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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old pharmaceutical representative is admitted to the Emergency Department after collapsing during a presentation about one of his company's medicines. He experienced acute stridor, shortness of breath, and swollen lips and throat suggestive of angio-oedema. Treatment with hydrocortisone and adrenaline was effective. Further questioning revealed that he had recently started taking a new antihypertensive medication. The following investigations were conducted: Haemoglobin, White cell count (WCC), Platelets, Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), and Creatinine. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his presentation?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Common Blood Pressure Medications and Their Side Effects
Ramipril, Amlodipine, Atenolol, Bendroflumethiazide, and Indapamide are all medications commonly used to treat high blood pressure. However, each medication comes with its own set of side effects.
Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause cough in some patients and increase the risk of angio-oedema. Antihistamines are not effective in treating angio-oedema caused by Ramipril, but fresh frozen plasma can be used. Other side effects of Ramipril include dizziness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, chest pain, weakness, and a deterioration in renal function.
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause peripheral edema, nausea, stomach pains, dizziness, palpitations, and flushing.
Atenolol is a β-blocker that can cause constipation, dry mouth, cold hands and feet, vivid nightmares, dizziness, postural symptoms, and tiredness.
Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal side effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, and indigestion, as well as headache, dizziness, numbness/tingling, and blurred vision.
Indapamide is a thiazide-like medication that can cause urinary frequency, dizziness, postural symptoms, constipation or diarrhea, tiredness, headache, and nausea.
It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man who is receiving treatment for alcoholism presents with a week-long history of pins and needles in his right arm. He continues to consume over 20 units of alcohol per day and is taking disulfiram and citalopram. On examination, there are no signs of weakness, abnormal movements, or changes in tone, and his sensation is intact in all dermatomes. A blood test reveals a clinically significant result of Mg2+ 0.5 mmol/L (0.65 - 1.05). The patient is prescribed oral magnesium sulfate, and his doctor informs him of a potential side effect of the medication. What side effect is the patient likely to be warned about?
Your Answer: Vomiting
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Severe diarrhoea is the main side effect that limits the dosage of magnesium salts. Hypomagnesaemia can cause symptoms similar to hypokalemia, such as paraesthesia. Heavy alcohol consumption can lead to magnesium loss from tissues and increased urinary magnesium loss. Oral magnesium sulfate is the treatment for hypomagnesaemia above 0.4 mmol/L, while intravenous magnesium sulfate is used for levels below 0.4 mmol/L. Although constipation resulting from paralytic ileus is a rare side effect of oral magnesium salts, severe diarrhoea is the more common clinical presentation. Loss of appetite is not a known side effect of oral magnesium salts, and nausea is only seen in cases of magnesium salt overdose, not at therapeutic levels.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 93-year-old man was admitted to your medical ward in Scotland a week ago, having developed pneumonia. He has a history of dementia, has had two previous small strokes and lives in a residential home. His dementia has been worsening for 5 years. He has difficulty remembering who the nursing home staff are. The staff report that his appetite is poor and that he has gradually lost weight over the last few months.
He is treated with antibiotics with good effect. A week later, a swallowing assessment is performed by the speech and language therapist, which suggests a high risk of aspiration. As a result of this assessment, the care team wish to stop him taking food and drink by mouth and start intravenous (IV) fluids.
How should you proceed next?Your Answer: Talk to the patient, explaining what you want to do and why, and listen to his answers
Explanation:Involving Patients in Decision Making: The Importance of Communication
Explanation: When it comes to making decisions about a patient’s care, it is crucial to involve the patient in the process. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 emphasizes that it cannot be assumed that any patient is incapable of making a decision about their care. Therefore, it is important to talk to the patient, explain what you want to do and why, and listen to their answers.
It is also important to note that relatives are not allowed to agree or refuse management for the patient. While they can provide valuable input, the patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration.
In the scenario of starting an IV, it is essential to speak to the patient first before proceeding. The patient’s consent should be obtained before any medical intervention is carried out.
If there are concerns about the patient’s capacity to make decisions, it is important to assess their understanding of the information provided. This can be done by giving them the information and checking whether they understand what has been said. Written information can also be provided to supplement the conversation.
