disease
Explanation:Hip pain in the 10-14 year age group can have various causes, some of which may also result in knee pain. The most common disorder is transient synovitis of the hip, but it usually does not persist for more than 3 months. An osteosarcoma typically does not cause limb shortening unless there is a pathological fracture. While a slipped upper femoral epiphysis can lead to a similar presentation, it usually occurs later and in patients with different characteristics.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after overdosing on alcohol and paracetamol. She was discovered by her friend, unconscious in a local park, after sending a concerning text message. Her parents were both at work at the time. Upon regaining consciousness, she expresses embarrassment and explains that she had an argument with her boyfriend, now regrets her actions, and wishes to return home. All of her blood tests come back normal and she is deemed medically stable.
What is the best course of immediate action for her management?Your Answer: Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge
Explanation:Options for Discharging a Child with Suicidal Ideation
When a child presents with suicidal ideation, it is important to carefully consider the best course of action for their safety and well-being. Here are some options for discharging a child with suicidal ideation:
1. Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge.
2. Start fluoxetine 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.
3. Discharge home with outpatient CAMHS follow up within a week. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.
4. Discharge home with advice to book an urgent appointment to see their GP the same day. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.
5. Start citalopram 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.
It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of the child and consult with mental health professionals before making any decisions about discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.
Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children
Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.
The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.
To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.
Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl comes to see her GP as she has not yet started her periods. She is 150 cm tall and has a BMI of 20 kg/m². Her mother and older sister both started menarche at 13, so she is concerned about the delay. A hormone profile is performed with the following results:
Oestrogen 25 pmol/L (45 - 854)
LH (follicular phase) 50 IU/L (1-12)
FSH (follicular phase) 45 IU/L (1-9)
Antimullerian hormone (AMH) 0.2 ng/mL (0.7-3.5)
17-hydroxyprogesterone 2.0 nmol/L (1.0 – 4.5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency
Correct Answer: Turner’s syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing that started yesterday and has gotten worse. During the examination, he appears anxious and leans forward with his hands on his knees, drooling. His temperature is 38ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, heart rate is 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg.
Despite receiving intravenous dexamethasone and inhaled budesonide, the child's condition continues to deteriorate. He now has audible stridor, and the on-call anaesthetist is paged. What intervention should be considered next?Your Answer: Endotracheal intubation
Explanation:Oxygen that has been humidified
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Urgent paediatric haematology referral
Correct Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby is brought to the GP clinic by their parent for their first round of vaccinations. What vaccinations are recommended for this visit?
Your Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and one dose of Men C
Correct Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B), one dose Men B (vaccine for group B meningococcal disease) and one dose of Rotavirus vaccine
Explanation:The recommended vaccination schedule includes the 6-in-1 vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B, as well as one dose each of the MMR vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella, and the Rotavirus vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension following a rugby injury. During the game, he was tackled from the side and experienced intense pain in his left lower rib cage. On examination, the patient has a pulse of 140 bpm and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. There is visible bruising over the left flank and tenderness upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:High Impact Injuries to the Left Flank
High impact injuries to the left flank can result in damage to the spleen or kidney, as well as the ribs and soft tissue. If the patient experiences fractured ribs and hypotension, it is important to suspect a spleen rupture. Fluid resuscitation can be used to determine if the patient responds positively, and a CT scan can be arranged to confirm the diagnosis. Based on the injury grade and physical parameters, a decision can be made to either manage the injury conservatively or operate.
Observation should be conducted in a High Dependency Unit (HDU) setting initially to ensure that any deterioration in haemodynamic parameters can be addressed promptly. CT scans are also useful in trauma cases to rule out other injuries, such as hollow visceral injuries that would require a laparotomy. Renal trauma typically does not cause hypotension unless other organs are also injured, and aortic dissection would require more force.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth before goes into spontaneous labour and you are assisting in the vaginal delivery of a baby girl weighing 3.2 kg. To assess the newborn's health, you use the Apgar score. Can you provide the correct components of the Apgar score?
Your Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability
Explanation:To evaluate the well-being of a newborn, medical professionals use the Apgar scoring system. This system takes into account the infant’s pulse, respiratory function, skin color, muscle tone, and reflex response.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Croup
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough
Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.
Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.
Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.
Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.
Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit with a 2-day history of frequent vomiting and a 5-hour history of no wet nappies. He appears lethargic and weak. However, his mother reports that he still seems hungry and is attempting to breastfeed in between bouts of vomiting. What diagnostic tool should be employed to determine the underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:The primary diagnostic tool for pyloric stenosis is an abdominal ultrasound scan. This condition is characterized by projectile vomiting and constant hunger in infants, and ultrasound can reveal a thickened pyloric muscle, often with a target sign. Although it is more common in boys aged 3-6 weeks, it can also occur in older infants of either gender. The treatment is typically Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, which can be performed laparoscopically. Abdominal X-rays are not as useful for diagnosis, as they do not provide clear visualization of the pylorus. While abdominal examination may reveal an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen, ultrasound is still the preferred diagnostic method. Arterial blood gas tests are important for managing the condition, as vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis and electrolyte imbalances.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is presented to surgery with vomiting and poor feeding. The mother reports a strong odor in his urine, indicating a possible urinary tract infection. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. She inquires about the MenB vaccine and when it is typically administered. Can you provide this information?
Your Answer: At 4 and 12-13 months of age
Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months
Explanation:The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been included in the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine is given at 2 and 4 months, with a booster at 12 months, replacing the MenC vaccine that was previously given at 3 months. Additionally, individuals with certain long-term health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are recommended to receive the MenB vaccine due to their increased risk of complications from meningococcal disease. It is important to note that the vaccine does not contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which condition is frequently associated with plethoric lung fields on radiological imaging?
Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Correct Answer: A large ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Types of Congenital Heart Defects and Pulmonary Blood Flow
Congenital heart defects can be classified into different types based on their effects on pulmonary blood flow. Coarctation is a type of defect that is associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. On the other hand, most other types of defects, such as tetralogy of Fallot, pulmonary atresia, and tricuspid atresia, are associated with reduced pulmonary blood flow. The only exception to this is a large ventricular septal defect (VSD), which can also be associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. the different types of congenital heart defects and their effects on pulmonary blood flow is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Proper management of these defects can help improve the quality of life and outcomes for individuals with congenital heart defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset of menstruation. During the physical examination, the GP observes a broad neck and detects a systolic murmur in the chest. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms, and with which of the following options is it associated?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Aortic coarctation, a congenital cardiac abnormality characterized by the narrowing of a section of the aorta, is commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome. This condition results in an increase in afterload, which can be detected as a systolic murmur. The patient’s amenorrhea further supports a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome over other possibilities. Mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse are unlikely to be associated with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should raise concern for a possible hospital referral?
Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 96%
Correct Answer: Feeding 50% of the normal amount
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip and a new limp. She has no past medical history except for a recent cold she had 2 weeks ago, from which she has recovered. There is no history of trauma to the hip. Her developmental milestones have been normal so far.
Upon examination, she is not running a fever. She tolerates slight movement of her left hip, but excessive motion causes her to cry.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hemoglobin (Hb) level: 125 g/L (normal range for females: 110-140)
- Platelet count: 220 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- White blood cell (WBC) count: 9.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Recommend rest and analgesia
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent paediatric assessment
Explanation:It is important to arrange urgent assessment for a child under 3 years old who presents with an acute limp. Referral for urgent paediatric assessment is the correct course of action, as transient synovitis is rare in this age group and septic arthritis is more common. Rest and analgesia should not be recommended, as further investigations are needed to rule out septic arthritis, which may involve an ultrasound or synovial fluid aspirate. Referral for an urgent MRI or X-ray of the hip is also not appropriate at this stage, as these investigations would be considered by a paediatrician after an initial urgent assessment.
Causes of Limping in Children
Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer: Imipramine
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 44
Correct
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The mother of a 3-year-old child is worried about her child's developmental progress. Upon assessment, you observe that the child can only build a tower of five blocks at most and can only speak in two to three-word phrases. What is the typical age range for a healthy child to achieve these developmental milestones?
