00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation? ...

    Correct

    • Which patient among these needs diagnostic evaluation?

      Your Answer: A 15-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea who has normal secondary sexual characteristics

      Explanation:

      Puberty and Menarche

      Puberty typically starts around the age of 10, with menarche occurring between 11 and 15 years old. If there are no signs of secondary sexual characteristic development by the age of 14, it may be necessary to investigate. However, if other secondary sexual characteristics are developing normally, it is reasonable to wait until the age of 16 before considering further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There has been no obvious precipitating injury and no previous experience. The pain is worse on movement and there is a grating sensation if she moves the arm too quickly. She also gets pain at night, particularly when she lies on the affected shoulder.

      On examination there is no obvious erythema or swelling. Passive abduction is painful between 60 and 120 degrees. She is unable to abduct the arm herself past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      The individual is exhibiting a typical symptom known as the painful arc, which is indicative of shoulder impingement. This condition is often caused by supraspinatus tendonitis.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following elderly patients would you use a QRISK2 risk assessment tool to decide whether or not to initiate treatment with a lipid-lowering agent?

      Your Answer: A 48-year-old man with established CVD

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Lipid Modification

      The NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181) provides advice on assessing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk for primary prevention. The guidance recommends using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years. However, the tool should not be used for people with type 1 diabetes or those with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are already at increased risk of CVD. For people with type 2 diabetes, the QRISK2 tool should be used to assess CVD risk. It is also important to note that a risk assessment tool should not be used for individuals who are at high risk of developing CVD due to familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited disorders of lipid metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment, as this type of injury is often caused by high-velocity incidents during activities like grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal until the following day is not acceptable and may increase the risk of infection. Irrigation and antibiotics should not be used without proper assessment, as this may cause the foreign body to remain in the eye for a longer period of time and increase the risk of infection. It is important to note that, since the foreign body is organic material, it is necessary for the patient to be seen by the ophthalmology department on the same day rather than attempting to remove it at the practice.

      Corneal foreign body is a condition characterized by eye pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, watering eye, and red eye. It is important to refer patients to ophthalmology if there is a suspected penetrating eye injury due to high-velocity injuries or sharp objects, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, or a chemical injury has occurred. Foreign bodies composed of organic material should also be referred to ophthalmology as they are associated with a higher risk of infection and complications. Additionally, foreign bodies in or near the centre of the cornea and any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or significant reduction in visual acuity should be referred to ophthalmology. For further information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has a history of febrile seizures and anxiety but is not on any regular medications. She is seeking advice on whether she should take any vitamin supplements during her pregnancy. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D 10mcg and Folic acid 400mcg

      Explanation:

      All pregnant women are now advised to take 10mcg of vitamin D throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, low dose folic acid is recommended for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy for all women. However, those with pregnancies at a higher risk of neural tube defects should take 5mg of folic acid during the first 12 weeks. This includes couples where either partner has a neural tube defect or a family history of such defects, those who have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or women with coeliac disease, diabetes mellitus, sickle-cell anaemia, or who are taking antiepileptic medication.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes

      Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.

      To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.

      Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You review a 65-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) following clinical assessment and spirometry at your practice.

      Which of the following tests should always be performed in addition to spirometry in the initial diagnosis of COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for COPD

      In addition to spirometry, it is recommended that patients with COPD undergo several diagnostic tests at the time of diagnosis. These tests include a chest x-ray to rule out other potential lung pathologies, a full blood count to assess for anemia or polycythemia, and a calculation of body mass index.

      Depending on the patient’s history and examination findings, other diagnostic tests may be necessary. For example, if asthma is suspected, serial peak flow measurements may be indicated. If signs or symptoms of cor pulmonale are present, an ECG or echocardiogram may be necessary. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage COPD in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.

      Which is the single most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic

      Explanation:

      Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression

      Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.

      What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.

      Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.

      ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.

      It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing difficulties over the last 2 months. She has been an avid swimmer for the past 20 years. During the examination, Rinne's test is positive on her left ear but negative on her right ear. Weber's test shows sound localizing to the right side.

      What is the type of hearing loss that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided conductive hearing loss

      Explanation:

      If Rinne’s test is negative, it indicates that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, resulting in a conductive hearing loss in the affected ear. A positive test is considered normal when air conduction is greater than bone conduction. Therefore, the diagnosis of left-sided conductive hearing loss is correct, and Weber’s test would localize to the affected side in unilateral conductive hearing loss.

      Left-sided mixed hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and on an audiogram, mixed hearing loss would show both bone and air conduction at abnormal levels (>20 dB) with a difference of at least >15 dB between them.

      Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss is also an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and Rinne’s test would be positive in the left ear.