In summary, effective communication with the patient is crucial in involving them in decision making about their care. The patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration, and any concerns about capacity should be assessed through communication and information sharing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the Labour Ward to assess a 29-year-old woman who is receiving consultant-led care for gestational diabetes. She was induced at 38+5 weeks’ gestation and has been on oxytocin for augmentation for one hour. She is currently experiencing regular contractions, with six to seven every ten minutes, each lasting at least 45 s. The cervix is dilated to 5 cm. The cardiotocograph (CTG) displays a fetal heart rate baseline of 130 bpm, variability of 20 bpm, accelerations and variable decelerations lasting > 60 s, with a reduced baseline variability in up to 50% of contractions for 30 minutes or more.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Continue with augmentation, increasing the oxytocin infusion, as per protocol
Correct Answer: Reduce the oxytocin infusion rate
Explanation:Management of Uterine Hyperstimulation Syndrome and Suspicious CTG in Labor
Uterine hyperstimulation syndrome can lead to a suspicious CTG, which requires prompt management to prevent fetal distress. If the patient presents with uterine hyperstimulation syndrome caused by oxytocin infusion, the first step is to reduce the infusion rate and review the CTG in half an hour. If the CTG shows acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration for more than three minutes, an emergency Caesarean section should be performed if the patient’s cervix is not fully dilated. Instrumental delivery, in the form of forceps or ventouse, is only indicated under certain circumstances, and the patient must be fully dilated. Increasing the oxytocin infusion rate should be avoided as it exacerbates the symptoms of uterine hyperstimulation. When the CTG is normal, no action is required. Early decelerations occur with uterine contractions and are associated with compression of the fetal head during contraction, leading to vagal nerve stimulation and slowing of the fetal heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her doctor seeking advice on contraceptive options post-childbirth. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and does not intend to breastfeed. When can she start this treatment?
Your Answer: Immediately following childbirth
Explanation:It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth. The manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK, Nexplanon®, recommends waiting at least 4 weeks postpartum for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It may take some time for fertility to return after pregnancy.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 4-year-old child is brought to your office by their mother, complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for a few months. The mother reports that the diarrhoea does not have a foul smell but sometimes contains undigested food. The child does not experience any abdominal pain or bloating. Upon measuring their height and weight, it is found to be appropriate for their age. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Toddler's diarrhoea
Explanation:Toddler’s diarrhoea is a harmless condition that does not cause any issues for the child. It occurs due to the rapid movement of food through their digestive system and may contain undigested food particles. No treatment is necessary. However, it is advisable to monitor the child’s growth by tracking their height and weight to rule out any serious underlying conditions such as coeliac disease, which may cause the child to drop centiles on the growth chart. Gastroenteritis is unlikely to persist for several months, and it is probable that other members of the household would also be affected.
Understanding Diarrhoea in Children
Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.
Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During the examination, no abnormalities were detected. However, upon reviewing the blood test results sent by the nurse before the appointment, the following values were noted:
Na+ 130 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 85 µmol/l
The patient's medications are now being reviewed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, but not of aspirin or bisoprolol. Bisoprolol may cause bradycardia, while aspirin may cause dyspepsia. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia in patients with reduced renal function.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A patient's arterial blood gas shows the following:
pH 7.30
O2 13 kPa
CO2 3.0 kPa
HCO3− 15.0 mmol/l
Which of the following does the above blood gas picture represent for a patient in their 60s?Your Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Acid-Base Imbalances: Differentiating Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis, Respiratory Acidosis, Compensated Respiratory Acidosis, Metabolic Acidosis, and Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis
Acid-base imbalances can be challenging to interpret, but understanding the underlying mechanisms can help healthcare professionals identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of acid-base imbalances:
Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis: The patient is acidotic, but the CO2 is low, indicating compensation. The lowered HCO3- confirms metabolic acidosis, but calculating the anion gap can help identify the cause.
Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, indicating respiratory acidosis.
Compensated Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, but the pH is normal due to compensation.
Metabolic Acidosis: The HCO3- is low, indicating metabolic acidosis. However, if there is partial compensation with lowered CO2, it can be classified as partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis: The patient is acidotic, not alkalotic, so this is not the correct diagnosis.
By understanding the different types of acid-base imbalances and their underlying mechanisms, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The radiographer calls you in to speak to the patient, as the gestational sac is small for dates and she is unable to demonstrate a fetal heart rate. On further questioning, the patient reports an episode of bleeding while abroad at nine weeks’ gestation, which settled spontaneously.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:Different Types of Miscarriage: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, each with its own symptoms and diagnosis.
Missed miscarriage is an incidental finding where the patient presents without symptoms, but the ultrasound shows a small gestational sac and no fetal heart rate.
Complete miscarriage is when all products of conception have been passed, and the uterus is empty and contracted.
Incomplete miscarriage is when some, but not all, products of conception have been expelled, and the patient experiences vaginal bleeding with an open or closed os.