Your Answer: 2 ½ years
Explanation:Developmental Delay in Children
Developmental delay in children can be a cause for concern, especially when they fail to meet certain milestones at their age. For instance, a 4-year-old child should be able to speak in full sentences, play interactively, and build structures with building blocks. However, when a child exhibits a degree of developmental delay, it could be due to various factors such as neurological and neurodevelopmental problems like cerebral palsy and epilepsy, unmet physical and psychological needs, sensory impairment, genetic conditions like Down’s syndrome, and ill health.
It is important to understand the causes of developmental delay in children to provide appropriate interventions and support. Parents and caregivers should observe their child’s development and seek professional help if they notice any delays or abnormalities. Early intervention can help address developmental delays and improve a child’s overall well-being. By the factors that contribute to developmental delay, we can work towards creating a supportive environment that promotes healthy growth and development in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the examination, she mentions that the lights are bothering her eyes and the doctor observes a purpuric rash on her chest. Her respiratory rate is 22/min, heart rate is 140/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. Which of the following tests should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Serum lactate
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Performing a lumbar puncture is not recommended for patients with meningococcal septicaemia, which is a contraindication. In cases of suspected meningitis and sepsis, a coagulation screen and blood glucose may be ordered in secondary care, while blood cultures and serum lactate are typically included in the sepsis 6 protocol.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby, born at 38 weeks, is brought in due to increasing fussiness around 30-60 minutes after feeds, frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhea. The baby has not experienced fever, urticaria, angioedema, or wheezing. The baby is exclusively formula-fed and has mild eczema in the flexural areas. The baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's symptoms?
Your Answer: Anti-reflux medication trial
Correct Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula trial
Explanation:Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. Her mother noticed her face twitching and mouth drooling while trying to wake her up this morning. The episode lasted for 30 seconds and the girl was fully aware of what was happening. The girl has been feeling drowsy and confused for the past 15 minutes. She has been healthy and has no medical conditions. Her mother is concerned that she has been staying up late for the past few nights, which may have contributed to her fatigue. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile spasms
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:The correct answer is benign rolandic epilepsy, which is a syndrome that typically affects children between the ages of 4-12. The main symptom is a focal seizure that occurs before or after bedtime, involving facial twitching, drooling, and twitching of one limb or side of the body. The EEG will show centrotemporal spikes, indicating that the seizure originates in the rolandic fissure. This condition has a good prognosis and may not require treatment depending on the severity and frequency of the seizures.
Incorrect answers include absence seizure, infantile spasms, and juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Absence seizure is a generalised seizure that does not involve limb twitching or focal symptoms. Infantile spasms typically occur in infants and are associated with developmental delays. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a focal syndrome that involves myoclonic jerks and daytime absences, which can progress to secondarily generalised seizures.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia
Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl from Manchester is presented to the emergency room by her father with complaints of abdominal discomfort for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, there is a suspicion of appendicitis and a recommendation for hospitalization is made. However, the patient refuses to be admitted as she has a concert to attend tonight. Despite being fully informed of the potential consequences of untreated appendicitis, she insists on leaving. What is the best course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: A psychiatric opinion is mandatory before further management
Correct Answer: His mother may overrule his wishes
Explanation:In England and Wales, a child can provide consent for treatment, but cannot decline it. The demonstration of capacity, as per the Fraser guidelines, is not a significant factor.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 50
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A concerned mother brings her 4-year-old child to the Emergency Department with a ‘barking cough’. The child has been experiencing ‘noisy breathing’ and a fever for the past 48 hours. The child is eating and drinking, but not as much as usual. The child is urinating regularly and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the child is alert, well, and smiling. The child is clearly suffering from a cold. There is no stridor, and vital signs are normal. The chest is clear, without signs of recession. The diagnosis is croup.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give a single dose of dexamethasone orally, and discharge home with clear advice on the signs of worsening croup
Explanation:Croup is a viral illness that affects young children, causing a sudden-onset barking cough and upper airway inflammation. Mild cases can be treated with a single dose of oral dexamethasone, while moderate to severe cases require admission and nebulised adrenaline. This child has mild croup and should be given a single dose of oral dexamethasone before being discharged home with clear instructions on when to seek further medical attention. If the child develops any signs of respiratory distress, they should be taken to the Emergency Department immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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