      Right-sided conductive hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because a positive Rinne’s test indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is considered normal.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his neck which he first noticed two months ago. He tried several homeopathic medications but the lump steadily increased in size. He also noticed some shortness of breath and sweating at night. On examination, he has a large mass that is firm, non-tender and not fixed to deeper structures or to the skin. You suspect the mass is lymph nodes. He is slightly pale but no other masses are palpable. His temperature is 38°C.
      Which of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excision biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Unilateral Lymphadenopathy: Excision Biopsy as the Best Option

      Unilateral lymphadenopathy without pain is most likely caused by lymphoma, either Hodgkin’s or non-Hodgkin’s. Tuberculosis is a less likely diagnosis but should not be ruled out, especially in patients with risk factors. Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) suggest Hodgkin’s disease. Excisional node biopsy is the best diagnostic option as it allows for the identification of lymphomas based on lymph node morphology. CT scans of the thorax and abdomen are used for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma, while fine-needle aspiration biopsy is less helpful as it fails to reveal the lymph node architecture and may not retrieve Reed-Sternberg cells. MRI scans of the neck are not commonly used for lymphoma assessment, while ultrasonography is commonly used for thyroid lump detection and assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypermetropia

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle closure glaucoma, while myopia is linked to primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.

      Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.

      The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with a congenital heart condition. He is prescribed propranolol.

      The latest hospital letter following a recent appointment has advised an increase in his dosage from 0.25 mg/kg three times daily to a dose of 0.5 mg/kg three times daily.

      His current weight is 15 kg. Propranolol oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 5 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Propranolol Dose

      When calculating the dose of propranolol, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the daily dose required. For example, if the patient weighs 12 kg and requires a daily dose of 0.5 mg/kg, the total daily dose would be 6 mg TDS.

      To determine the amount of propranolol needed, it is important to know the concentration of the medication. In this case, the concentration is 5 mg/5 ml, which can be simplified to 1 mg/1 ml. Therefore, the total daily dose of 6 mg would be equivalent to 6 ml TDS.

      It is important to accurately calculate the dose of propranolol to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication for their condition. By considering the patient’s weight and the medication concentration, healthcare professionals can determine the correct dosage for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels

      Explanation:

      According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor in his left hand. Parkinson's disease is diagnosed, but he is currently not experiencing any significant disability. What is the recommended treatment approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New generation dopamine receptor agonist e.g. ropinirole

      Explanation:

      As per the latest NICE guidelines of 2017, it is advised to administer a dopamine receptor agonist for motor symptoms that do not significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: A Vital Test for Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a crucial test performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. This test screens for several conditions that may not be apparent at birth but can cause serious health problems if left undetected. The test involves pricking the baby’s heel and collecting a small amount of blood on a special filter paper. The paper is then sent to a laboratory for analysis.

      The conditions currently screened for include congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU). Early detection of these conditions can lead to prompt treatment and better outcomes for affected infants.

      Neonatal blood spot screening is a routine test that is recommended for all newborns. Parents should ensure that their baby receives this test to ensure their baby’s health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in individuals suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients receiving LTOT should breathe supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman is seen regarding contraception. She has been taking the progestogen-only...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is seen regarding contraception. She has been taking the progestogen-only pill for six years and wishes to stop. She has been amenorrhoeic for 8 months.

      One month ago, she presented with mood swings and a colleague checked her thyroid function and full blood count, which were both normal. Her FSH at the time was 51 (normal range less than 30).

      According to the FSRH, what is the most appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should use barrier contraception for six weeks then repeat FSH

      Explanation:

      FSH Testing and Contraception in Perimenopausal Women

      Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare advises that FSH levels can be measured in perimenopausal women using progestogen-only methods of contraception, but this should be limited to women over the age of 50. For women taking the progestogen-only pill, it is recommended to stop at age 55 when natural loss of fertility can be assumed for most women. However, if a woman over 50 with amenorrhoea wishes to stop before age 55, FSH levels can be checked. If the FSH level is above 30 IU/L, the contraception can be discontinued after one more year. If the FSH level is in the premenopausal range, the method should be continued, and the FSH level should be checked again after one year.

      NICE NG23 recommends diagnosing perimenopause based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, menopause in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception, and menopause based on symptoms in women without a uterus. It is important to note that measuring serum hormone levels in perimenopausal women can be complex, and discontinuing contraception should generally be restricted to women over the age of 50, as they are more likely to be menopausal. Overall, FSH testing can be a helpful tool in determining when to discontinue contraception in perimenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss of 1 stone and generalised fatigue. He has smoked 15 cigarettes per day for 45 years. He had a chest x ray done a week ago which reports a suspicious mass in the left lung with hilar enlargement ? lung cancer. The radiologist recommends urgent referral.