Inevitable miscarriage is when the pregnancy will inevitably be lost, and the patient presents with active bleeding, abdominal pain, and an open cervical os.
Threatened miscarriage is when there is an episode of bleeding, but the pregnancy is unaffected, and the patient experiences cyclical abdominal pain and dark red-brown bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and ultrasound confirms the presence of a gestational sac and fetal heart rate.
It is important to seek medical attention if any symptoms of miscarriage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old motorcyclist is brought into resus after a bike versus lorry road-traffic collision. Following a primary survey, he is believed to have multiple lower limb fractures. He is scheduled for a trauma CT scan. While preparing for transfer to the imaging department, the patient becomes agitated and lashes out at the nurse caring for him. The patient has become more confused and tries to bite the doctor who has attended to review him. A decision is made to intubate the patient to prevent them from causing further self-inflicted injuries.
What medication would be most appropriate to use?Your Answer: Atracurium
Correct Answer: Suxamethonium
Explanation:Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs
Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.
While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.
It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his left testicle. The pain started about an hour ago and he rates it as 10/10. He has experienced this pain three times before, but he has never sought medical attention as it usually goes away within an hour. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness of the scrotum.
After being admitted, the pain and swelling begin to subside.
What treatment should be administered in this case based on his presentation?Your Answer: Elective surgical fixation
Correct Answer: Emergency surgical fixation
Explanation:In cases of intermittent testicular torsion, prophylactic fixing should be considered. This is especially important for a boy who has experienced repeated episodes of acute testicular pain. Emergency surgical fixation is the most appropriate treatment, as the patient is at high risk of immediate retorsion. Elective surgical fixation is not quick enough for this patient’s presentation. Orchiectomy is only considered in cases where surgery finds dead tissue or the torsion has lasted for more than 24 hours. Co-amoxiclav is not indicated as there is no indication of infection. No treatment is not an option, as prophylactic fixing is necessary even after detorsion.
Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).
The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?Your Answer: abdominoperineal resection
Correct Answer: Anterior resection
Explanation:Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries
Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:
1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.
2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.
3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.
4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.
5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
A + - + + + -
B - + - + - +
C + - - + + -
D + - - + - +
E - + - - - -Your Answer: C
Explanation:Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.
If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.
In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are evaluating the accuracy of a new blood test to diagnose ulcerative colitis in elderly patients and come across a study that analyzed its use in 200 individuals, ten of whom were histologically diagnosed with the condition. According to the study, the blood test correctly identified seven patients as positive and 188 patients as negative. What is the sensitivity of this blood test for diagnosing ulcerative colitis in elderly patients in this study?
Your Answer: 99%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing
Medical testing is an essential tool for diagnosing and treating various conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the accuracy of these tests to make informed decisions about patient care. Two important measures of accuracy are sensitivity and specificity.
Sensitivity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives (patients with the condition who test positive) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (patients with the condition who test negative). For example, if a test correctly identifies 7 out of 10 patients with ulcerative colitis, its sensitivity is 70%.
On the other hand, specificity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who do not have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives (patients without the condition who test negative) by the sum of true negatives and false positives (patients without the condition who test positive).
Understanding sensitivity and specificity can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman in her first pregnancy presents at 30 weeks’ gestation with an episode of antepartum haemorrhage. She noticed fresh red blood on wiping this morning and followed by spotting since. She denies any pain, and the abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination. The baby is moving well. This is the first episode of bleeding in this pregnancy. She is under midwifery-led care but tells you she has a scan booked for 32 weeks. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage?Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:Antepartum Haemorrhage: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Antepartum haemorrhage can be caused by various conditions, including placenta praevia, placental abruption, genitourinary infection, and premature labour. Placenta praevia occurs when the placenta covers the internal cervical os, leading to painless vaginal bleeding. Risk factors include maternal age, multiparity, and smoking. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound scanning, and close monitoring is necessary to prevent rebleeding. Placental abruption can be revealed or concealed, with the former causing significant abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, while the latter is confined within the uterus. Genitourinary infection should also be considered, although this patient’s urinalysis is unremarkable. Premature labour, which is associated with cyclical abdominal pain, is another possible cause of antepartum bleeding. However, this patient presents without pain. A thorough differential diagnosis is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man was prescribed antibiotics for a UTI by his GP a few days ago. He also has a medical history of G6PD deficiency. He returned to the GP surgery a few days later, feeling generally ill, with a pale appearance and jaundice.
Which antibiotic could have been prescribed that may have caused these symptoms?Your Answer: cephalexin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Drug Safety in G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a genetic disorder that can cause acute haemolytic anaemia in response to certain drugs and foods. Patients with G6PD deficiency should avoid fava beans and drugs such as quinolones, nitrofurantoin, sulfonamides, and antimalarials, which can trigger haemolysis. Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone that falls under the definite risk category for haemolysis. However, penicillins, macrolides, cephalosporins, and chloramphenicol are generally considered safe in G6PD deficiency. Co-amoxiclav, a type of penicillin, would not have caused symptoms in a patient with G6PD deficiency. Erythromycin, a macrolide, and cephalexin, a cephalosporin, are also safe in G6PD deficiency. Chloramphenicol, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is also considered safe. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of drug safety in G6PD deficiency to avoid triggering haemolysis in affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever and difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of osteoarthritis, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease, and takes atorvastatin, amlodipine, and codeine regularly. During the examination, she appears unwell, and there are splinter haemorrhages on her nails. A systolic murmur in the mitral area is audible. Her vital signs are a pulse of 100/min, a respiratory rate of 18/min, a blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, and a temperature of 38°C. The diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis is made based on clinical findings, and blood cultures reveal Streptococcus viridans. Appropriate IV fluids and gentamicin are administered, and she recovers from the infection. However, a few days later, she develops acute tubular necrosis.
What is the most likely cause of her acute tubular necrosis?Your Answer: Dehydration
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage
The correct answer is Gentamicin. This aminoglycoside antibiotic is known to be nephrotoxic and can cause acute tubular necrosis, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment.
Amlodipine is not associated with kidney damage.
Codeine is also not known to be nephrotoxic, but may require dose adjustment in patients with kidney disease to prevent toxicity.
Dehydration can cause acute kidney injury, but in this case, the patient has received appropriate IV fluids.Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing pain in the lower left abdomen which has worsened throughout the day. He also feels feverish, nauseous, and has vomited twice in the past hour. He cannot recall the last time he passed urine or stool and mentions having a small painless lump on his lower left abdomen for the past month which he has not sought medical attention for.
Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and clammy. He is tachycardic and normotensive. His abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to touch, with evidence of localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Additionally, you notice a 2 cm x 2 cm erythematosus lump in the left inguinal area which is now extremely painful to touch.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Ask the patient to provide you with a urine sample
Correct Answer: Call 999 and arrange an urgent assessment of your patient in hospital
Explanation:It is not recommended to manually reduce strangulated inguinal hernias while awaiting surgery. In the scenario of a patient with an acute abdomen and signs of a strangulated hernia, the appropriate response is to call 999 for urgent assessment and inform the surgical registrar on-call. Attempting to manually reduce the hernia can worsen the patient’s condition. Requesting a urine sample or discussing an appendicectomy is not appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Strangulated Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the superficial inguinal ring. This can happen directly through the deep inguinal ring or indirectly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Hernias should be reducible, meaning that the herniated tissue can be pushed back into place in the abdomen through the defect using a hand. However, if a hernia cannot be reduced, it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia, which is at risk of strangulation. Strangulation is a surgical emergency where the blood supply to the herniated tissue is compromised, leading to ischemia or necrosis.
Symptoms of a strangulated hernia include pain, fever, an increase in the size of a hernia or erythema of the overlying skin, peritonitic features such as guarding and localised tenderness, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischemia. Imaging can be used in cases of suspected strangulation, but it is not considered necessary and is more useful in excluding other pathologies. Repair involves immediate surgery, either from an open or laparoscopic approach with a mesh technique. This is the same technique used in elective hernia repair, however, any dead bowel will also have to be removed. While waiting for the surgery, it is not recommended that you manually reduce strangulated hernias, as this can cause more generalised peritonitis. Strangulation occurs in around 1 in 500 cases of all inguinal hernias, and indications that a hernia is at risk of strangulation include episodes of pain in a hernia that was previously asymptomatic and irreducible hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding varicoceles is accurate?
Your Answer: Having a varicocele is a risk factor for deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Over 80% occur on the left side
Explanation:Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal injury. He undergoes a laparotomy, bowel resection, and end colostomy, and requires a 6-unit blood transfusion due to an associated vascular injury. After a prolonged recovery, he is paralyzed and ventilated for 2 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is given total parenteral nutrition and eventually weaned off the ventilator and transferred to the ward. During a routine blood test, the following results are observed:
Full blood count
Hb 11.3 g/dl
Platelets 267 x 109/l
WBC 10.1 x109/l
Urea and electrolytes
Na+ 131 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 2.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 µmol/l
Liver function tests
Bilirubin 25 µmol/l
ALP 445 u/l
ALT 89 u/l
γGT 103 u/l
What is the most probable underlying cause for the noted abnormalities?Your Answer: Anastomotic leak
Correct Answer: Total parenteral nutrition
Explanation:Liver function tests are often affected by TPN, which can cause cholestasis but it is unlikely to lead to the formation of gallstones as seen in the image. While blood transfusion reactions may cause hepatitis, they usually present earlier and with changes in haemoglobin, which is rare in modern times.
Understanding Total Parenteral Nutrition
Total parenteral nutrition is a commonly used method of providing nutrition to surgical patients who are nutritionally compromised. The bags used in this method contain a combination of glucose, lipids, and essential electrolytes, with the exact composition being determined by the patient’s nutritional requirements. While it is possible to infuse this nutrition peripherally, doing so may result in thrombophlebitis. As such, longer-term infusions should be administered into a central vein, preferably via a PICC line.
Complications associated with total parenteral nutrition are related to sepsis, refeeding syndromes, and hepatic dysfunction. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of these complications and adjust the nutrition accordingly. By understanding the basics of total parenteral nutrition, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care to their patients and ensure their nutritional needs are being met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with epilepsy visits the well woman clinic complaining of weight gain, acne, and hair loss. Her thyroid function is within normal limits. She is concerned that her epilepsy medication may be the culprit. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Valproate
Explanation:Sodium Valproate and PCOS-Like Syndrome
Sodium valproate is a medication that can cause a PCOS-like syndrome in some women who take it. This syndrome is characterized by weight gain, acne, and hirsutism. However, these symptoms gradually resolve once the medication is discontinued. For young female patients with epilepsy, lamotrigine is often the first choice agent as it does not cause a PCOS-like syndrome. Unlike carbamazepine or phenytoin, lamotrigine is not an enzyme inducer, which means it does not interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Topiramate, on the other hand, has been studied as a potential weight loss agent. While it is not associated with a PCOS-like syndrome, it is important to note that all medications have potential side effects and should be discussed with a healthcare provider before use. Overall, it is important for women to be aware of the potential effects of medications on their reproductive and metabolic health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a gradual blurring of vision in his right eye. He underwent cataract surgery on the same eye five years ago. Despite wearing reading glasses, he noticed no improvement. During the examination, his left eye had a visual acuity of 6/18, while his right eye had a visual acuity of 6/9. What possible diagnosis could explain his symptoms in the right eye?
Your Answer: Myopia
Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Refraction
Posterior Capsule Opacification
Posterior capsule opacification is a common complication after cataract surgery. It can cause blurring of vision, but is harmless and can be treated with a laser procedure called YAG laser capsulotomy.Anterior Capsule Opacification
Anterior capsule opacification does not occur after cataract surgery as most of the anterior capsule would have been removed during the procedure.Hypermetropia and Myopia
Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, and myopia, also known as short-sightedness, can cause blurring of vision if spectacles of the correct refraction were not prescribed. Hypermetropia requires a convex spectacle lens, while myopia requires a concave spectacle lens.Presbyopia
Presbyopia is the normal loss of near focusing ability that occurs with age. However, if wearing reading glasses does not improve blurring of vision, presbyopia may not be the correct diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. Despite the bleeding, the child seems calm and free of discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital disorder that can cause malformation in the small intestine. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to acid release and ulceration of the small intestine. This condition is the most common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years, presenting with symptoms such as bright red rectal bleeding, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Other conditions that can cause bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract include oesophagitis, which is typically caused by acid reflux and presents with heartburn, and anal fissures, which are often painful or itchy and commonly occur in those who have been constipated. However, these conditions are not typically associated with transfusion.
Necrotising enterocolitis is another condition that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and severe illness, but it is more common in neonates, particularly those born prematurely. Meckel’s diverticulum remains the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in young children.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his buttocks. The vascular team is consulted as they suspect he may have peripheral arterial disease. He experiences pain while walking, which subsides within 2 minutes of resting, but reports no pain in his calves. Angiography is recommended. Which vessel is most likely affected based on his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliac stenosis
Explanation:When a person experiences claudication, the affected vessels can be determined by the location of their pain. If the pain is mainly in the buttocks, it is likely that the iliac vessels are stenosed. However, if the pain is mainly in the calves, it is more likely that the femoral artery is affected. Other vessels listed are located below the distribution of the femoral artery, so symptoms would occur lower than this.
Understanding Peripheral Arterial Disease: Intermittent Claudication
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) can present in three main patterns, one of which is intermittent claudication. This condition is characterized by aching or burning in the leg muscles following walking, which is typically relieved within minutes of stopping. Patients can usually walk for a predictable distance before the symptoms start, and the pain is not present at rest.
To assess for intermittent claudication, healthcare professionals should check the femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis, and dorsalis pedis pulses. They should also perform an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) test, which measures the ratio of blood pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. A normal ABPI result is 1, while a result between 0.6-0.9 indicates claudication. A result between 0.3-0.6 suggests rest pain, and a result below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss.
Duplex ultrasound is the first-line investigation for PAD, while magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) should be performed prior to any intervention. Understanding the symptoms and assessment of intermittent claudication is crucial for early detection and management of PAD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 6-year-old boy that has been brought in by his mother with a sudden onset of fever and a sore throat this morning. His mother informs you that he is prone to tonsillitis and would like some antibiotics as they had worked well previously.
On examination he is alert, sitting upright and unaided with a slight forward lean. He has a temperature of 38.5 ºC, heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate is normal. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles, but you do note a mild inspiratory fine-pitched stridor.
What would be the most appropriate next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:If acute epiglottitis is suspected, do not attempt to examine the throat. Instead, contact the paediatrician on call and arrange for the child to be reviewed and admitted to the hospital on the same day. This condition can be life-threatening and requires urgent assessment and treatment in secondary care. Hospital transfer should be done by a blue light ambulance. Treatment usually involves intravenous antibiotics after securing the airway, which may require intubation. Nebulised adrenaline may also be used to stabilise the airway, and intravenous steroids are often given. It would be clinically unsafe to advise expectant management or prescribe immediate or delayed antibiotics for this condition.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints of feeling down, difficulty sleeping and frequent headaches. She reports that these symptoms occur around the same time every month and cease just before her menstrual cycle. Sophie is worried about how these symptoms are impacting her work performance but does not have any immediate plans to start a family.
What is the recommended treatment for Sophie's likely diagnosis at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drospirenone‐containing COC taken continuously
Explanation:Premenstrual syndrome can be treated with a combination of oral contraceptives and SSRIs, along with cognitive behavioral therapy. While the copper intrauterine device is effective for long-term contraception, it does not address the hormonal changes that cause PMS symptoms. The most appropriate option for Lydia is a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill containing drospirenone, which can alleviate her symptoms. Progesterone-only contraception is not recommended for PMS, and sodium valproate is not a recognized treatment for this condition. It is important to take the COC continuously for maximum benefit.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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As an FY-1 doctor working on a gynaecology ward, you have a postmenopausal patient who has been diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. She is in good health otherwise. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia who are postmenopausal, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to prevent malignant progression. A total hysterectomy alone is not sufficient for postmenopausal women. It is also not recommended to undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy without removing the endometrium. A watch and wait approach is not advisable due to the potential for malignancy, and radiotherapy is not recommended as the condition is not yet malignant.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.
Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.
Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.
Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.
Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.
In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman from the UK presents with lethargy, and dizziness when she gets out of bed in the mornings and stands from sitting. She has noticed that her appetite has been reduced for the last month but has not noticed any weight loss. On examination you notice that she has an area of hypopigmented skin on her back, but hyperpigmented skin around her mouth, and you suspect a diagnosis of Addison’s disease.
What is the most common cause of Addison’s disease in the UK?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction
Explanation:Addison’s disease is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction in the UK, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Therefore, it is crucial to screen individuals with Addison’s for other autoimmune conditions like thyroid diseases and diabetes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a rare cause of Addison’s that typically presents in childhood with symptoms such as failure to thrive and grow. While tuberculosis is the most common cause of Addison’s worldwide, it is not the primary cause in the UK. Adrenal haemorrhage, which can result from severe bacterial infections like meningococcal, can also lead to Addison’s disease in a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Finally, metastatic cancer is a rare but significant cause of addisonism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left testicle that started four hours ago. Upon examination, his left testis is visibly swollen and extremely tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular Torsion Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient’s history and examination. To confirm this, it is essential to perform a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The symptoms and signs presented by the patient are highly indicative of testicular torsion, and it is crucial to address this condition promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct a thorough examination and perform the necessary tests to confirm the diagnosis. Once confirmed, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent further complications. It is essential to act quickly in such cases to avoid any long-term damage to the testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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