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Question 1
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman has presented with recurrent respiratory distress over the last 4 years. She has also complained of wheezing at night and coughing up of tenacious sputum, which was occasionally black. Blood reports showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 6.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Eosinophil count 1.5 × 109/l 0–0.4 × 109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.1 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) 2800 IU/l 1–87 IU/l
Which of the following is the most likely finding on a chest computerised tomography (CT) scan?Your Answer: Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Bronchiectasis and Their Possible Underlying Causes
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become permanently damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections. However, bronchiectasis can have different patterns and locations, which may indicate different underlying causes or associated conditions. Here are some examples:
– Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes: This may suggest allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) or allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis (ABPM), which are allergic reactions to Aspergillus fungi. ABPA can also occur without bronchiectasis, but the presence of bronchiectasis can worsen the prognosis. Other possible differentials include sarcoidosis, Churg–Strauss syndrome, bronchocentric granulomatosis, or eosinophilic pneumonia.
– Bronchiectasis mainly in upper lobes: This may be seen in chronic asthma, but usually, it is focal and limited to one or two lobes.
– Central bronchiectasis in mainly a single lobe: This may also suggest chronic asthma.
– Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs: This may suggest interstitial lung disease, which is a group of conditions that cause inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.
– Diffuse bronchiectasis involving mid-lung fields: This may suggest immotile Ciliary syndrome, which is a genetic disorder that affects the function of Ciliary, the tiny hair-like structures that help move mucous out of the airways.In summary, the location and pattern of bronchiectasis can provide clues to the underlying cause or associated conditions, but further tests and evaluations are needed to confirm the diagnosis and guide the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: The patient should be intubated and ventilated and transferred to the intensive care unit
Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)
Explanation:Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients
The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
(LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
A 180 100 7 3
B 270 150 8 3
C 180 150 7 4
D 270 110 8 3
E 180 100 7 2Your Answer: Option C
Explanation:Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions
When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.
To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.
Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
temperature 36.6 °C
heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice
Explanation:Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax
Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:
Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.
Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.
Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.
Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.
Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.
In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: High-flow oxygen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.
Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.
Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions
Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.
Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 61-year-old electrician presents with a 4-month history of cough and weight loss. On further questioning, the patient reports experiencing some episodes of haemoptysis. He has a long-standing history of hypothyroidism, which is well managed with thyroxine 100 µg daily. The patient smokes ten cigarettes a day and has no other significant medical history. Blood tests and an X-ray are carried out, which reveal possible signs of asbestosis. A CT scan is ordered to investigate further.
What is the typical CT scan finding of asbestosis in the lung?Your Answer: Honeycombing of the lung with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Diseases: Radiological Findings
Asbestosis is a lung disease characterized by interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis, resulting in honeycombing of the lungs with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques. Smoking can accelerate its presentation. On a chest X-ray, bilateral reticulonodular opacities in the lower zones are observed, while a CT scan shows increased interlobular septae, parenchymal bands, and honeycombing. Silicosis, on the other hand, presents with irregular linear shadows and hilar lymphadenopathy, which can progress to PMF with compensatory emphysema. Tuberculosis is characterized by cavitation of upper zones, while pneumoconiosis shows parenchymal nodules and lower zone emphysema. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of these lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions
When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.
Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.
Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that his trachea is centralized and there is decreased chest expansion on the left side, accompanied by a dull percussion note and diminished breath sounds. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pleural effusion
Explanation:Clinical Signs for Common Respiratory Conditions
Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are common respiratory conditions that require accurate diagnosis for proper management. Here are the clinical signs to look out for:
Pleural effusion: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, ‘stony dull’ or dull percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pneumothorax: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, hyper-resonant percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pulmonary embolism: respiratory examination is likely to be normal, there may be subtle signs related to the pulmonary embolism, eg pleural rub, or due to a chronic underlying chest disease.
Pneumonia: trachea central, chest expansion likely to be normal, increased tactile vocal fremitus over area(s) of consolidation, dull percussion note over areas of consolidation, reduced air entry/bronchial breath sounds/crepitations on auscultation.
Pulmonary edema: trachea central, chest expansion normal, normal vocal fremitus, resonant percussion note, likely to hear coarse basal crackles on auscultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis
When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.
Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.
Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.
COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.
Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.
In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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