      You explain the findings to the patient and his wife and discuss the need for referral. The patient states that he has private medical insurance to cover out-patient appointments and he also has a close friend who is a general physician. He requests private referral to him as he knows he will be seen within a few days.

      There are other options for referral in your area. You have a district general hospital nearby where a respiratory physician does a clinic once a month, however the last clinic has only just been held. You have a community hospital nearby with a general physician visiting every two weeks. The tertiary referral hospital is some distance away but this is where the specialist lung cancer multi-disciplinary team are based and the patient will be seen within two weeks.

      The patient would rather be seen as near to home as possible.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NHS referral to multi-disciplinary lung cancer team at the tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral for Cancer Symptoms

      NICE guidance recommends that patients with symptoms suggestive of cancer should be referred to a team specializing in the management of that particular type of cancer. Referral to a private physician or a general physician at a community hospital doesn’t fulfill this requirement for specialized care. While a respiratory physician at a district general hospital may be an option, the potential delay of more than four weeks is not ideal. Therefore, despite the greater distance to travel, the best course of action is to refer the patient to a specialist team for optimal management of their cancer symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods,...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, particularly meat. She experiences discomfort at the lower end of the sternum and has trouble shifting it almost immediately after swallowing. The patient has a longstanding history of GORD and has intermittently taken omeprazole 20 mg/day for the past decade. She has not experienced any weight loss or vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for direct access upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for New Onset Dysphagia

      The sudden onset of dysphagia, even in patients with a long history of GORD and dyspepsia, requires an urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Delaying the referral can lead to serious complications and worsen the patient’s condition. Therefore, all other options apart from an urgent referral should be avoided. It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s health and well-being by promptly addressing any new symptoms that arise. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010

      In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.

      It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.

      Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.

      The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.

      Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect of a new treatment on cognitive decline in elderly patients. Ten participants are randomly assigned to the new treatment, and 10 continue with standard care. The results show no significant difference in cognitive decline between the two groups, with a p-value of 0.18 and an absolute risk reduction of 0.03. However, subsequent research with a larger patient population reveals a significant treatment effect on cognitive decline.

      What statistical mistake did the research team likely make?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      The researchers have committed a type II error, which means that they accepted the null hypothesis even though it was false. In this case, they found no effect of the drug when there actually was one. It is important to note that a false-positive, which is a type I error, would occur if they found a significant drug effect when there was none. There is no indication of selection bias in the stem, so we can assume that the participants were properly randomized. It is worth noting that a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true, which is the opposite of what happened in this case. Finally, a type III error is not commonly used, but it occurs when the null hypothesis is correctly rejected for the wrong reason.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of amenorrhoea. On examination you diagnose a mid trimester pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a single live foetus of approximately 24 weeks gestation with multiple congenital defects including left ventricular hypoplasia.

      She comes to you for further discussion, having talked to the gynaecologist and neonatal paediatrician. She decides that she wishes to be referred for a termination of pregnancy.

      Who must sign the HSA 1 Form before a termination of pregnancy may proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A gynaecologist and any other registered doctor

      Explanation:

      Abortion Laws in the UK

      Under the UK Abortion Act 1967, a registered medical practitioner may terminate a pregnancy if two other registered medical practitioners agree and sign in good faith that certain conditions relating to the woman or her unborn foetus apply. These conditions were updated in 1990, but the requirement for two signatures remains unchanged. It is important to note that this requirement applies regardless of the stage of the pregnancy.

      To comply with these laws, healthcare providers must complete the HSA1 and HSA2 abortion forms. These forms require detailed information about the woman’s medical history and the reasons for seeking an abortion. The forms must also include the signatures of the two medical practitioners who have agreed that the conditions for a legal abortion have been met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules: Bony Swellings in Osteoarthritis

      Heberden’s nodules are bony swellings that typically develop around the distal interphalangeal joints, particularly in the second and third fingers. These nodules are caused by calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the base of the terminal phalanges in osteoarthritis. This condition is more common in females and usually occurs in middle age. Heberden’s nodules can cause pain and stiffness in the affected joints, and may limit hand function. Proper management of osteoarthritis can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as the on-call physician. She had an uncomplicated medical abortion 13 days ago and had unprotected sex last night. She is uncertain if she requires emergency contraception. She has no specific contraception contraindications.

      What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and the copper intrauterine device is the only treatment option

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception Options Post-Abortion

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends emergency contraception if unprotected sexual intercourse occurs from five days post-abortion. There are three safe options for emergency contraception: oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, ulipristal acetate 30 mg, and the copper intrauterine device. The copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000 when used for emergency contraception. However, it carries the same contraindications as when used for regular contraception. It is important to consider all options and consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enoxaparin

      Explanation:

      Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed